Free Printable NEET - Qualifying IV

1.

During evolution see weads existed probably before how many years :

a)

320 million years

b)

200 million years

c)

100 million years

d)

350 million years

2.

Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder is called

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Muscular dystrophy

c)

Tetany

d)

Gout

3.

During evolution the animal which evolved in to the first amphibian that lived on both land and water were:

a)

Sauropsids

b)

Synapsids

c)

Lobefins

d)

Therapsids

4.

a)

A - (i), B - (ii) , C - (iii)

b)

A - (iii) , B - (i) , C - (ii)

c)

A - (iii) , B - (iv) , C - (ii)

d)

A - (iv) , B - (i) , C - (iii)

5.

During evolution which organism deposits and convert in to present days coal :

a)

Angiosperms

b)

Dicotyledons

c)

Bryophyte

d)

Pteridophytes

6.

Ringworm is .......... disease :

a)

helminth

b)

fungal

c)

bacterial

d)

viral

7.

Before how many year dinosaur suddenly disappeared from the earth :-

a)

100 million year

b)

65 million year

c)

200 million year

d)

165 million year

8.

a)

Common cold

b)

Typhoid

c)

Haemophilus influenzae

d)

Trichophyton

9.

Modern farmer's can increase the yield of Paddy upto 50% by the use of :

a)

Cyanobacteria

b)

Rhizobium

c)

Cyanobacteria in Azolla pinnata

d)

Farm yard manure

10.

In which phase of meiosis, the chromosomes do undergoes some dispersion, but they do not reach the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus ?

a)

Prophase-I

b)

Metaphase-I

c)

Telophase-I

d)

Prophase-II

11.

First transgenic plant :

a)

Potato

b)

Tomato

c)

Tobacco

d)

Maize

12.

Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

a)

Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)

b)

Centrioles - Site for active RNA synthesis

c)

Thylakoids - Flatted membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts

d)

Golgi body - Not surrounded by membrane

13.

Which fish selectively feed on larva of mosquito:-

a)

Gambusia

b)

Rohu

c)

Tobacco

d)

Maize

14.

Identify the A, B, C and D select the correct statements regarding to A, B, C and D.

a)

Percentage of "A" is maximum in the membrane

b)

Percentage of "B" is minimum in the membrane

c)

Lateral movement of "B" help in the measurement of fluidity of membrane

d)

The fluidity of membrane is due to "D"

15.

Which of the following method is most commonly used for creation of genetic variation–

a)

Polyploidy

b)

Hybridisation

c)

Mutation

d)

Genetic engineering

16.

Steroidal hormone are synthesised in :-

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Golgi body

c)

Smooth endoplasmic or eticulum

d)

Mitochondria

17.

Embryo culture is mostly used for –

a)

Establishing suspension culture

b)

Recovery of interspecific hybrids

c)

Somatic hybridisation

d)

Haploid plant production

18.

The experiment shown in the figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of linkage recombination. If in Cross I, genes are tightly linked and in Cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will be percentage of recombinants produced in Cross I and Cross II respectively ?

a)

98.7% and 62.8%

b)

1.3% and 37.2%

c)

37.2 and 1.3%

d)

62.8% and 98.7%

19.

Coniferales and cycadales have respectively :-

a)

Motile and non-motile sperms

b)

Motile and motile sperms

c)

Non-motile and motile sperms

d)

Non motile sperms

20.

a)

Independent assortment of chromosome

b)

Linkage

c)

Equational division

d)

Law of dominance

21.

The chromosome number of a embryo cell of fern is 6, the chromosome number of its leaf will be:

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

3

22.

Read the following statements :-

(a) It produces disorder in females more often than in males

(b) All female offsprings will exhibit disorder, if father possesses the same

(c) Do not transmitted to son if mother does not exhibit disorder.

Which of the following gene will have the above stated features?

a)

Sex-linked recessive gene

b)

Sex-linked dominant gene

c)

Autosomal dominant gene

d)

Autosomal recessive gene

23.

The unique feature of bryophytes being member of kingdom plantae :

a)

They lack roots

b)

The produce spores

c)

They lack vascular tissue

d)

Their sporophytes is attacehd to gametophyte

24.

a)

The strength of linkage between y and w is higher

b)

Crossing over between y and w is higher

c)

The strength of linkage between y and w is low

d)

All the above

25.

Read the following statements :-

(a) Bryophytes are thallus like and prostrate or erect

(b) They attached to the substratum by the help of only multicellular rhizoids

(c) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities

(d) The sporophyte of bryophytes is free living How many above statements are correct and incorrect regarding bryophytes :

a)

2–correct ; 2–incorrect

b)

1–correct ; 3–incorrect

c)

3–correct ; 1–incorrect

d)

4–correct ; 0–incorrect

26.

