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Worksheets

Morani OP LECOM P1

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three hormones that control serum calcium and phosphorus (P)

a)

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (VD)

b)

fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23)

c)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d)

Testosterone

e)

cAMP

2.

What are the players in BMH (bone mineral homeostasis)

a)

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

b)

osteoclasts, osteoblasts, and osteocytes

c)

osteoclast and osteocytes

d)

osteocytes only

3.

What does the osteoclasts do?

a)

they synthesize new bone via the process known as bone mineralization

b)

they break down bone via the process known as bone resorption

c)

they are osteoblasts which encase beneath the bone lining. They form a base upon which mineralization occur

4.

Bone reabsorption <<bone mineralization = bone loss (osteoporosis)

a)

True

b)

False

5.

What is osteoblast?

a)

They synthesize new bone via the process known as bone mineralization

b)

They break down bone via the process known as bone resorption

c)

They are osteoblasts which encase beneath the bone lining. They form a base upon which mineralization occur

d)

They are osteoclasts which encase beneath the bone lining. They form a base upon which mineralization occur

6.

Put the procedure for bone remodeling in order:

1. Osteoblast production

2. Osteocytes encase within mineralizing bone

3. Osteoclasts absorbing bone matrix

4. Osteoblast differentiation from myonuclear cells

5. Bone maturation followed by appearance of bone lining cells

6.Osteoblast differentiate into osteocytes

a)

3,6,1,4,2,5

b)

3,4,1,6,5,2

c)

3,4,1,6,2,5

d)

3,6,1,4,2,5

7.

what is the role of calcium in various physiological function of the body?

a)

fusion and release of storage vesicles

b)

skeletal tissue remodeling

c)

formation of bone matrix

d)

muscle contraction

e)

blood coagulation

8.

What is the process of mobilizing out of the bone?

a)

mineralization

b)

osteoblasts

c)

PTH

d)

resorption

9.

Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of calcidiol to calcitriol?

a)

25-hydroxylase

b)

PTH

c)

1-alpha hydroxylase

d)

FGF-23

10.

FGF-23 binds to FGF-1 and FGF-3c receptors in presence of the accessory _____ receptors​

a)

25-hydroxylase​

b)

Klotho

c)

1-alpha hydroxylase

d)

PHT

11.

T/F Odanacatib is a cathapsin K inhibitor

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What is the MOA of Densuomab?

a)

RNAKL antagonist

b)

cathapsin K inhibitor​

c)

mimics the biochemical effects of osteoprotegerin. ​

d)

directly inhibit bone resorption without killing osteoclasts

13.

What is the MOA of Odanacatib​

a)

permits complex coupling between bone resorption and formation to continue

b)

cathapsin K inhibitor

c)

RANKL antagonist

d)

directly inhibiit bone resoprtion without killing osteoclasts

14.

What is the SAR of Calcitonin-Salmon?

a)

32 aa peptide secreted by the C cell of the thyroid gland

b)

a recombinant human PTH 1-34

c)

full-length PTH 1-84

15.

T/F Raloxifene acts as an estrogen agonist on receptors in osteoblasts and osteoclasts but as an antagonist at breast and uterine estrogen receptors

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What is true about Tamoxifen

a)

linked with increased rates of uterine cancer, hot flashes, and thromboembolism

b)

undergoes phase 1 metabolism in liver

c)

does not increase risk of endometrial or breast cancer

d)

undergo phase 2 metabolism

17.

What are SERM's?

a)

selective estradiol receptor modulators

b)

selective endothelin receptor modulators

c)

selective estrogen receptor modulators

d)

selective enkephalin receptor modulators

18.

T/F SERMS are compounds with estrogen beneficial effects having worse adverse effects profile compared to HRT

a)

True.

b)

False. SERMs are compounds with estrogen beneficial effects having better worse adverse effects profile compared to HRT

19.

What is the effect of increased calcitonin signaling on calcium levels in circulating fluids?

a)

Decreased bone resorption

b)

Increased excretion of Ca2+ via kidneys and GIT

c)

promote osteoblast and osteocyte apoptosis

d)

inhibit osteoblast maturation and activity

20.

