WorksheetsAUF-PAMET Quiz Show Practice
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The current chairman of the MT Board was appointed in the year:
a)
2017
b)
2018
c)
2019
d)
2020
2.
Considered as the most detrimental inborn error of metabolism:
a)
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b)
Congenital hypothyroidism
c)
Galactosemia
d)
Phenylketonuria
3.
You were promoted as the chief medical technologist of a free-standing tertiary laboratory here in Pampanga. Having worked for the said institution for 10 years, you are aware that the laboratory is in a state of disaster because a lot of the employees do not follow rules and there are no concrete guidelines in the organization when it comes to sanctions for misbehavior and negligence. The laboratory is also facing a lot of financial problems because of the unprofessional actions of the staff (e.g. giving free medical services to their relatives). Recall the managerial grid model and determine the leadership style that is MOST APPROPRIATE to use given the circumstances the laboratory is facing.
a)
Middle-of-the-road style
b)
Team style
c)
Indifferent style
d)
Authoritarian style
4.
Urine specimens negative for illegal drugs are kept on hold for at least:
a)
15 days.
b)
three days.
c)
10 days.
d)
five days.
5.
As per the newest HIV law, the Philippine National AIDS Council shall have how many members?
a)
8
b)
26
c)
21
d)
15
6.
Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
a)
Eosinophil
b)
Mast Cell
c)
Neutrophil
d)
Basophil
7.
Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?
a)
Complement components C1 and C3
b)
IL-1 and IL-6
c)
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10
d)
Gamma-interferon
8.
Cells that can act as antigen-presenting cells for exogenous antigens include:
a)
All nucleated cells.
b)
T lymphocytes.
c)
Endothelial cells.
d)
B lymphocytes.
9.
The germinal centers found in the cortical region of lymph nodes and the peripheral region of splenic periarteriolar lymphatic tissue:
a)
provide an infrastructure that on antigenic stimulation contains large populations of B lymphocytes and plasma cells.
b)
function in the removal of damaged erythrocytes from the circulation.
c)
act as the major source of stem cells and thus help maintain hematopoiesis.
d)
are the sites of natural killer T (NKT)-cell differentiation.
10.
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from:
a)
hematopoietic stem cells.
b)
macrophages or monocytes.
c)
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
d)
the fetal liver.
11.
What is this regressive and reversible cellular change wherein cells change into a different type of mature cell?
a)
Anaplasia
b)
Atrophy
c)
Metaplasia
d)
Dysplasia
12.
What is an example of an oncoviral agent that is commonly associated with Cervical Cancers?
a)
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
b)
Human Papilloma Virus
c)
Herpes Simplex Virus Type I
d)
Hepatitis B Virus
13.
What hone is used for badly nicked knives?
a)
Horse Leather
b)
Arkansas
c)
Belgium Yellow
d)
Fine Carborundum
14.
What supravital stain best demonstrates a cell's mitochondria?
a)
Janus Green
b)
Trypan Blue
c)
Ammoniacal Silver
d)
India Ink
15.
What fixative is best suited for tissues to be analyzed through Electrocytochemistry?
a)
Karnovsky’s Paraformaldehyde-Glutaraldehyde
b)
Paraformaldehyde
c)
Alcoholic Iodine
d)
Acetone
16.
Which of the following diseases is correlated to increased IGF-1 levels and has an inability to suppress glucose?
a)
Growth hormone deficiency
b)
Acromegaly
c)
Conn's Disease
d)
Varicocele
17.
Which disease is most likely associated with a patient who has low thyroid hormone levels and whose thyroid gland is being attacked by his own immune cells due to the presence of an autoantibody?
a)
Hashimoto's disease
b)
Grave's disease
c)
Plummer's disease
d)
Riedel's thyroiditis
18.
This is the main determinant for the renal excretion of potassium:
a)
Gastrin
b)
Cortisol
c)
AVP
d)
Aldosterone
19.
Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with hyperparathyroidism?
a)
Hyperphosphatemia
b)
Hypokalemia
c)
Hypocalcemia
d)
Hypercalcemia
20.
Which of the following disorders is associated with overproduction of epinephrine?
a)
Astrocytoma
b)
Conn's Disease
c)
Pheochromocytoma
d)
Neuroblastoma
21.
What blood type is NOT possible for an offspring of AO and BO mating?
a)
AB
b)
A or B
c)
O
d)
All are possible
22.
The S in setting SMART objectives stands for:
a)
Scientific
b)
Specific
c)
Sustainable
d)
Smart
23.
In a patient with HbH disease, how many alpha genes are deleted?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
24.
According to the latest update on medical parasitology taxonomy, what is the new name of Leishmania colombiensis?
a)
Endotrypanum occultus
b)
Leishmania occultus
c)
Endotrypanum colombiensis
d)
Cryptosporidium colombiensis
25.
Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?
a)
Chemistry
b)
Hematology
c)
Histology
d)
Microbiology
26.
Schistosomiasis is acquired thru:
a)
skin penetration of cercaria in contaminated water
b)
ingestion of ova
c)
skin penetration of rhabditiform larvae
d)
ingestion of metacercaria
27.
Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together?
a)
LISS
b)
Polyethylene glycol
c)
Polybrene
d)
ZZAP
28.
What may happen if you mix tubes too vigorously?
a)
Hemolysis
b)
Jaundice
c)
Lipemia
d)
No effect
29.
