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Ecology and Evolution Practice Review

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 13hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
2.
Over time, adaptions can lead populations to experience 
a)
environmental changes
b)
genetic changes
c)
geological changes
d)
extinction
3.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a)

the wings of a red-tailed hawk

b)

the hind limbs of a house cat

c)

the fins of sharks

d)

the wings of an ostrich

4.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
5.
What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
natural selection
b)
inheritance
c)
artificial selection
d)
descent withOUT modification
6.

Structures that have the same function but different structures are...

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryology

7.

Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar underlying structures. These are known as

a)

vestigial structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

homologous structures

d)

fossil structures

8.
The evidence suggests that the first organism was:
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
An animal
d)
A plant
9.
 A lion gets chased off from his pride, then joins another pride. He mates with a lioness and make 6 lion cubs.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Gene Flow
10.
 A hurricane wipes out half the population of blue jays in Cape Hatteras, North Carolina.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Gene Flow
11.
What does the image represent?
a)
Gene flow
b)
Gene drift
c)
Mutation
d)
Adaptation
12.

Which mouse is more likely going to survive in the desert?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
14.
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce:
a)
Fewer mutations
b)
Stronger genes
c)
More offspring
d)
Better traits
15.
Cells without a nucleus are said to be _____________________.
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
16.
According to the data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to...
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
17.
What is a species?
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
c)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
18.

Which finch shown below would most likely have an advantage for survival in an environment where seeds are the main source of food?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

Over several generations, almost all of the insect population was pesticide resistant. Which explanation would support this phenomenon?

a)

the insecticide changed the genetic make up of the insects.

b)

a mutation made some of the bugs resistant and fitness switched to those bugs who were able to reproduce.

c)

the insecticide caused the insects to become cannibals and they ate their babies.

d)

the insecticide caused the insects to become sterile.

20.

According to the differences in the chart, which of these pairs of animals are more closely related?

a)

Human and Chimp

b)

Human and Lemur

c)

Baboon and Lemur

d)

Lemur and Chimp

21.

In the European roe deer (Capreolus capreolus), implantation of embryos after breeding is delayed. The deer breed in July or August but do not give birth until the following May or June. From summer to late December, the embryo rests in a state of dormancy as a 30-cell blastocyst. In late December or early January, the embryo sends a signal that causes the female to release hormones, allowing the embryo to continue to develop normally. Why is delayed implantation an advantageous adaptation for the European roe deer?

a)

Delayed implantation allows the mother to continue to breed with other males.

b)

Without delayed implantation, the females would not be able to carry a pregnancy to full term.

c)

Delayed implantation enables the female to give birth to more fawns each year.

d)

Without delayed implantation, the fawns would be born in the winter when food is scarce and the weather is harsh.

22.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

23.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown below, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

24.

Adult mountain lions (Puma concolor) are almost 2 meters long. They have a black spot over each eye. The common names used throughout the United States for this species are listed below. Why is it best for scientists to use the name from the standardized taxonomic system?

a)

The standardized name differentiates mountain lions and pumas.

b)

The standardized name is less descriptive of the animal that has been observed.

c)

Communication with other scientists about mountain lions will be reduced.

d)

All scientists will be using one name for mountain lions.

25.

A cladogram is shown below. All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of —

a)

fur

b)

claws or nails

c)

lungs

d)

jaws

26.

This diagram of the fossil record represents changes in mollusks over millions of years. How can the pattern of change in the fossil record best be explained?

a)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. A large, sudden change occurred in their environment. After the change the mollusks with the bigger shells were better adapted for the new environment.

b)

The mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. The mollusks hybridized with a smaller species of mollusk. A new species of mollusk with a bigger shell resulted.

c)

The mollusks were not well adapted to their environment. The length of the mollusks’ shells changed gradually over time. The mollusks in the original population that had small shells died over a period of many years.

d)

The mollusks were well adapted to their environment. Humans introduced a new species of mollusk that was not adapted to this environment. The introduced mollusk outcompeted the native mollusk species.

27.