RANKL is expressed on the:

a)

osteoblast precursor

b)

osteoclast precursor

21.

RANK is expressed on the :

a)

osteoblast precursor

b)

osteoclast precursor

22.

PTH has___amino acid residues

a)

250

b)

84

c)

10

d)

32

23.

Which of the following vitamin D is obtained from plant source?

a)

calcium

b)

cholecalciferol

c)

folic acid

d)

erocalciferol

24.

Which of the following decreases bone resorption?

a)

estrogen

b)

thyroid hormone

c)

continuous administration of PTH

d)

Glucocorticoids

25.

T/F Long term use of Tamoxifene is associated with uterine cancer

a)

True

b)

False. Raloxifene

26.

What are the important clinical instructions for the administration of bisphosphonates

a)

administer first thing ion morning before consuming any food or water

b)

administer bisphosphonate with orange juice or milk

c)

administer bisphosphonate with at least 8 once of water

d)

Remain in upright position for at least 30-60 min following drug administration

27.

T/F R1 hydroxyl group is not essential for the clawing of the bisphosphonates to the bone resorption site

a)

True

b)

False. R1 hydroxyl group is essential for the clawing of the bisphosphonates to the bone resorption site

28.

What is BMH?

a)

process and regulation of skin remodeling

b)

process and regulation of bone remodeling

c)

process of osteoporosis

29.

Factors that effect calcium homeostasis

a)

hormones

b)

diet and demographics

c)

age

d)

weight

e)

disease states

30.

Most calcium ingested is absorbed by ___

a)

kidney

b)

GIT

c)

blood

31.

What is false about VD (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D) (pick 2)

a)

increase the input of calcium and phosphorus from bone into the serum

b)

increase calcium and phosphate absorption from the gut

c)

less critical regulator of calcium homeostasis

d)

in the kidney, decreases the excretion of both calcium and phosphorous

e)

in the kidney, reduces calcium but increases phosphorous excretion

32.

what are secondary regulators of BMH?

a)

Calcitonin,​ Glucocorticoids,​ Thyroid hormone,​ Gonadal steroid

b)

PTH, VD, FGF23

c)

Calcitonin and thyroid hormone only

d)

gluccorticoids, and gonadal steroids only

33.

Intermittent PTH causes

a)

bone resorption </= bone formation

b)

bone resorption >>>>bone formation

34.

T/F Continuous elevated PTH causes bone resorption >>>> bone formation

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Klotho needs to be present but FGF receptor do not need to be present for signaling

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Where is Calcitonin secreted from?

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

bone

37.

What is false about corticosteroids?

a)

induces bone resorption

b)

inhibit born formation

c)

increases interstitial absorption of calcium

d)

decreases renal tubular absorption of calcium

38.

T/F Prolonged use of glucorcorticoids lead to osteoporosis

a)

True

b)

False

39.

T/F Excess thyroid hormone also increase bone turnover

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which type of osteoporosis decreases osteoblast activity and bone formation and decrease GI calcium absorption

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

41.

What type of osteoporosis is known as secondary osteoporosis and could be drug induced or because other disease states

a)

type 1

b)

type 2

c)

type 3

42.

What are risk factors of osteoporosis?

a)

serotonin deficiency

b)

estrogen deficiency

c)

insufficient calcium intake

d)

vitamin D deficiency

e)

physical activity, smoking, and sedentary life style

43.

Which medications are associated with osteoporosis?

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Thyroid hormones

c)

depressants

d)

immunosuppressants

e)

aromatase inhibitors

44.

Which disease state is not associated with osteoporosis?

a)

Hypogonadal states

b)

GI disorders

c)

Hypogonadal states

d)

endocrine disorders

45.

what is the mechanism of antipsychotic drugs that leads to OP?

a)

hypogonadism (anti-androgenic effects of pituitary gland suppressing testosterone)

b)

increased osteoclast activation and RANKL

c)

PPARy activation (suppreses osteoblast differentiation and functions)

d)

hypogonadism (by stimulating prolactin secretion which decrease estrogen and testosterone secretion)

e)

increased renal calcium secretion

46.