The O in SWOT Analysis stands for:
a)
Organization
b)
Operations
c)
Opportunities
d)
Objectives
30.
Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:
a)
Lead poisoning
b)
Porphyria cutanea tarda
c)
Alkaptonuria
d)
Hemolytic Anemia
31.
What antibodies are formed by a Bombay individual?
a)
Anti-A and Anti-B
b)
Anti-H
c)
Anti-AB
d)
Anti-A, -B, and -H
32.
What type of RBCs can be transfused to an A2 person with anti-A1?
a)
A only
b)
A or O
c)
B
d)
AB
33.
The recommended type of microscope for testing of spirochetes is ________.
a)
Brightfield
b)
Fluorescent
c)
Electron
d)
Phase Contrast
34.
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with:
a)
Arachis hypogea
b)
Salvia sclarea
c)
Dolichos biflorus
d)
Ulex europaeus
35.
Which hormone is most affected by the presence of a fever?
a)
Insulin
b)
Melatonin
c)
Testosterone<br />
d)
Thyroxine
36.
Characteristics of the HACEK group of bacteria include:
a)
association with urinary tract infections
b)
Gram stain pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli
c)
requirement of 5%-10% CO2 for growth
d)
requirement of 42oC for growth
37.
Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?
a)
Respiratory syncytial virus
b)
Measles virus
c)
Coxsackie A virus
d)
Coxsackie B virus
38.
The ESR of a patient with multiple myeloma is:
a)
variable
b)
markedly increased
c)
normal
d)
markedly decrease
39.
Which of the following features is the most characteristic of promyelocyte?
a)
nucleoli
b)
basophilic cytoplasm
c)
large cell size
d)
non-specific granules
40.
A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:
a)
Enriched
b)
Selective
c)
Differential
d)
Specialized
41.
Which of the following is NOT an aphasmid?
a)
Trichiuris trichiuria
b)
Stronglyoides stercoralis
c)
Capillaria philippinensis
d)
Trichinella spiralis<br />
42.
Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?
a)
Glucose
b)
Protein
c)
pH
d)
Bilirubin
43.
In a management context, the President of the Philippines manifests this type of power.
a)
Legitimate
b)
Expert
c)
Referent
d)
Special
44.
This principle is known as division of labor.
a)
Departmentalization
b)
Scalar principle
c)
Unity of command
d)
Work specialization
45.
Which of the following is the 2nd intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum?
a)
Cocepods
b)
Snails
c)
Freshwater Crabs
d)
Freshwater Fish
46.
The most rapid definitive diagnosis of a genital herpes simplex (HSV-2) infection in a 20-year-old man is made by which method?
a)
Direct immunofluorescence test for viral antigen in vesicle fluid
b)
Titer of serum and seminal fluid for antibodies to herpes simplex
c)
Detection of antiherpes simplex in seminal fluid
d)
Cell culture of vesicle fluid
47.
Blastoconidia are the beginning of which sturctures?
a)
Arthroconidia
b)
Germ tubes
c)
Pseudohyphae
d)
True hyphae<br />
48.
Which of the following stages of P. falciparum is rarely seen in peripheral blood?
a)
Schizonts
b)
Rings
c)
Gametocytes
d)
All are seen in peripheral blood.
49.
Patients with sulfhemoglobinemia has this characteristic blood color.
a)
Mauve lavender
b)
Chocolate brown
c)
Bright red
d)
Green
50.
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars urine indicates:
a)
True glycosuria
b)
A false-negative glucose oxidase reaction
c)
The presence of a non glucose reducing sugar such as galactose
d)
A trace quantity of glucose
51.
Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure:
a)
Cell size
b)
Cytoplasmic granularity
c)
Cell size
d)
Antigenic identificaation
52.
Which of the following tubes/additives is sometimes used to collect DNA tests?
a)
Gold/clot activator
b)
Light green/heparin
c)
Yellow/ACD
d)
Yellow/SPS
53.
In which of the following conditions is the urine SG likely to be below 1.025?
a)
Diabetes mellitus
b)
Drug overdoses
c)
Chronic renal failure
d)
Prerenal failure
54.
The dotted lines in an organizational chart indicate:
a)
authority
b)
type of position
c)
channels of communication
d)
span of control
55.
Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed agar?
a)
Phenol oxidase
b)
Catalase
c)
Urease
d)
Nitrate reductase
56.
Which of the following yeasts produces only blastoconidia on cornmeal Tween 80 agar?
a)
Candida spp.
b)
Trichosporon spp.
c)
Geotrichum spp.
d)
Cryptococcus spp.
57.
Lancefield’s classification of Streptococcus is based on:
a)
Type of hemolysis
b)
Cell wall polysaccharide
c)
Capsular antigens
d)
M protein serotype
58.
When testing for urinary protein with SSA, which condition may produce a false-positive result?
a)
Highly buffered alkaline urine
b)
The presence of x-ray contrast media
c)
Increased urinary SG
d)
The presence of red blood cells
59.
Which of the following is NOT a pre-analytical target of quality assurance?
a)
Report generation
b)
Specimen collection
c)
Specimen handling
d)
Test ordering<br />
60.
The temperature of heel warming devices should never exceed:
a)
37०C
b)
42०C
c)
98०F
d)
112०F
100 %