Three species of lizards of the genus Gallotia are found on the Canary Islands, a chain of seven volcanic islands off the west coast of Africa. The easternmost island, Lanzarote, is the oldest, while the westernmost island, El Hierro, is the youngest. The distribution of lizard species is shown on the map below. Which statement about the ancestry of the lizards from the genus Gallotia is best supported by this information?

a)

The common ancestor of the lizards first colonized the island of El Hierro.

b)

The ancestors of each species came from different continents at different times.

c)

The common ancestor of the lizards probably came from Africa.

d)

The ancestors of each species evolved in Spain and were brought to the islands at the same time.

28.

The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. A species must be capable of surviving and reproducing despite changes to food sources, climate, or threats from predators. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?

a)

Mutations are a source of variation in the species.

b)

Mutations are the cause of disease in the species.

c)

Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells of the species.

d)

Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations of the species.

29.

The green frog (Lithobates clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog. Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5,000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

30.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. The family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family’s geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

31.

A prey population consists of individuals with a variety of running speeds. The adaptation that allows some of these animals to run fast would be an example of natural selection if it helps them —

a)

survive and undergo mutations in their DNA

b)

lower the mortality rates of the population

c)

produce offspring that run at average speeds

d)

reproduce and increase the frequency of their genes in the population

32.

The quiver tree grows in desert areas in southern Africa. In recent decades average temperatures have been rising in southern Africa. Scientists predict that this warming trend will continue. Quiver trees in the hottest parts of their range near the equator are dying, but quiver trees at high elevations or in parts of the range that are farther from the equator are growing and reproducing. Which of these best explains what is happening to the quiver tree population in southern Africa?

a)

Individual quiver trees are unable to adjust to the rising temperatures, and only those in cooler parts of the range will survive.

b)

The quiver tree species is unable to survive rising temperatures throughout its range. The species is likely to undergo rapid extinction.

c)

Individual quiver trees can quickly adapt to rising temperatures. Individual trees will change their method of seed dispersal in cooler parts of the range.

d)

The quiver tree species will survive by producing offspring suited for warmer temperatures.

33.

Five general characteristics of organisms in kingdoms Plantae or Fungi are listed in the box. Which table correctly lists the characteristics of the organisms in the two kingdoms?

a)
b)
c)
d)
34.

This dichotomous key can be used to identify some conifers. Based on the key, which of these best describes the leaves and cones of the longleaf pine?

a)

Needle-like straight leaves that are mostly over 25 cm long and found in clusters of three; no thorns on cones

b)

Flattened and scale-like leaves that are mostly over 25 cm long; soft and leathery cones

c)

Needle-like straight leaves with a length of 25 cm that are mostly found in clusters of five; thorny cones

d)

Leaves with a length of 25 cm that are found in clusters of more than five; no thorns on cones

35.

In 2010, scientists excavated a skull fossil that provides evidence of a newly discovered species of big cat. Based on the evidence, scientists hypothesize that big cats branched off from smaller wild cats about 6 million years ago. Which of these resources did the scientists most likely rely on to form their hypothesis?

a)

A food web showing feeding relationships of organisms where the fossil skull was found

b)

Population and migration data for small wild cats living in the ecosystem where the skull was found

c)

The fossil record and DNA comparisons of big cats and small cats

d)

The historical record of interactions between different species of big cats

36.

Scientists around the world use a standardized taxonomic system. Why would scientists want to use a taxonomic system that is standardized?

a)

In order to avoid confusion with the identification of organisms

b)

Because Linnaeus established the system

c)

So that Latin names can be applied for a practical purpose

d)

In order to place organisms in different groups

37.

Nudibranchs are marine gastropods that lack shells. Many of these gastropods retain the foul-tasting poisons of their prey and secrete them when threatened. The bright coloration of the nudibranchs warns predators to avoid them. Based on this information, how has adaptation allowed marine gastropods to be successful without a shell?

a)

They find enough food as they move through the marine environment.

b)

They blend in with their environment to hide from their predators.

c)

They are not attacked by most predators and are able to reproduce successfully.

d)

They have bright colors that attract a mate.

