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DERM EXAM 1 DR. HEETER MINOR BURNS

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are the two healing methods ?

a)

scarring

b)

burn

c)

regeneration

d)

cut

2.

Which of the following involves the epithelial layer only?

a)

extra deep wound

b)

regeneration

c)

scarring

d)

deep wounds

3.

Which of the following involves the deep wounds and deeper layers?

a)

epithelial layer only

b)

scarring

c)

regeneration

d)

superficial wounds

4.

In the scarring wounds there are multiple phases, which of the following are these phases?

a)

telophase

b)

proliferative phase

c)

inflammatory phase

d)

maturation phase

5.

Which of the following involves the inflammatory phase?

a)

hemostatis

b)

fibroplasia

c)

inflammation

d)

epithelization

6.

Which of the following are involved in the proliferative phase?

a)

inflammation

b)

epithelization

c)

hemostasis

d)

fibroplasia

7.

Which of the following are true about the inflammatory phase?

a)

hemostasis

b)

inflammation

c)

lasts 3-4 days

d)

prepares wound for subsequent

e)

there is tissue development

8.

In the inflammatory phase there is an order to that goes from inflammation to vasodilation and then to vascular permeability.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

In the inflammation part in the inflammatory phase which of the following are true?

a)

bacteria and debris are removed (phagocytosis)

b)

nutrients and immune cells does not migrate to any area

c)

nutrients and immune cells migrate to area

d)

epithelial cells migrate into wound (best in moist environment)

10.

Which of the following are true about Hemostasis ?

a)

injury to large vessels may require

b)

does not stop blood and gain restore perfusion

c)

immediately upon skin injury

d)

stop blood and loss restore perfusion

11.

Which of the following are true about the blood loss and restore perfusion in the Hemostasis part of the inflammatory phase?

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

ligation

c)

platelet aggregation

d)

clotting cascade

12.

Which of the following are true about the injury to large vessels may rein the Hemostasis part may require of the inflammatory phase?

a)

hemostatic energy devices

b)

ligation

c)

pressure application

d)

electrocautery

e)

hemostatic agents (topical vs systemic)

13.

Which of the following are true about the proliferative phase in the scarring?

a)

starts at day 3 and continues for 3 weeks

b)

ligation

c)

epithelization

d)

formation of granulation tissue

14.

What happens in the epithelization at the proliferative phase?

a)

migration of lucidum and epithelial cells

b)

migration of granulosum and epithelial cells

c)

migration of basal and epithelial cells

d)

migration of corneum and epithelial cells

15.

In which of the following phases the wound begin to close?

a)

maturation phase

b)

proliferative phase

c)

hemostasis

d)

inflammation

16.

Which of the following are true about the maturation phase?

a)

epithelization

b)

continual process of collagen synthesis and breakdown

c)

wound begin to close in this phase

d)

longest phase of wound healing

17.

Which of the following are true about the continual process of collagen synthesis and breakdown in the maturation phase?

a)

collagen crosslinking and remodeling

b)

result is scar with 70-80% of original skin

c)

repigmentation with melanocyte migration

d)

early collagen breakdown

e)

wound begins to close in this phase

18.

The phase of wound healing in the maturation phase may continue for 2 years after injury.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Which of the following wound phases begins after complete wound closure (3 week)

a)

formation of granulation tissue

b)

epithelization

c)

proliferative phase

d)

maturation phase

20.

The impaired migration of immune cells and delivery of nutrients/oxygen is under which factor affecting wound healing?

a)

tissue perfusion/deamination

b)

tissue perfusion/oxygenation

c)

nutrition

d)

age and weight

21.

In which of the following patients or diseases the tissue perfusion/oxygenation as a factor affecting wound healing expresses?

a)

hypotension

b)

PVD (Peripheral Vascular Disease)

c)

diabetics

d)

severe anemia

e)

heart failure

22.

Which of the following are true about factors affecting wound healing?

a)

infection

b)

age and weight

c)

tissue perfusion/oxygenation

d)

coexisting diabetes mellitus

e)

nutrititon

23.

Which of the following are true about medications as factors affecting wound healing?

a)

traumatic wounds may be contaminated with skin flora.

b)

anticoagulants-impaired hemostasis

c)

impair immune/inflammatory response and may predispose to infection

d)

impaired cellular division

24.