Which of the following tissue is not found in the skin of man ?

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Areolar tissue

c)

Dense fibrous connective tissue

d)

Both (A) and (C)

27.

The incorrect match for chlorophyll type is

a)

Chlorophyll a – Green algae

b)

Chlorophyll d – Diatoms

c)

Chlorophyll c – Diatoms & Brown Algae

d)

Chlrophyll d – Red Algae

28.

Most abundant formed elements with nucleus in blood of human are :-

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leucocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Platelets

29.

The stored food in rhodophyceae is floridean starch which is very similar in structure to :-

a)

Glycogen

b)

Amylopectin

c)

Both (A) & (B)

d)

Lipids

30.

Cockroach is :-

a)

Ureotelic

b)

Uricotelic

c)

Ammonotelic

d)

Aminotelic

31.

Find out the incorrect statement in the following :

a)

Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature

b)

Bacterial structure is very complex & they have very simple behaviour

c)

Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission

d)

Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having different cell wall structure

32.

Which of the following function is not influenced by pineal gland ?

a)

Defense capability

b)

Body temperature

c)

Sleep wake cycle and metabolism

d)

Electrolytic balance

33.

The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as :-

a)

Fruiting body

b)

Mycelium

c)

Protonema

d)

Plasmodium

34.

Retinal blood vessels entres into eye ball from which part :-

a)

Cornea

b)

Fovea

c)

Blind spot

d)

Pupil

35.

In the following diagrams which one is provide peat that have long been used as fuel :-

a)

b)

c)

d)

36.

Limbic system of brain does not includes or related with :

a)

Amygdala

b)

Excitement and pleasure

c)

Motivation

d)

Motor signaling

37.

AB–blood group is an example of ?

a)

Multiple allele

b)

ncomplete dominance

c)

Co-dominance

d)

Lethal gen

38.

Regulation of kidney function of Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) involves certain steps given below. Arrange them in the correct order :-

(a) Release of enzyme renin

(b) Release of aldosterone from adrenal gland

(c) Reabsorption of Na+ and water at DCT

(d) Decrease in blood pressure and blood volume

(e) Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin II

a)

a, e, b, c, d

b)

b, c, a, e, d

c)

c, d, a, e, b

d)

d, a, e, b, c

39.

The height of a plant is under control of polygenic inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb' has 20 cm height and height of plant having genotype AaBb is 50 cm, what will be height of a plant having AABB genotype ?

a)

45 cm

b)

60 cm

c)

80 cm

d)

15 cm

40.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect:-

a)

(A) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces

b)

(B) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis

c)

(C) Glomerulus alongwith Bowman's capsule is called the renal corpuscle

d)

(D) Renal corpuscles, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney

41.

In man gene for polydactyly shows :-

a)

Complete penetrance

b)

Incomplete penetrance

c)

Variable expressivity

d)

2 and 3 both

42.

Cardiac activity could be moderated by the autonomous neural system. Tick the correct answer :-

a)

The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

b)

The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume

c)

The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume

d)

The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume

43.

Which of the following cross is used to find out homozygosity or heterozygosity of a dominant individual ?

a)

Reciprocal cross

b)

Test cross

c)

Out cross

d)

Monohybrid cross

44.

Which among the following is correct during each cardiac cycle ?

a)

The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is same.

b)

The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is different

c)

The volume of blood received by each atrium is different

d)

The volume of blood received by the aorta and pulmonary artery is different

45.

Which part is removed at the time of emasculation in unisexual flower ?

a)

Anther

b)

Carpel

c)

Stamen

d)

None of the above

46.

Which of the following is largest organ of body?

a)

Liver

b)

Nerve

c)

Stomach

d)

Skin

47.

a)

A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v

b)

A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v

c)

A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv, E–v

d)

A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E–v

48.

The germ layers are formed during which stage of embryonic development :

a)

Morula

b)

Blastula

c)

Gastrula

d)

Blastocyst

49.

First transgenic plant was tobacco and it contains resistant gene for –

a)

Insect resistant

b)

Herbicide resistant

c)

Pest resistant

d)

Frost resistant

50.

In human During fertilization; a sperm firstly comes in contact with the which layer of the ovum

a)

Zona pellucida

b)

Vitelline membrane

c)

Jelly coat

d)

Zona radiataa

51.

Which of the following conclusions of Mendel can be explained by dihybrid cross

a)

Dominance

b)

Unit factor and segregation

c)

Independent assortment

d)

All the above

52.