What is the mechanism of thiazolidinedione drugs that leads to OP

a)

hypogonadism (anti-androgenic effects on pituitary gland suppressing testosterone)

b)

Increased osteoclast activation and RANKL

c)

PPARy activation (suppresses osteoblast differentiation and functions)

d)

increases renal calcium secretion

e)

hyperparathyroidism

47.

What is the mechanism of loop diuretics that leads to OP?

a)

increased Osteoclast activation and RANKL

b)

Hypogonadism (by stimulating prolactin secretion which decreases estrogen and testosterone secretion)

c)

PPARy activation (suppresses osteoblast differentiation and function)

d)

increases renal calcium secretion

48.

What is the MOA for hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

a)

increases transcription of genes which codes for RANKL

b)

suppresses of gene transcription for IL-6

c)

promotes osteoclast apoptosis

d)

promotes osteoblast and osteocytes apoptosis

e)

suppresses transcription of genes which codes for RANKL

49.

ART class of compounds acts via following principle mechanism

a)

preventing bone degradation via arresting resorption

b)

modulates cellular mechanism which interferes in osteoclasts apoptosis

c)

prevents osteoclasts maturation

d)

all of the above

50.

Which therapy has an increased risk of breast cancer

a)

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator

b)

HRT

c)

Bisphosphonates

51.

What are 2 important binding sites between estrogen and estrogen receptor

a)

OH at 3 binding to Arg394 (helix 3) and glutamate 353 (helix 6)

b)

OH at 3 binding to Arg394 (helix6) and glutamate 353 (helix 3)

c)

OH at 17 binds to histidine 524 (helix 11)

d)

OH at 17 binds to histidine 524 (helix 3)

52.

T/F A phenol ring on the estrogen interactions with activation facor-2 (Af-2) and the interaction changes the protein conformation allowing the interaction with estrogen response element (ERE)

a)

True

b)

False

53.

T/F Depending on the tissue, a SERM is capable of acting as an estrogen agonist or an estrogen antagonist

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Raloxifene hydrocholoride is based on which structure

a)

anastrozole

b)

exemestane

c)

tamoxifen citrate

d)

letrozole

55.

T/F Tamoxifen is linked with increased rates of breast cancer, hot flashes, and thrombocytopenia likely due to the ethyl group of the tamoxifen stilbene core that is subject to allylic oxidative activation causing DNA alkylation and strand scission.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which are third generation Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators?

a)

Ospemifene

b)

Bezedoxifene

c)

Toremifene

d)

17bet-ethinyl estradio

57.

T/F Raloxifene and bazedoxifene exhibit poor bioavailability

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Raloxifene and ____decreases the risk of vertebral fracture

a)

Raloxifene only

b)

calcium supplementation

c)

vitamin D

59.

Why is it essential to chose a drug such as SERM over estrogen in treating a post-menopausal patient with OP?? ​

a)

SERMS produce beneficial effects on bone with reduced adverse effects compared to estrogen/HRT​

b)

SERMs are all antagonist agents

c)

SERMs have better taste than estrogen/HRT

d)

SERMs can be taken if you are breastfeeding and pregnant compared to estrogen/HRT

60.

T/F Bisphosphonates have a long half life.

a)

True

b)

False.

61.

once bisphosphonates are incorporated into bone they have a half life of ____

a)

1 to 2 hrs

b)

1 to 10 hrs

c)

1 to 5 years

d)

1 to 10 years

e)

10 to 15 years

62.

RANKL antagonists were designed to mimic what?

a)

osteoclast

b)

osteoprotgerin

c)

osteoblast

63.

Which is a RANKL antagonist?

a)

Denosumab

b)

Raloxifene

c)

Tamoxifen

64.

Cys-1 and Cys-7 are critical for the activity of calcitonin-Salmon and human calcitonin

a)

True

b)

False

65.

T/F Odanacatib is a first line treatment for osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Bone anabolic agents

a)

increase bone mass and strength

b)

decreases BMD

c)

increase BMD

d)

protects from osteoporotic fragility fractures