Which of the following medications impair immune/inflammatory response and may predispose to infection.

a)

prednisone, methylprednisolone

b)

immunosupresants

c)

corticosteroids

d)

cyclosporine

e)

tacrolimus, pimecrolimus, TNF alpha inhibitors

25.

Which of the following anticoagulant medications impaired hemostasis ?

a)

apixaban

b)

rivaroxaban

c)

warfarin

d)

prednisone

26.

Which of the following are considered acute wounds?

a)

burns

b)

lacerations

c)

punctures

d)

abrasions

e)

venous ulcers

27.

Which of the following are considered chronic wounds?

a)

lacerations

b)

arterial ulcers

c)

venous ulcers

d)

pressure ulcers

28.

The are 4 different classification stages by wound depth.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

No loss of any skin layer, reddened, nonblanching, unbroken skin is considered what stage?

a)

Stage II

b)

Stage I

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

30.

Which of the following are true about the Stage I of the classification by wound depth?

a)

Superficial

b)

red pink wound bed

c)

reddened, nonblanching

d)

unbroken skin

31.

Which of the following are true about the Stage II of the classification by wound depth?

a)

intact or ruptured serum filled blister

b)

unbroken skin

c)

partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and part of the dermis

d)

red pink wound bed

e)

superficial partial thickness

32.

Which of the following are true about the Stage III of the classification by wound depth?

a)

very painful

b)

no loss of any skin layer

c)

subcutaneous fat may be visible; no muscle, tendon, or bone exposed.

d)

may include undermining and tunneling

e)

Deep partial thickness

33.

Which of the following are true about the Stage IV of the classification by wound depth?

a)

subcutaneous fat may be visible

b)

muscle, tendon and/or bone may be exposed and extend through the dermis

c)

often includes undermining and tunneling

d)

red pink wound bed

e)

full thickness

34.

Intact or ruptured serum filled blister and red pink wound bed occurs in what stage of wound depth

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

35.

Full thickness skin loss and subcutaneous fat may be visible occurs in what stage of wound depth

a)

Stage II

b)

Stage III

c)

Stage IV

d)

Stage I

36.

Muscle tendon and/or bone may be exposed occurs in what stage of wound depth

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IV

37.

Which of the following are the burn classifications?

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Full thickness

d)

Deep partial thickness

e)

1st degree

38.

In which of the following burns we a painful area of erythema and involves only the epidermis and no significant damage?

a)

Superficial partial thickness

b)

Superficial

c)

Full thickness

d)

Deep partial thickness

39.

In which of the following burns we have painful blistering and damage to the epidermis ?

a)

Superficial

b)

Superficial partial thickness

c)

Deep partial thickness

d)

Full thickness

40.

In which of the following burns we see a patchy white to red area involving the epidermis and part of dermis?

a)

Full thickness

b)

Superficial

c)

Superficial partial thickness

d)

Deep partial thickness

41.

In which of the following burns we see a dry, leathery, painless area with no feeling and the destruction of both epidermis and dermis?

a)

Full thickness

b)

Superficial

c)

Superficial partial thickness

d)

Deep partial thickness

42.

It is called a ________________________ when there is a skin contact with hot objects and inhalation of smoke or hot vapors

a)

electrical burns

b)

thermal burns

c)

chemical burns

d)

sun exposure

43.

In which of the following burns there is contact with high voltage source generally having entrance and exit sites with damage in between , including bone.

a)

thermal burns

b)

electrical burns

c)

chemical burns

d)

sun exposure

44.

Which of the following burns are considered part of the electrical burns?

a)

sun exposure

b)

thermal burns

c)

flash burns

d)

contact burns

45.

When there is skin contact with acidic or alkaline substances we can say there is a _______________________

a)

electrical burn

b)

sun exposure burn

c)

chemical burn

d)

thermal burn

46.

Which of the following are true about the abrasions or acute wounds?

a)

self treatment unless wound extends deep into dermis or hypodermis

b)

does not involve the epidermis and uppermost portion of dermis

c)

rubbing/friction injury

d)

involves epidermis and possible the uppermost portion of dermis

47.

Which of the following are not true about the punctures in the acute wounds?

a)

difficult to cleanse

b)

physician will need to assess for tetanus booster or antibiotics

c)

self treatment is generally not appropriate

d)

result from sharp object piercing epidermis

e)

self treatment is appropriate especial with OTC drugs.

48.