Read the following statement :-

(A) Inhibitory proteins are released by epididymis which conserve energy of sperms

(B) Epididymis provides more ATP energy to sperms

(C) The singals of parturition originate from placenta and CNS

(D) Lactation amenorrhea is used as contraception

How many the above statement are correct?

a)

Four

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

One

53.

Main basis of DNA finger printing is :

a)

RFLP

b)

VNTR

c)

RAPD

d)

None of these

54.

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma :-

(a) Sertoli cells

(b) Seminal vesicle

(c) Spermatogonia

(d) Leydig cells

(e) Bulbourethral gland

(f) Prostate gland

a)

b, c, e, f

b)

a, b, c, f

c)

b, c, d, e, f

d)

only b, e, f

55.

a)

A–vii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v

b)

A–v, B–x, C–ii, D–i, E–iv

c)

A–vi, B–ii, C–ix, D–x, E–v

d)

A–x, B–i, C–vi, D–ix, E–x

56.

Generally, the absolute amount of nutrient moving in (input) and moving out (output) of the ecosystem are ......... than the amount of nutrient cycled with in (amongst different components) the ecosystem :-

a)

Lesser

b)

More

c)

Equal

d)

May be equal or lesser

57.

When foreign DNA is inserted into any vector, it results in inactivation of any marker gene. This is used for the selection of _____?

a)

Cancerous cells

b)

Non-transformant cells

c)

Transformant cells

d)

Recombinant cells

58.

a)

Decomposition

b)

Humification

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Mineralisation

59.

The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to:-

a)

Growth of LAB

b)

Production of O2 & ethanol

c)

Production of CO2

d)

Growth of yeast Monascus

60.

Dominance, species composition , stratification and physiognomy and species diversity are :

a)

Character of biodiversity

b)

Character of Biotic community

c)

Character of population

d)

Character of species

61.

Which one of the following match is correct ?

a)

Vitamin E – Water soluble – Sterlity

b)

Vitamin D – Fat soluble – Beri-Beri

c)

Vitamin B12 – Water soluble – Pellagra

d)

Vitamin A – Fat soluble – Night blindness

62.

Three mile island is famous for :-

a)

High species diversity

b)

Wetlands

c)

Radioactive incident

d)

Rare species

63.

Read the following four statements (A–D) :-

(A) Infection in alimentary canal can be caused by round worm

(B) Rennin enzyme found in gastric juice of infants helps in digestion of milk sugar.

(C) Principle organ for absorption of nutrients is small intestine

(D) Serosa is the outermost layer of alimentary canal

How many of the above statements are correct?

a)

Four

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Three

64.

In which process of decomposition, enzymatic conversion of the decomposing detritus to simpler compound and inorganic substances occur ?

a)

Fregmentation of detritus

b)

Leaching

c)

Catabolism

d)

Mineralisation

65.

How many fishes in the list given below are marine ?

Catla, Pomfret, Common carp, Silver carp, Hilsa, Rohu, Mackerel, Salmon, Mrigal

a)

Six

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

66.

How much percent of impurities make water unfit for human use ?

a)

0.1

b)

1

c)

10

d)

60

67.

What is the sequence of phases indicated in the growth curve

a)

a - lag, b - log, c - Inflexon phase

b)

a - lag, b - stationary, c - log

c)

a - log, b - lag, c - stationary

d)

a - lag, b - log, c - stationary phase

68.

Ozone hole over Antractica develops each year between :-

a)

Late August and early September

b)

Late February and early April

c)

Late August and early October

d)

Late November and early January

69.

When the resources are limited, which are the phases exhibited by an organism during growth?

a)

Lag, Log, exponential, asymptomatic, deacceleration

b)

lag, log asymptomatic, deacceleration, exponential

c)

Lag, log, deacceleration, exponential, asymptomatic

d)

Lag, acceleration, log, deacceleration, asymptomatic

70.

Flowers of pea, gram & bean are :-

a)

Actinomorphic and epigynous

b)

Actinomorphic and hypogynous

c)

Zygomorphic and hypogynous

d)

Zygomorphic and epigynous

71.

Which of the following sequence is incorrect?

a)

b)

c)

d)

72.

In brinjal flowers are :-

a)

Hypogynous

b)

Epigynous

c)

Perigynous

d)

Both hypogynous & perigynous

73.

In flowering plants diameter of pollen grains are about :

a)

5–10 µm

b)

25–50 µm

c)

50–100 µm

d)

100–200 µm

74.

In china rose the type of cohesion is :-

a)

Monoadelphous

b)

Diadelphous

c)

Polyadelphous

d)

None of the above

75.

An event unique to flowering plants are :-

a)

Endosperm formation

b)

Seed formation

c)

Ovule formation

d)

Double fertilization

76.

