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Worksheets

fohteeen

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which abdominal muscles run on each side of, and medial and posterior to, the kidneys?

a)

Rectus abdominis

b)

External obliques

c)

right and left psoas major

d)

erector spinae

2.

the average adult kidney measures ______ in length.

a)

2 to 3 inches ( 5 to 7 cm)

b)

4 to 5 inches (10 to 12 cm)

c)

6 to 8 inches ( 15 to 20 cm )

d)

8 to 10 inches (20 to 25 cm)

3.

what structure enables the kidneys to be visualized on plain abdmonial radiographs?

a)

adipose capsule

b)

renal pyramids

c)

major and minor calyces

d)

high volume or blood within the kidney

4.

which of the following functions is not performed by the urinary system?

a)

removing nitrogenous wastes

b)

regulating water levels in tissues

c)

regulating the acid-base and electrolyte balance

d)

producing and releasing adrenaline

5.

the term describing the total functioning portions of the kidney is the

a)

renal collecting system

b)

nephron

c)

glomerular capsule

d)

renal parenchyma

6.

urine will travel from the major calyces to the :

a)

renal pelvis

b)

ureter

c)

minor calyces

d)

renal pyramids

7.

The glomeruli, glomerular capsule, and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the _____ of the kidney.

a)

medulla

b)

cortex

c)

collecting system

d)

fibrous capsule

8.

the structural and functional unit of the kidney is:

a)

bowman capsule

b)

the calyx

c)

the nephron

d)

the glomerulus

9.

which structure of the kidney is labeled 3?

a)

minor calyx

b)

major calyx

c)

renal pelvis

d)

renal pyramid

10.

which structure and /or region of the kidney is labeled 1?

a)

minor calyx

b)

major calyx

c)

renal sinus

d)

medulla

11.

which structure is labeled 2

a)

renal pelvis

b)

ureterovesical junction

c)

ureteropelvic junction

d)

pelvis brim

12.

what structure is labeled 6?

a)

renal pelvis

b)

uretervesical junction

c)

renal sinuses

d)

trigone

13.

one of the three constricted points along each ureter is the pelvic brim. The location of this constricted point is:

a)

where the bladder meets the symphysis pubis

b)

at the level of the ischial spine

c)

where the iliac blood vessels cross over the ureters

d)

where the distal ureters connect to the bladder

14.

what is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?

a)

350 to 500 mL

b)

100 to 250 mL

c)

500 to 750 mL

d)

1000 to 1200 mL

15.

which term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control?

a)

urination

b)

urinary release

c)

incontinence

d)

anuria

16.

the numerous mucosal folds located within the urinary bladder are termed?

a)

trigone

b)

mucosa

c)

rugae

d)

vesical mucosa

17.

which of the following compounds is a common cation (+) found in ionic contrast media?

a)

diatrizoate

b)

iodine

c)

meglumine

d)

benzoic acid

18.

which component of an ionic contrast media increases in solubility?

a)

cation

b)

anion

c)

benzoic acid

d)

iodine

19.

which of the following is true with nonionic-type contrast media?

a)

low osmolality

b)

the inability to dissociate into two separate ions

c)

less chance of reaction

d)

all of the above

20.

which of the following occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media?

a)

moderate itching and sneezing

b)

metallic taste in mouth and a temporary hot flash

c)

mild condition of urticara (hives)

d)

all of the above

21.

the american college of radiology recommends that metformin ( a drug used for diabetes mellitus) be withheld for ___ hour(s) following a contrast media procedure.

a)

1

b)

8

c)

24

d)

48

22.

The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is ____mg/dL

a)

0.1 to 0.5

b)

0.6 to 1.5

c)

3 to 4.5

d)

6 to 7.5

23.

normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels in adults should no exceed ______ mg per 100 mL

a)

1.5

b)

5

c)

10

d)

25

24.

what is the primary purpose of the permedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media study?

a)

reduces anxiety

b)

permits greater contrast enhancement of kidneys during an intravenous urography (IVU)

c)

reduces the severity of a possible contrast media reaction

d)

decreases blood pressure

25.

which one of the following drugs is often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction?

a)

diazepam

b)

benadryl and prednisone

c)

fluoxetine

d)

verapamil

26.