Which of the following are true about lacerations in acute wounds?

a)

result from a sharp object cutting/slicing through the skin

b)

possible need for stiches

c)

may be appropriate for self treatment

d)

physician may need to assess for tetanus booster or antibiotics

e)

no antibiotics or tetanus booster needed

49.

All wounds should not be referred for further medical evaluation

a)

False

b)

True

50.

Which of the following are true about pressure ulcers in chronic wounds ?

a)

damages skin and underlying tissue

b)

result from unrelieved pressure, shearing forces, friction and moisture

c)

range from mild skin reddening to severe crater formation

d)

pressure sores, bed sores, or decubitus ulcers

e)

does not damage skin and underlying tissue

51.

Which of the following are true about arterial ulcers in chronic wounds?

a)

secondary to PVD

b)

it is not painful

c)

often occurs in lower extremities

d)

can be very painful

52.

Which of the following are true about venous ulcers in chronic wounds?

a)

incompetent/damaged valves allow pooling of blood and high venous pressure in legs.

b)

may lead to ulceration

c)

result from dysfunction of venous valves

d)

often occurs in low extremities

53.

Which of the following drugs act as wound debridement and clean the wound removing dirt, debris, bacteria, eschar

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Santyl Collagenase

c)

Band Aid

d)

Fluocinonide

54.

What are the the several debridement types:

a)

Irrigation

b)

sunburn

c)

Surgical

d)

Enzymatic

e)

Biologic

55.

Which of the following are preferred for irrigation?

a)

normal saline

b)

sterile water

c)

irrigate wound to remove dirt and debris

d)

antiseptics

e)

iodine

56.

Which of the following are true about wound irrigants/antiseptics?

a)

bactine

b)

Lidex

c)

band aid

d)

HURT-FREE antiseptic wash

e)

do not apply to deep wounds

57.

Which of the following are true about antiseptics ?

a)

hydrogen peroxide

b)

honey

c)

isopropyl alcohol/ethyl alcohol

d)

povidone/iodine

e)

Silber based

58.

Which of the following analgesics by oral route (systemic) can be used for patient having pain associated with a wound?

a)

APAP

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Aspirin

d)

Acetaminophen

e)

Valtrex

59.

Which of the following analgesics by topical route can be used for patient having pain associated with a wound?

a)

lidex

b)

benzocaine

c)

dibucaine

d)

lidocaine

e)

pramoxine

60.

Which of the following OTC drugs can be used as an antibiotic for pharmacological treatment of wounds?

a)

zovirax

b)

Neosporin

c)

Neomycin/Polymyxin B /Bacitracin

d)

valtrex

61.

The topical anesthetics are for temporarily relief of pain associated with minor wounds, burn and sunburns.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Antibiotic therapy is only indicated for wounds that appear inffected.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which of the following are considered topical anesthetics?

a)

neosporin

b)

lidocaine

c)

benzocaine

d)

pramoxine

64.

We must have caution on application to large wounds due to potential for significant systemic absorption.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following is true about a non pharmacological treatment which is considered A NEGATIVE PRESSURE THERAPY?

a)

most successful in pressure ulcers

b)

reduces edema around wound, stimulates circulation, and increases rate of granulation tissue

c)

aka "wound-vac"

d)

most successful in venous ulcers

66.

Most useful on heavily exuding wounds and often early in inflammatory phase, tissue may become overly moist leading to maceration.

a)

None of the above

b)

Open or Absorptive dressing

c)

Semi Open or Moisture DRessing

d)

Semi Occlusive or Moisture Providing Dressings

67.

Need for absorbance decreases as heading process moves to the proliferative phase.

a)

None of the above

b)

Semi Open or Moisture Maintaining Dressing

c)

Open or Absorptive Dressing

d)

Semi Occlusive

68.

Dry wounds covered with dead tissue and providing moisture softens and removes dead tissues, debridement allows epithelial proliferation are considered_________________________

a)

Semi Occlusive or Moisture Dressing

b)

Semi Open or Moisture Maintaining Dressing

c)

Open or Absorptive Dressing

d)

None of the above

69.

Which of the following are considered Semi Occlusive or Moisture Providing Dressings?

a)

Hydrocortisone

b)

Hydrocolloids-gel foam on adhesive film

c)

Diphenydramine

d)

Hydrogels - water trapped in polymer, must be changed frequently

70.

It is a fine mesh gauze impregnated with petroleum or parafin wax.

a)

Xerox

b)

Xenobiotic

c)

Xeroform

d)

Xendell

71.