Valvate aestivation of corolla is found in :-

a)

Pisum / Fabaceae

b)

Tamarindus / Caesalpinoidae

c)

Sesbania / Fabaceae

d)

Tomato / Solanaceae

77.

Caruncle is present in :

a)

Ricinus

b)

Tomato

c)

Litchi

d)

None of the above

78.

Laticiferous vessels are found in :-

a)

Xylem tissue

b)

Phloem tissue

c)

Cortex

d)

None of the above

79.

A spider makes its web from the fluid that comes out of its:-

a)

Posterior part of abdomen

b)

legs

c)

Mouth

d)

Salivary glands

80.

Meristematic cells have :

a)

Thick cell wall and large intercellular spaces

b)

Thick cell wall and no intercellular spaces

c)

Thin cell wall and large intercellular spaces

d)

Thin cell wall and no intercellular spaces

81.

Pearls are produced in an ooyster around the:-

a)

Tears of sea mermaids falling in to ooyster.

b)

First drops of rain falling in to ooyster in a particular mouth

c)

Some external particles becoming embaded in skin of ooyster

d)

Eggs of ooyster which fail to leave its body

82.

Examine the following figure, in which one of the four options given all the items P, Q and R are correct ?

a)

P - Symport protein Q - Antiport protein R - Uniport protein

b)

P - Symport protein Q - Uniport protein R - Antiport protein

c)

P - Uniport protein Q - Symport protein R - Antiport protein

d)

P - Antiport protein Q - Symport protein R - Uniport protein

83.

Rasping organ in cuttle fish is :-

a)

Pectoral fin

b)

Pelvic fin

c)

Anterior & posterior dorsal fin

d)

None

84.

Match the column of mineral with their functions?

Column-I

a. Sulphur

b. Magnesium

c. Manganese.

d. Boron.

Column-II

i. Pollen germination

ii. Maintain ribosome structure

iii. Splitting of water.

iv. Main consituent of several coenzymes.

a)

a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv

b)

a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i

c)

a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

d)

a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii

85.

Select the peculiar character in sponges :-

a)

Marine & fresh habitat

b)

Tissue level body

c)

Intracellular digestion

d)

Collar cell

86.

Faciliated diffusion cannot cause net transport of molecules from a low to a high concentration because ?

a)

It would require input of energy.

b)

It would require output of energy.

c)

It required proteins.

d)

It would take place only for lipophilic substances.

87.

Mesenchyme is present in :-

a)

Spongilla

b)

Euplectella

c)

Both

d)

Pennatula

88.

Growth can be measured in terms of ?

a)

Fresh or dry weight increase.

b)

Increase in girth of stem.

c)

Increase in surface area of leaf

d)

All the above

89.

Temperature is very high but a plant is showing photosynthesis with normal rate, probably it would be ?

a)

C₃ plant

b)

Mango plant

c)

Pea plant

d)

Sugarcane plant

90.

When a molecule of pyruvic acid is subjected to anaerobic oxidation and forms lactic acid there is?

a)

Loss of 3 ATP molecules

b)

Loss of 6 ATP molecules

c)

Gain of 2 ATP molecules

d)

Gain of 4 ATP molecule

91.

If in $NH_3$ formation N uses its pure atomic orbital then wrong statement is :-

a)

At least three bond angle are of 90º

b)

Three ? bond with identical strength

c)

Lone pair will be in 2s orbital

d)

Molecule will be T-shaped

92.

a)

Forward

b)

Backward

c)

Exist in equilibrium

d)

can't predict

93.

a)

A is $NaHCO_3$

b)

B is metal carbonate which is soluble in $HO_2$

c)

pH of aquous solution of both A and E is 7

d)

$D\ \ \ is\ \ \ CaCO_3$

94.

Which of the following is not substitution reaction.

a)

b)

c)

d)

95.

Which of the following is most reactive towards $S_{N^2}$

a)

b)

c)

d)

96.

Insulin has :

a)

51 amino acid

b)

41 amino acid

c)

31 amino acid

d)

101 amino acid

97.

20 ml of 0.2 M HCN mix with 10 ml of 0.2 M NaOH, then calculate pH of resulting mixture. pKa value of HCN is 5 :-

a)

6

b)

7.5

c)

5

d)

11

98.

a)

b)

c)

d)

99.

Which of the following is not addition ploymer

a)

Polythene

b)

Teflon

c)

Poly acrylonitrile

d)

Terylene

100.

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding calcination ?

a)

Impurities are removed in the form of elemental vapours

b)

Carbonate ores convert into their oxides

c)

Temperature of the process is maintained below the melting point of the mixture

d)

Lower oxidation state oxides are oxidised further

101.