38.
Genetic engineering has both positive and negative outcomes. One of the most common areas where genetic engineering is used is in agriculture. If farmers plant more genetically modified crops, which of the following negative outcomes could occur?
a)
An increase in the use of pesticides
b)
A decrease in genetic diversity of the crops
c)
An increase in the contamination of the water supply
d)
A decrease in crop productivity
39.
Rice, the most popular food crop in the world, can be successfully grown only in certain places. If trends in climate change continue, the areas in which rice currently grows will be significantly reduced. Which of the following is the best way that biotechnology can keep the harvest of rice from decreasing?
a)
Identifying new areas with soil fertile enough for rice production.
b)
Developing clean energy sources to reduce carbon dioxide production worldwide.
c)
Seeing clouds with dry ice to produce more rainfall where it is needed.
d)
Genetically engineering rice crops that are tolerant to change in the environment.
40.
Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape were able to forage for food. The population of those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur?
a)
fewer mutations
b)
limited resources
c)
limited beak variations
d)
underproduction of offspring
41.
Which of these would have the least effect on natural selection in a subspecies of giraffes that is geographically isolated from other subspecies of giraffes?
a)
available niches
b)
existing predators
c)
chromosome number
d)
available food resources
42.
Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?
a)
An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.
b)
A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.
c)
A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.
d)
The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.
43.
A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period. How will genetic drift probably affect this population?
a)
It will accelerate the appearance of new traits.
b)
It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits.
c)
It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits.
d)
It will reduce genetic diversity.
44.
Theodosius Dobzhansky discovered that successful species tend to have a wide variety of genes that do not appear to be useful to the species in its present environment. What did this discovery help explain about genetics and the changes that occur in a species over time?
a)
Environments with more organisms tend to have more successful species.
b)
Species with greater genetic diversity adapt more easily to changing environments.
c)
Changing environments prevent species from adapting and surviving.
d)
Species in a stable environment are more resistant to a changing environment.
45.

The diagrams show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?

a)

It provides information about the organisms' habitats.

b)

It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.

c)

It provides information to determine the organisms' ages.

d)

It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.

46.

According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?

a)

commensalism

b)

inbreeding

c)

migration

d)

evolution by natural selection

47.

Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown. Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?

a)

Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.

b)

Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.

c)

Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.

d)

Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.

48.

Mutations within a DNA sequence are:

a)

natural processes that produce genetic diversity.

b)

natural processes that always affect the phenotype.

c)

unnatural processes that always affect the phenotype.

d)

unnatural processes that are harmful to

genetic diversity.

49.

Certain insects resemble the bark of the trees on which they live. Which statement details a possible biological explanation for this resemblance?

a)

The insects needed camouflage, so they developed protective coloration.

b)

Natural selection played a role in the development of the of this protective coloration.

c)

The lack of mutations resulted in the protective coloration

d)

The trees caused mutations in the insects that resulted in protective coloration

50.

The data shows four amino acids found across 3 species. Which phylogenetic tree best represents the information in the chart?

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can best be inferred from this example?

a)

A species will adapt no matter what the environment.

b)

The environment has no effect on the survival of an organism.

c)

Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation.

d)

Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce.

52.

Scientists believe that the polar bear in Alaska and the brown bear in Russia evolved from a common ancestor. Which would be responsible for this evolutionary change?

a)

artificial selection

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

sexual competition

d)

geographic isolation

53.

An antibiotic which was effective 20 years ago against a specific type of bacterial infection no longer works against the same kind of infection today. Which best explains why the antibiotic is no longer as effective as it was 20 years ago?

a)

bacteria resistant to the antibiotic have killed off nonresistant bacteria

b)

viruses have changed the structure of the bacteria that causes the infection

c)

resistant bacteria have survived and reproduced at a greater rate than nonresistant bacteria

d)

the human body has developed an immunity to the antibiotics

54.

An insecticide kills most of the ants on a plant. Over time, it is determined that the insecticide is not as effective for killing ants. Which statement best explains this observation?

a)

the ants killed initially by the insecticide were genetically the same as the surviving ants

b)

the ants killed initially by the insecticide had thinner cell membranes than the surviving ants

c)

the ants that survived were younger than those that died as a result of the insecticide

d)

the ants killed by the insecticide and the surviving ants were genetically different

55.

Some scientists claim recent evidence suggests birds should be reclassified to share more taxonomic groups with dinosaurs. What type of evidence would provide the best support for this claim?

a)

evidence showing birds shared similar habitats with dinosaurs

b)

evidence showing birds shared similar nutritional requirements as dinosaurs

c)

evidence showing birds shared similar behaviors with dinosaurs

d)

evidence showing birds shared a common genetic history with dinosaurs

56.