If a patient meets exclusions for self treatment it should be referred to the

a)

insurance company

b)

PCP

c)

department of health

d)

no one, the patient would not die from it

72.

If a patient has comorbid conditions is should be referred to the

a)

lawyer

b)

PCP

c)

health department

d)

insurance company

73.

In which of the following cases the patient should be referred to the PCP?

a)

no sign of healing after 7 days of self treatment

b)

if patient meets exclusions for self treatment

c)

if patient is healthy

d)

if patient has comorbid conditions

e)

if signs of infection are present

74.

When should we cleanse wound with saline irrigation, apply antibiotic and cover with appropriate dressing?

a)

if wound has yellow pus

b)

if wound has signs of infection

c)

if wound is free from signs of infection

d)

if wound has healed

75.

Which of the following are basic supportive measures for the treatment of acute wounds?

a)

OTC antiseptics and antibacterial agents can be useful

b)

Topical anesthetic ort systemic analgesic for pain control

c)

Wound dressing to prevent infection

d)

Irrigation with normal saline or sterile water

e)

cover the wound with dressing when they are infected

76.

Which of the following are Stage I-II uncontaminated wounds?

a)

minor lacerations

b)

sunburns

c)

abrasions

d)

burns

77.

In the treatment of Puncture Wounds it IS NOT important for the PCP to inspect foreign bodies and update tetanus if necessary

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Which of the following are true about the treatment of Puncture Wounds?

a)

Hydrocolloids for light exudating is prohibited for the treatment of Puncture Wounds

b)

Hydrocolloids for light exudating

c)

Hydrogels may be useful for punctures extending deeper into dermis or hypodermis

d)

Hydrogel should not be used for punctures extending deeper into dermis or hypodermis

79.

We can say that the wound healing include the inflammatory, proliferative and maturation phases.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

We can say that Stage I and II are often appropriate for self care

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The general treatment can be considered to clean the wound, proper choice of dressing, and possible topical antibiotic and/or oral analgesic

a)

True

b)

False

82.

The Stage III and IV wounds, chronic wounds, bites and signs of infections are NOT necessary to be referred to the PCP.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Immune response to clean wound, prevent infection and start healing process.

a)

maturation pahse

b)

Inflammation

c)

is part of the inflammatory phase

d)

proliferative phase

84.

In which of the following the wound healing process continues and the wound closes.

a)

inflammation pahse

b)

inflammation

c)

proliferative phase

d)

Maturation phase

85.

Which of the following are true about the maturation phase?

a)

clotting of blood

b)

occurs after wound closure

c)

wound healing process continues, wound closes

d)

process of replacing early collagen with stronger, cross linked collagen to improve strength of healed skin

86.

Which of the following are factors that can impair wound healing?

a)

Infection

b)

Obesity

c)

Elderly

d)

Poor nutrition

e)

getting all my vitamins

87.

Which of the following are factors that can impair wound healing?

a)

poor tissue perfusion and oxygenation

b)

elderly

c)

Diabetes

d)

medications

88.

Which of the following drugs may interfere with hemostasis?

a)

Rivaroxaban

b)

Warfarin

c)

Apixaban

d)

Eliquis

e)

Xarelto

89.

Which of the following suppressed inflammatory response-risk of infection, slowed healing due to limited release of cytokines stimulating repair/growth

a)

Cyclosporines

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Eliquis

90.

Which of the following inhibits the cellular division-delayed healing?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

Antineoplastic

c)

Cyclosporines

d)

Cytokines

91.

Which of the following are considered wound characteristics?

a)

dead space

b)

presence of infection

c)

lack of moisture

d)

foreign bodies in the wound

e)

necrotic tissue or eschar formation

92.

Which of the following is considered to be true about Unstageable ?

a)

partial thickness wound (stage III and IV) , but unable to discern depth of wound due to eschar or necrotic tissue covering wound bed.

b)

Full thickness wound (stage III and IV) , but unable to discern depth of wound due to eschar or necrotic tissue covering wound bed.

c)

Partial thickness wound (stage I and II) , but unable to discern depth of wound due to eschar or necrotic tissue covering wound bed.

d)

Partial thickness wound (stage III and V) , but unable to discern depth of wound due to eschar or necrotic tissue covering wound bed.

93.

Which of the following are true about Abrasions?

a)

scrape

b)

may extend to the hypodermis

c)

rubbing/friction injury

d)

involves only epidermis and outermost layer of dermis

94.