Which given statement is wrong ?

a)

Hydrated $CuSO_4$ shows ionic, covalent, coordinate and H-bond

b)

$NO_3$ – shows covalent and coordinate bonds

c)

$K_4\left[Fe\left(CN\right)_6\right]$ shows only ionic and coordinate bonds

d)

Anion of $K_2CO_3$ shows resonance

102.

a)

b)

c)

d)

103.

In which hybridisation angular shape is not possible ?

a)

sp

b)

sp²

c)

sp³

d)

None of these

104.

a)

a > b

b)

a < b

c)

a = b

d)

None

105.

Which of following is not extensive property:

a)

Temperature

b)

pressure

c)

Viscosity

d)

All

106.

Which of the following compounds does give N₂ on heating

a)

NH₄NO₂

b)

NH₄NO₃

c)

NaN₃

d)

Both (1) and (3)

107.

a)

b)

c)

d)

108.

Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give

a)

CuCN

b)

[Cu(CN)₄ ] ^3–

c)

[Cu(CN)₄] ^2–

d)

Cu(CN)₂

109.

$\Delta_cU^{\degree}\ of\ combustion\ of\ CH_4\left(g\right)\ at\ certait\ tempereture\ is\ -100\ \frac{KJ}{mol}.\ The\ value\ of\ \Delta_cH\degree\ is\ :$

a)

$Equal\ to\ \Delta_cU\degree$

b)

$<\ \Delta_cU\degree$

c)

$>\ \Delta_cU\degree$

d)

zero

110.

1000 mL 1 M CuSO₄ (aq) is electrolysed by 9.65 amp current for 100 sec using Pt-electrode. Which is incorrect statemenet?

a)

Blue colour intensity decreases during electrolysis.

b)

Blue colour intensity remains constant if Cu-electrode used.

c)

pH of solution is 8 after electrolysis.

d)

At anode O₂gas liberated during electrolysis

111.

a)

3 – Methyl hexanal

b)

2 – Methyl hexanal

c)

Hexane – 1 – Carbaldehyde

d)

Hexane – 2 – Carbaldehyde

112.

a)

P, Q, R, S

b)

Q, R, P, S

c)

S, R, Q, P

d)

R, S, P, Q

113.

a)

Ph – OH + Ph – CH₂ – I

b)

Ph – I + Ph – CH₂– I

c)

Ph – I + Ph – CH₂ – OH

d)

Ph – OH + Ph – CH₂ – OH

114.

Which of the following complexes exhibit the highest paramagnetic behaviour ?

a)

[Co(OX)₂ (OH)₂ ] ^–3

b)

[Ti(NH₃ ) ₆ ] ³⁺

c)

[V (gly)₂ (OH)₂ (NH₃ ) ₂ ] +

d)

Fe(en) (bpy) (NH₃ ) ₂ ] ²⁺

115.

In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B atoms whose A atoms are at the corner of the unit cell and B atoms at the face centers. One of the B atoms missing from one of the face in unit cell. The simplest formula of compound is :

a)

AB₃

b)

A₈B₅

c)

A₂B₅

d)

AB_2/5

116.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

a)

2r⁺ + 2r^– = a ; For NaCl type crystal

b)

Coordination number = 12 ; For fcc unit cell

c)

$4r=\sqrt{3}$ a ; For fcc unit cell

d)

ZnS Crystal ; Frenkel defect

117.

Which of the following can show Geometrical isomerism.

a)

b)

c)

d)

All of above

118.

Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution ?

a)

Mn³⁺

b)

Cr³⁺

c)

V³⁺

d)

All of above

119.

Increasing value of magnetic moments of :-

(i) [Fe(CN)₆ ]^4–

_(ii)[Fe(CN)₆ ] ^3–

⁽ⁱⁱⁱ⁾[Cr(NH3 ) ₆ ] ³⁺

^(iv)Ni(H2O)₄ ] ²⁺

a)

i < ii < iii < iv

b)

iv < iii < ii < i

c)

ii < iii < i < iv

d)

i < ii < iv iii

120.

a)

3 – Nitro benzoic acid

b)

3 – Nitro benzaldehyde

c)

3 – Amino benzoic acid

d)

3 – Amino benzaldehyde

121.

a)

Stephen reaction

b)

Rosenmund reduction

c)

Etard reaction

d)

Mendius reaction

122.

If k is rate constant and t is time then the degree of dissociation for a substance undergoing decay with first order kinetics is :-

a)

e^–kt

b)

1 – e^–kt

c)

1 + e^–kt

d)

e^kt

123.

A compound MX₂ has observed and normal molecular masses 65.6 and 164 respectively. Calculate percentage of ionization of MX₂ :-

a)

75%

b)

65%

c)

55%

d)

35%

124.

a)

b)

c)

d)

125.