According to the fossil record found in these sedimentary layers, what conclusion can be drawn about animal life in general?

a)

Animals did not move on to land until flowering plants evolved.

b)

Vertebrates appeared in the oceans before they moved on to land.

c)

Vertebrates evolved on land and in the oceans at about the same time.

d)

Shelled animals and fish appeared in the oceans at about the same time.

57.

Which statement BEST describes how mutations are related to evolution?

a)

There is not a strong relationship between mutations and evolution.

b)

Natural selection causes evolution, which causes more mutations to appear in the DNA of the species.

c)

Mutations are changes in DNA that produce weaker organisms that die, so these are eliminated by evolution.

d)

Mutations lead to new genes, which may have an advantage over the old forms, causing the species to evolve.

58.

All life on Earth started as unicelluar, prokaryotic organisms. Which of these structures was vital for organisms to develop in order to evolve into more complex, multicellular organisms?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cell membrane

59.

Cichlids are bony fish that are commonly found in the freshwater lakes of Africa, like Lake Victoria. There are more than 2000 recognized species of cichlids in these freshwater lakes. What scenario would most likely result in the sympatric speciation of cichlids in Lake Victoria?

a)

A non-disjunction event results in a male fish with double the number of chromosomes.

b)

A new mutation results in a cichlid fish that can evade predators by using camouflage.

c)

Two pools form as regions of the lake dry up, leaving isolated populations of cichlids.

d)

Females exhibit sexual selection for males of a particular color.

60.

All organisms have DNA, which differs only in the number and order of each type of nucleotide. This suggests that all organisms have...

a)

a common ancestor.

b)

a common reproductive cycle.

c)

the same types of proteins.

d)

the same amount of DNA.

61.

Notice the population of beetles. The allele for color is seen on their backs: green and brown alleles. Predators are more likely to spot the brown beetles. Over time, the gene pool contains only green alleles. This is an example of...

a)

gene flow.

b)

adaptation.

c)

genetic drift.

d)

natural selection.

62.

Fifty years ago, bed bugs were nearly eliminated in the United States by using of pesticides like DDT. Today bed bugs are back in beds and theaters. DDT is no longer used due to environmental issues. Pyrethrums are currently the top choice for bed bug infestations. Pyrethrums are especially useful to us because they generally have a stronger effect on bugs than on humans and animals.


Bed bugs have become resistant to even this chemical pesticide. What happened that allowed the bug population to increase?

a)

the chemicals used currently are weaker

b)

the chemicals no longer can penetrate bed bugs brains

c)

the bed bugs of today are exactly the same as the bed bugs of fifty years ago

d)

the bed bugs that survived the DDT years ago, reproduced new generations of chemical resistant offspring

63.

Which of the following is the BEST example of an physiological adaptation for animals?

a)

Polar bears have dark skin color to absorb more heat from the sun for warmth.

b)

Llamas that live at high altitudes (where there is less oxygen) have certain hemoglobin within their bodies that allows them to move oxygen more quickly and efficiently.

c)

The back end of the hawk moth caterpillar has the appearance of a snake head.

d)

Golden moles live underground in hot climates because they provide a cooler habitat.

64.

Which of the following is an example of homologous features?

a)

The wing of an insect and the wing of a bird.

b)

The bone structure in the appendages of the whale and human.

c)

The fins of a whale and the fins of a shark.

d)

White color in the arctic fox and white color in a snow dove.

65.

Anatomical or behavioral features of an organism that appear to have lost their function in modern species but are evidence of past use in ancestral species are called...

a)

homologous structures.

b)

analogous structures.

c)

vestigial structures.