which of the following symptoms is classified as "mild" during a systematic contrast media reaction?

a)

itching

b)

hypotension

c)

extravasation

d)

angieodema

27.

if a patient experiences trachycardia (>100 heartbeats/min) following a systemic contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a reaction.

a)

mild

b)

moderate

c)

severe

d)

vasovagal

28.

if a patient experiences laryngeal swelling following a contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a ____ level reation.

a)

mild

b)

moderate

c)

severe

d)

local

29.

the drug lasix is classified as a :

a)

contrast agent

b)

cathartic

c)

diuretic

d)

salicylate

30.

a brief loss of consciousness caused by reduced cerebral blood flow is termed

a)

syncope

b)

brachycardia

c)

hypotension

d)

angioedema

31.

a region or area of subcutaneous swelling caused by allergic reaction to food or drugs is termed?

a)

oliguria

b)

micturition

c)

synocope

d)

angioedema

32.

which of the following symptoms is considered a severe reaction to contrast media and is a life-threatening condition requiring life saving measures?

a)

tachycardia (rapid heartbeat)

b)

excessive urticaria (hives)

c)

extravasation at the injection site

d)

cardiac arrhythmias

33.

which of the following conditions is considered to be higher risk ( a contraindication ) for a contrast media reaction?

a)

hematuria

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

urinary tract infection

d)

renal calculi

34.

what is the correct course of action for the technologist when, during an injection of contrast media, a patient experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes and some metallic taste in his mouth?

a)

call for a physician to complete the injection

b)

stop the injection of contrast media immediately.

c)

stop the injection but continue the normal imaging sequence.

d)

reassure the patient and continue the injection and imaging sequence, while carefully observing the patient for a possible more severe reaction to follow.

35.

which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissue of the arm?

a)

extravasation

b)

filtration

c)

exudation

d)

micturition

36.

which level of contrast media reaction has occurred when the patient develops moderate urticaria?

a)

normal side effect

b)

mild reaction

c)

moderate reaction

d)

severe reaction

37.

which of the following is considered as a contraindication for an IVU procedure?

a)

hypertension

b)

anuria

c)

hematuria

d)

all of the above

38.

which of the following conditions is considered a moderate- level contrast media reaction requiring treatment?

a)

nausea and vomiting

b)

syncope

c)

tachycardia

d)

none of the above

39.

what is the recommended treatment protocol for extravasation?

a)

give the patient diphenhy dramine (benadryl)

b)

elevate the limb and apply cold compress over injection site

c)

increase IV fluids

d)

give the patient lasix immediately

40.

the rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed:

a)

rapid-fire injection

b)

rapid-drip infusion

c)

bolus injection

d)

IV infusion

41.

in preparation for a venipuncture , a tourniquet should be applied_______ above or proximal to the site of injection.

a)

1 to 2 inches ( 2.5 to 5 cm)

b)

3 to 4 inches ( 7.5 to 10 cm)

c)

6 to 7 inches ( 15 to 18 cm)

d)

8 to 10 inches (20 to 25 cm)

42.

the most common size needle sued for bolus injection of contrast agents for adult patients is _____ gauge.

a)

23 to 25

b)

14 to 16

c)

18 to 22

d)

28

43.

which of the following veins is not normally used during venipunture?

a)

median cubital

b)

axillary

c)

cephalic

d)

basilic

44.

patchy blunting of the calyces is a radiographic sign of:

a)

polcystic kidney disease

b)

renal hypertension

c)

chronic pyelonephritis

d)

ectopic kidney

45.

ureteric compression is contraindicated for patients with history of:

a)

hematuria

b)

abdominal mass

c)

hypertension

d)

flank pain

46.

how is contrast media normally introduced during a retrograde cystogram?

a)

intravenously

b)

with an injection through the urethra with a large syringe and catheter

c)

gravity flow through catheter

d)

Either B or C

47.

what is the recommended position for a male retrograde urethrogram?

a)

30 upright posterior oblique (RPO)

b)

45 RPO

c)

lateral

d)

2 left anterior oblique ( LAO)

48.

with automatic exposure control ( AEC), which ionization chamber(s) should be activated for an AP projection taken during an IVU?

a)

left and right upper chambers

b)

center chamber

c)

left chamber

d)

center and right upper chamber

49.