Incorrect statement regarding adsorption is :-

a)

The extent of adsorption increases with the increases of surface area

b)

Physical adsorption is an exothermic process but it's enthalpy of adsorption is quite low as compared to chemical adsorption.

c)

Physical adsorption is highly specific and it will only occur if there is some possibility of chemical bonding between adsorbent and adsorbate.

d)

Physisorption of a gas adsorbed at low temperature may change into chemisorption at a high temperature

126.

Which of the following statements is correct ?

a)

[Pt(NO₃ ) ₂ (en)₂ ] ²⁺ complex ion can show linkage isomerism

b)

[Cr(CO₃ )(NH₃ ) ₄ ]Br can show ionization isomerism

c)

FeCl₃ .6H₂O can show hydrate isomerism

d)

[FeCl₃ (NH₃ ) ₃ ] can exhibit structural isomerism

127.

Find atomic number of that element from which pairing in 4f orbital starts :

a)

57

b)

58

c)

64

d)

65

128.

What is the potential of the cell containing two hydrogen electrodes as represented below :-

a)

–0.295 V

b)

–0.0591 V

c)

0.295 V

d)

0.591 V

129.

18 L mixture of N₂ and H₂ gives maximum 6 L of NH₃ at same temperature and pressure then what will be ratio of N₂ and H₂ initially taken ?

a)

1:5

b)

1:1

c)

1:2

d)

(1) & (2) Both

130.

The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is

a)

Fe

b)

Ni

c)

Pt

d)

V₂O₅

131.

In which dative bond is not present ?

a)

Protonation of ether

b)

HCl dissolved in water

c)

Dimerisation of BeCl₂

d)

Dimerisation of benzoic acid

132.

Which of the following is invert sugar.

a)

Sucrose

b)

Maltose

c)

Lactose

d)

Glucose

133.

Which of following is correct ?

a)

Radius of orbit r_2H > r_1He+ > r_1H

b)

Ionisation energy I.E_H> I.E_He+ > I.E_Li+2

c)

Total Energy E_1H < E_2H < E_3H

d)

Energy difference E_2H – E_1H < E_3H – E_2H <

134.

Which of the following compound forms silicones on hydrolysis ?

a)

(CH₃ ) ₂ SiCl₂

b)

(SiH₃ ) ₃N

c)

SiCl₄

d)

All

135.

If Br– configuration is [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s²4p⁶ then Br⁺² configuration will be identical to which element ?

a)

Se

b)

As

c)

Ga

d)

Ge

136.

A point charge q is placed at a distance a / 2 directly above the center of a square of side a. The electric flux through the square is :-

a)

$\frac{q}{\in_0}$

b)

$\frac{q}{\pi\in_0}$

c)

$\frac{q}{4\in_0}$

d)

$\frac{q}{6\in_0}$

137.

A heavy body moving with a velocity 30 m/ s and another small object at rest undergo an elastic collision. The latter will move with a velocity of :-

a)

30 m/s

b)

60 m/s

c)

80 m/s

d)

zero

138.

A vertical mass spring system executes simple harmonic oscillations with a period of 2s. A quantity of this system which exhibits simple harmonic variation with a period of 1 sec is :-

a)

Velocity

b)

Potential energy

c)

Phase difference between acceleration and displacement

d)

Difference between kinetic energy and potential energy

139.

If a photocell is illuminated with a radiation of 1240 Å, the stopping potential is found to be 8 volt; then the work function of the emitter and the threshold wavelength are :-

a)

2 eV, 2000 Å

b)

2 eV, 6200 Å

c)

2 eV, 2480 Å

d)

3 eV, 6200 Å

140.

A thin convex lens of focal length 5 cm is used as a simple microscope by a person with normal near point located (25 cm) away. What is the magnifying power of the microscope ?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

10

d)

12

141.

An atomic nucleus $_{90}Th^{232}$ emits several $\alpha$ and $\beta$ -radiations and finally reduces to $_{82}Pb^{208}$ . It must have emitted :-

a)

$4\alpha\ and\ 2\beta$

b)

$6\alpha\ and\ 4\beta$

c)

$8\alpha\ and\ 24\beta$

d)

$4\alpha\ and\ 16\beta$

142.

An electric potential difference will be induced between ends of the conductor shown in the diagram, when the conductor moves in the direction :-

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

L

d)

M

143.

With rise of temperature the surface tension of a liquid :-

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains constant

d)

none of these

144.

A stream-lined body falls through air from a height h on the surface of liquid. Let d and D denote the densities of the materials of the body and the liquid respectively. If D > d, then the time after which the body will be instantaneously at rest, is :-

a)

$\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}$

b)

$\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}\ \frac{D}{d}}$

c)

$\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}\ \frac{d}{D}}$

d)

$\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}\left(\ \frac{D}{D-d}\right)$

145.