Which of the following are true about Puncture wounds?

a)

scrape

b)

piercing wound from sharp object (nail, glass shard, knife)

c)

rubbing/friction injury

d)

May extend into dermis, hypodermis or deeper tissues

95.

Which of the following are true about Lacerations?

a)

scrape

b)

cut

c)

slicing injury

d)

may extend into dermis hypodermis, or deeper tissues depending on severity

96.

Which of the following occurs primarily in bony prominences in patients that are bed or wheelchair bound?

a)

psoriasis

b)

pressure ulcer

c)

sun burn

d)

decubitus ulcer

97.

What are the most common places for ulcers ?

a)

face

b)

heels

c)

sacrum

d)

elbows

98.

A mild erythema to severe crater formation extended to muscle/bone is considered in

a)

Only Stage I

b)

Stage I-IV

c)

Only Stage IV

d)

Stage V

99.

What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer?

a)

elderly

b)

obesity

c)

malnutrition

d)

immobility

e)

incontinence (maceration of tissue)

100.

Which of the following are the factors affecting development/progression of pressure ulcers?

a)

pressure (especially over bony prominences)

b)

shearing forces (sliding/rubbing of skin layers on each other)

c)

friction (sliding/rubbing of skin on external object)

d)

moisture (incontinence/perspiration)

e)

not putting pressure or friction

101.

Which of the following are the goals of wound/burn treatment?

a)

prevent infection

b)

avoid going to the PCP

c)

promote healing

d)

minimize pain, scarring, loss of function, deformity

102.

What are some list of exclusions for self treatment of wounds/burns?

a)

wounds involving face, hands, genitalia, mucous membrane

b)

chronic wounds

c)

deep acute wounds

d)

bite wounds

e)

wounds containing foreign bodies after irrigation

103.

What are some list of exclusions for self treatment of wounds/burns?

a)

bite wounds

b)

deep acute wounds

c)

wounds with signs of infection

d)

immunocompromised patient due to medications or disease states

104.

What is considered to be the first step involved in treating a wound?

a)

none of the above

b)

irrigation/debridement in simple wounds preferred with normal salt or alcohol

c)

irrigation/debridement in acute wounds preferred with normal saline or sterilized water can be used

d)

irrigation/debridement in acute wounds preferred with alcohol or oxygenated water

105.

Which of the following are true about the first step involved in treating wound specifically a chronic wound?

a)

irrigation/debridement

b)

does not require surgical

c)

may require surgical, enzymatic, or biologic interventions to clear necrotic tissue from the wound to allow proper healing

d)

none of the above

106.

Which of the following are true about the second step involved in treating a wound?

a)

may also use systemic analgesics (APAP, NSAIDs)

b)

minor acute wounds maybe treated with products lidocaine ( or other anesthetics) and benzalkonium (Bactine)- remember to avoid on large or deep wounds to minimize the absorption.

c)

determine need for analgesic/antiseptic therapy

d)

most wounds will not require antiseptic or antibacterial to treat?

107.

If the chronic wound is more painful and uncontrolled pain and the patient hast tried APAP and NSAID and is not working, what other drug classification can the patient take?

a)

voltaren

b)

opiates

c)

analgesics

d)

non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

108.

The patient does not require systemic antimicrobial therapy if wound is infected

a)

True

b)

False

109.

What other type of supplementation will help to aid wound healing?

a)

alcohol

b)

protectant and vitamin/mineral

c)

oxygenated water

d)

OTC corticosteroids

110.

Which of the following is true about the Absorptive wound dressing?

a)

wound should be cleansed

b)

gauze, adhesive bandages, island dressings, carbon impregnated. foam dressings, alginates

c)

absorb excess exudate from wound to prevent maceration of surrounding tissues.

d)

may require antibiotic

111.

Which of the following is a transparent adhesive film or liquid bandage?

a)

Cortaid bandages

b)

Xeroform

c)

bandages

d)

Xarelto

112.

Which of the following are true about moisture maintaining in the wound dressings?

a)

foam dressings

b)

Xeroform

c)

gauze

d)

no significant absorption or release of moisture -maintains current wound moisture

113.

Which of the followings is a moisture providing in the wound dressings ?

a)

provide moisture to wounds that tend to dry out or require additional moisture to heal (puncture, partial or full thickness burns)

b)

hydroactive

c)

hydrocolloids

d)

hydrogels

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