which one of the following veins is NOT selected for venipuncture during IVU?

a)

basilic

b)

cephalic

c)

axillary

d)

median cubital

50.

where is the central ray (CR) centered for a nephrotomogram of the kidneys?

a)

at the xiphoid process

b)

at the iliac crest

c)

midway between the iliac crest and the xiphoid process

d)

midway between the asis and the iliac crest

51.

a nephrogram taken during an IVU demonstrates that the renal parenchyma is poorly visualized but the calyces are contrast enhanced. what is the most likely reason for this radiographic outcome?

a)

the kV may have been too high

b)

the contrast media was diluted

c)

the patient has hpyertension

d)

the exposure was not taken soon enough following the injection.

52.

a radiograph of a left posterior oblique ( LPO) position taken during an IVU reveals that the right kidnet is foreshortened and superimposed over the spine. What must the technologist do to correct this error during the repeat exposure?

a)

decrease rotation

b)

increase rotation

c)

increase CR angulation

d)

place the patient in the RPO position to better demonstrate the right kidney,

53.

a radiograph of an AP projection taken during a retrograde cystogram reveals that the floor of the bladder is superimposed over the symphysis pubis. what error led to this radiographic finding?

a)

excessive CR angulation

b)

rotation of the pelvis

c)

insufficient CR angulation

d)

excessive filling of the bladder with the contrast media

54.

a patient comes to radiology for an IVU. during the procedure, the radiologist suspects nephroptosis. which of the following positions best demonstrate this condition?

a)

erect

b)

prone

c)

supine with uretric compression

d)

RPO and LPO

55.

a patient comes to radiology for an IVU. the clinical history states that the patient may have an enlarged prostate gland ( benign prostatic hyperplasia ). which of the following positions best demonstrates this condition?

a)

AP erect, prevoiding and voiding

b)

PA prone, CR perpendicular

c)

AP supine with a 15 CR caudad angle

d)

30 RPO

56.

a patient comes to radiology, after surgery of the abdomen, for an IVU with an order for ureteric compression to enhance pelvicalyceal filling. what should the technologist do?

a)

use mild ureteric compression only.

b)

place the patient into a trendelenburg postion instead of compression

c)

perform all projections erect

d)

raise the foley bag above the tabletop to keep the contrast media in the kidneys longer

57.

a patient comes to radiology for an IVU. he has a clinical history of renal hypertension. how should the IVU procedure be altered for this patient?

a)

keep ureteric compression inflated for all projections

b)

give the patient a diuretic agent before the procedure

c)

provide images every 30

d)

1

58.

a patient comes to radiology with a history of vesicourethral reflux. the patient states that she is highly sensitive to iodinated contrast media. Which of the following alternative procedures could be performed to demonstrate this condition?

a)

radionuclide scan

b)

sonography

c)

CT

d)

MRI ( magnetic resonance imaging)

59.

a make patient comes to radiology for a voiding cystourethrogram. which of the following projections and/or positions would be performed for this procedure?

a)

30 RPO

b)

erect lateral

c)

recumbent lateral

d)

erect PA

60.

a patient during an injection of contrast media, complains about pain at the injection site. the radiographer notices a moderate degree of swelling beneath the skin. the radiographer stops the injection and suspects that the needle has slipped out of the vein. what should the radiographer do after removing the needle to alleviate the patients discomfort?

a)

give the patient diphenhydramine ( benadryl)

b)

elevate the limb and place a cold compress over the injection site.

c)

place ice over the injection site

d)

flex and extend the elbow to increase absorption of contrast media into the soft tissue.

61.

a patient comes to radiology for an IVU. his laboratory report indicates a creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL. what should be the technologists next step?

a)

proceed with the study.

b)

notify the radiologist of an elevated creatinine level.

c)

notify the referring physician of an elevated creatinine level.

d)

escort the patient to the emergancy department (ED) right away.