A pipe 17 cm long is closed at one end. Which harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a 1.5 kHz source ? (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s–1) :-

a)

First

b)

Third

c)

Fifth

d)

Seventh

146.

a)

5/ $\sqrt{2}$

b)

3/ $\sqrt{2}$

c)

7/ $\sqrt{2}$

d)

1/ $\sqrt{2}$

147.

The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave varies with time of amplitude 2 Vm–1 propagating along z-axis. The average energy density of the magnetic field (in J m–3) is :-

a)

$13.29\times\ 10^{-12}$

b)

$8.86\times\ 10^{-12}$

c)

$17.72\times\ 10^{-12}$

d)

$4.43\times\ 10^{-12}$

148.

A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be :-

a)

400%

b)

66.6%

c)

33.3%

d)

200%

149.

a)

b)

c)

d)

150.

In the circuit shown here, $E_{1\ }=E_{2\ }=E_{3\ }=2V\ and\ R_{1\ }=R_{2\ }=\ 4\ ohms$ . The current flowing between points A and B through battery $E^2$ is:

a)

zero

b)

2 A from A to B

c)

2 A from B to A

d)

none of the above

151.

A body of mass 2.9 kg is suspended from a string of length 2.5 m and is at rest. A bullet of mass 100 g , strikes the block horizontally with velocity 150 ms–1 and sticks to it. What is the maximum angle made by the string with the vertical after the impact ? (g = 10 m/ $s^2$ )

a)

30°

b)

45°

c)

60°

d)

90°

152.

Pressure exerted by a gas is found to be 50 N/m2 , then the value of pressure in CGS system is :-

a)

0.5

b)

0.05

c)

5000

d)

500

153.

Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in figure. The force experienced by 10 cm length of wire Q is:-

a)

1.4 × 10–4 N towards right

b)

1.4 × 10–4 N towards left

c)

2.6 × 10–4 N towards right

d)

2.6 × 10–4 N towards left

154.

The magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 2L and carrying a current i is:-

a)

b)

c)

d)

155.

Three identical bodies of equal mass M each are moving along a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each body is :-

a)

$\sqrt{\frac{GM}{R}}$

b)

$\sqrt{\frac{GM}{3R}}$

c)

$\sqrt{\frac{GM}{\sqrt{3R}}}$

d)

$\sqrt{\frac{GM}{\sqrt{2R}}}$

156.

For the given circuit shown in fig, to act as full wave rectifier :– a.c. input should be connected across .............. and ................. the d.c. output would appear across ............. and ..................

a)

A, C, B, D

b)

B, D, A, C

c)

A, B, C, D

d)

C, A, D, B

157.

A hot liquid kept in a beaker cools from 80°C to 70°C in 2 min. If the surrounding temperature is 30°C, then the time of cooling of the same liquid from 60°C to 50°C :-

a)

240 s

b)

360 s

c)

480 s

d)

216 s

158.

Correct statement for diode is :–

a)

in full wave rectifier both diodes work alternatively.

b)

in full wave rectifier both diodes work simultaneously

c)

efficiency of full wave rectifier and half wave rectifier is same.

d)

full wave rectifier in bidirectional.

159.

A body falling on the ground from a height of 10 m, rebounds to a height 2.5 m, then the ratio of the velocities of the body just before and after the collision will be :-

a)

2

b)

4

c)

0.5

d)

0.25

160.

A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along x-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time period 1.2 sec. The minimum time taken by the particle to move from x = 2 cm to x = + 4 cm and back again is given by :-

a)

0.6 s

b)

0.4 s

c)

0.3 s

d)

0.2 s

161.

A 100 W bulb $B_1$ and two 60 W bulbs $B_2$ and $B_3$ , are connected to a 220 V source, as shown in Figure. Now $P_1$ , $P_1$ and $P_1$ are the output powers of the bulbs $B_1$ , $B_2$ and $B_3$ respectively. Then

a)

P1 > P2 = P3

b)

P1 > P2 > P3

c)

P1 < P2 = P3

d)

P1 < P2 < P3

162.

An inductor (L)-resistance (R), battery circuit is switched on at t = 0. If the e.m.f. of battery is E, the charge passing through the battery in time constant T is :-

a)

$\frac{ET}{Re}$

b)

$\frac{eET}{Re}$

c)

$\frac{ET}{R\pi e}$

d)

$\frac{2ET}{Re}$

163.

In the given AC circuit, when switch S is at position 1, the source emf leads current by $\frac{\pi}{6}$ . Now, if the switch is at position 2, then :-

a)

current leads source emf by $\frac{\pi}{4}$

b)

current leads source emf by $\frac{\pi}{3}$

c)

source emf lead current by $\frac{\pi}{4}$

d)

source emf lead current by $\frac{\pi}{3}$

164.

A student connects a voltmeter, ammeter and resistance according to the circuit given. If the voltmeter reading is 20 V and ammeter reading is 4 A, then the resistance will be

a)

equal to 5 $\Omega$

b)

more than 5 $\pi$

c)

less than 5 $\pi$

d)

less or more depending on the material of wire

165.

A circular loop of radius r is moved away from a current carrying wire then induced current in circular loop will be

a)

Clock wise

b)

Anti clockwise

c)

Not induced

d)

None of them

166.

Correct curve between fringe width $\beta$ and distance between slits(d) is :-

a)

b)

c)

d)

167.

A flywheel is making 3000 / $\pi$ revolutions per minute about its axis. If the moment of inertia of the flywheel about that axis is 400 $kgm^2$ , its rotational kinetic energy is

a)

$2\times10^6J$

b)

$3\times10^3J\$

c)

$500\ \pi^2J$

d)

$12\times10^3J$

168.

The equivalent capacitance between points A and B of the circuit shown will be :

a)

$\frac{2}{3}\mu F$

b)

$\frac{5}{3}\mu F$

c)

$\frac{8}{3}\mu F$

d)

$\frac{7}{3}\mu F$

169.

If ratio of maximum and minimum intensities is 36 : 1 in an interference pattern then, ratio of amplitudes of interfering waves is :-

a)

3:7

b)

7:4

c)

4:7

d)

7:5

170.

What is the angle between the electric dipole moment and the electric field strength due to it on the equatorial line :-

a)

$0^0$

b)

$90^0$

c)

$180^0$

d)

$45^0$

171.

The electric potential at any point as a function of distance (x) in meter is given by V = 5x2 + 10x – 9 (volt). Value of electric field at x = 1 is :-

a)

$-20Vm^2-1$

b)

$6Vm^2-1$

c)

$11Vm^2-1$

d)

$-23Vm^2-1$

172.

2g of steam condenses when passed through 40g of water initially at 25°C. The condensation of steam raises the temperature of water to 54.3°C, what is the latent heat of steam?

a)

540 cal/g

b)

536 cal/g

c)

270 cal/g

d)

480 cal/g

173.

Two bodies are thrown up at angles of 45° and 60°, respectively, with the horizontal. If both bodies attain same vertical height, then the ratio of velocities with which these are thrown is :-

a)

$\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}$

b)

$\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}$

c)

$\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}$

d)

$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

174.

Ten one–rupeed coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has mass m. The reaction of the 6th coin (counted from the bottom) on the 7th coins is

a)

4mg

b)

6mg

c)

7mg

d)

3mg

175.

What should be the maximum acceptance angle at the air-core interface of an optical fibre if $n_1$ and $n_2$ are the refractive indices of the core and the cladding respectively :-

a)

$\sin^{-1}\ \left(\frac{n^2}{n_1}\right)$

b)

$\sin^{-1}\ \sqrt{n\ \frac{2}{1}-\ n\ \frac{2}{2}m}$

c)

$\tan^{-1}\ \left(\frac{n_2}{n_1}\right)$

d)

$\tan^{-1}\ \left(\frac{n_1}{n_2}\right)$

176.

Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. lgnoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :-

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

2,3,4,1

c)

3,4,1,2

d)

4,3,2,1

177.

A block of mass m rests on a rough inclined plane. The coefficient of friction between the surface and the block is $\mu$ . At what angle of inclination $\theta$ of the plane to the horizontal will the block just start to slide down the plane?

a)

$\theta\ =\tan^{-1}\ \mu$

b)

$\theta\ =\cos^{-1}\ \mu$

c)

$\theta\ =\sin^{-1}\ \mu$

d)

$\theta\ =\sec^{-1}\ \mu$

178.

There are four force acting at a point P produced by strings as shown in figure, which is at rest. The forces $F_1$ and $F_2$ are

a)

$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}N,\ \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}N$

b)

$\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}N,\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}N$

c)

$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}N,\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}N$

d)

$\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}N,\ \frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}N$

179.

For waves propagating in a medium, identify the property that is independent of the others:-

a)

Velocity

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

d)

All these depend on each other

180.

A bullet of mass 20 g travelling horizontally with a speed of 500 m/s passes through a wooden block of mass 10.0 kg initially at rest on a surface. The bullet emerges with a speed of 100 m/s and the block slides 20 cm on the surface before coming to rest, the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface. (g = 10 m/ $s^2$ )

a)

0.16

b)

0.6

c)

0.5

d)

0.25

NEET - Qualifying IV

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

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