62.

a patient with a possible ureteric stone comes from the emergency department (ED) for an IVU. she has a blood urea nitrogen ( BUN) level of 50. which of the following imagining modalities is recommended for this patient?

a)

IVU using ionic contrast media

b)

sonography

c)

CT

d)

MRI

63.

during an IVU, the patient develops severe urticaria. what should be the next action taken by the technologist?

a)

call a code emergency

b)

comfort the patient ; this is a common side effect

c)

give the patient diphenhydramine ( benadryl)

d)

get medical assistance

64.

a patient experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast media. what should be the next action taken by the technologist?

a)

call a code emergency

b)

comfort the patient ; this is a common side effect

c)

give the patient diphenhydramine ( benadryl)

d)

get medical assistance

65.

absence of a functioning kidney

a)

anuria

b)

polyuria

c)

micturition

d)

renal agenesis

66.

excretion of diminished amounts of urine

a)

micturtion

b)

oliguria or hypouresis

c)

anuria

d)

polyuria

67.

act of voiding

a)

anuria

b)

hematuria

c)

polyuria

d)

micturition

68.

complete cessation of urinary secretion

a)

anuria

b)

polyuria

c)

micturition

d)

hematuria

69.

passage of a large volume of urine

a)

anuria

b)

polyuria

c)

renal agenesis

d)

hematuria

70.

blood in the urine

a)

anuria

b)

polyuria

c)

hematuria

d)

micturition

71.

artificial opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestines

a)

horseshoe kidney

b)

ectopic kidney

c)

vesicocolonia fistula

d)

staghorn kidney stone

72.

normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen but remains in the pelvis

a)

horseshoe kidney

b)

ectopic kidney

c)

staghorn kidney stone

d)

BPH ( benign prostatic hyperplasia )

73.

age-associated enlargement of the prostate gland

a)

urinary incontinence

b)

horseshoe kidney

c)

staghorn kidney stones

d)

BPH ( benign prostatic hyperplasia )

74.

large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis

a)

urinary incontinence

b)

horseshoe kidney

c)

staghorn kidney stone

d)

ectopic kidney

75.

fusion of the kidneys during development of the fetus

a)

horseshoe kidney

b)

staghorn kidney stone

c)

urinary incontinence

d)

ectopic kidney

76.

constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine

a)

urinary continence

b)

horseshoe kidney

c)

vesticocolonic fistula

d)

BPH ( benign prostatic hyperplasia )

77.

the suprarenal glands are part of the endocrine system.

a)

true

b)

false

78.

the left kidney is generally slightly lower or more inferior than the right.

a)

true

b)

false

79.

ionic contrast agents use a parent compound of a carboxyl group ( benzoic acid)

a)

true

b)

false

80.

nonionic contrast agents create a hypertonic condition in the blood plasma as compared with ionic agents

a)

true

b)

false

81.

nonionic contrast agents may increase the severity of side effects as compared with ionic contrast agents.

a)

true

b)

false

82.

nonionic contrast agents contain no positively charged cations.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

a vasovagal contrast media reaction can be a life-threatening condition.

a)

true

b)

false

84.

a medical emergency must be declared if the patient experiences a moderate contrast media reaction.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

extravasation is classified as a local reaction

a)

true

b)

false

86.

phlebitis is considered to be a systemic contrast media reaction

a)

true

b)

false

87.

venipuncture procedures may be performed by a technologist only if a physician is present in the room or is an adjoining room.

a)

true

b)

false

88.

patients ( or legal guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncutre proceedure.

a)

true

b)

false

89.

the bevel of the needle must be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

if available, the technologist should use a central line catheter to introduce contrast agents into the patient.

a)

true

b)

false

91.

over-the-needle catheters are often used for drip infusion studies.

a)

true

b)

false

92.

the technologist should leave a butterfly needle in the vein for the first part of the IVU following injections.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

CT ( computed tomography) of the kidney for renal calculi does not require the use of intravenous contrast media.

a)

true

b)

false

94.

ultrasound is an effective imagining modality in demonstrating cystitis.

a)

true

b)

false

95.

if an IVU is performed on a female, the menstrual history must be obtained.

a)

true

b)

false

96.

gernerally, female patients cannot be shielded during an IVU ( except for nephrotomography )

a)

true

b)

false

97.

it is recommended to inject contrast media through a shunt when one is present in the patient.

a)

true

b)

false

98.

if both procedures are ordered the same day, a barium enema must be performed before an IVU

a)

true

b)

false

99.

all reactions, regardless of their severity, must be documented.

a)

true

b)

false

100.

a true allergic reaction is also called an anaphylactic reaction

a)

true

b)

false