66.
Simple, prokaryotic organisms have been on Earth for over 3 billion years and have been able to grow and evolve into many different and successful prokaryotic organisms. Which structure evolved in cells approximately one billion years ago that allowed for the forming of more complex, multicellular organisms?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Plasma Membrane
d)
Golgi apparatus
67.
According to Darwin's theory of evolution, which organisms are BEST able to survive in nature?
a)
organisms that possess overall characteristics best suited to their environment
b)
those with the best camouflage and coloration
c)
organisms that possess the greatest number of mutations
d)
those that possess characteristics acquired during their lifetime
68.
Matthew has discovered a new species of fish. During the summer months, the male fish separate themselves from the female fish and swim to cooler waters. During one summer, a volcano erupts and the molten rock forms a barrier preventing the male and female fish from reuniting. Matthew has discovered a new species of fish. During the summer months, the male fish separate themselves from the female fish and swim to cooler waters. During one summer, a volcano erupts and the molten rock forms a barrier preventing the male and female fish from reuniting.
a)
The fish would become extinct as they would not be able to reproduce.
b)
The species would not be affected by the barrier.
c)
The male fish would begin to produce eggs and sperm.
d)
The fish would develop legs and walk across the barrier.
69.
A mountain seperates a population of mice into two distinct eastern and western populations. The eastern area is inhabited by owls, which hunt at night. No owls live in the western area. Over time, the eastern population of mice will MOST LIKELY
a)
change over time and become less active at night
b)
become more active at night
c)
remain identical with the western population
d)
grow stronger claws and teeth to better fight the owls
70.

Examine the diagrams. Columns I and II contain rock layers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both columns were taken from the same dig site at different locations. Which two layers are of approximately the same age?

a)

C & D

b)

A & D

c)

B & E

d)

B & F

71.
A wildlife biologist does a DNA gel to determine how closely related four species of trout are to one another. These are the results of the gel electrophoresis. Which two species of trout are MOST closley related?
a)
Brown and Rainbow
b)
Brown and Golden
c)
Golden and Brook
d)
Rainbow and Golden
72.
Scientists want to determine how closely related chimpanzees are to humans. Which data would give the MOST accurate comparison?
a)
their DNA sequences
b)
their niches
c)
their physical characteristics
d)
their behavioral characteristics
73.
The genetic information in human and chimpanzee DNA shows a high degree of similarity, as humans share about 96-99% of their DNA code with chimpanzees. What is an explanation for this similarity?
a)
They evolved from a common ancestor.
b)
They evolved from each other.
c)
They evolved at the same time.
d)
Their evolution is nearly complete.
74.
A population of lizards lives in an isolated area where local rocks contain a high concentration of radioactive elements. A study of this population would MOST LIKELY show
a)
a higher than average mutation rate.
b)
a lower than average mutation rate.
c)
a higher survival rate than other lizard populations.
d)
an increase in size compared to other lizard populations.
75.
Some mutations always occur from generation to generation. But most mutations do not persist over time in the gene pool. Which mutation is MOST likely to become established and persist in a species?
a)
a mutation that helps a rabbit conceal itself from predators
b)
a mutation that changes the color of a fruit fly’s eyes
c)
a mutation that makes it harder for a frog to catch food
d)
a mutation that causes a leopard attack humans more frequently
76.
The use of pesticides on crops has been a common farming practice for decades. What has been the greatest effect of natural selection through the use of pesticides on certain insect populations? 
a)
Natural selection has been altered because the insects and their predators are killed. 
b)
The rate of selection is increased because the pesticides do not kill the insects that are naturally resistant to it. 
c)
The rate of selection has decreased because the pesticides kill only young insects. 
d)
The pesticides have altered natural selection by causing the insect DNA to spontaneously mutate.
77.
A sea turtle has washed up on a remote section of a beach. This is known as a “stranding.” Stranding occurs when a dead, sick or injured sea turtle washes up on the shoreline. Which statement best explains why “stranding” should be reported immediately to local authorities? 
a)
The information can be very useful to biologists and managers who are trying to protect the species.
b)
The information can be very useful to protect sea turtles from predators. 
c)
The information can be very useful to local fishermen who try to catch fish that sea turtles eat. 
d)
The information can be very useful to tourists who may want to keep sea turtles as pets.
78.
A strand of DNA has these bases:
 AGC CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary DNA strand?
a)
ACG GAT CTA TAG
b)
TCG GTA CAT ATG
c)
TGC CTA GAT ATC
d)
UCG CUA CAU AUG
79.
The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature.  What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?
a)
genus and species
b)
class and genus
c)
class and species
d)
domain and kingdom
80.
The papaya mealybug is a pest that poses a threat to many tropical plants. Which fate of the mealybug would result from the inability of the species to reproduce?
a)
The species would mutate
b)
The species would increase
c)
The species would become extinct
d)
The species would continue to thrive
81.
Polar bears swim across large expanses of ocean while hunting for seals, their main source of food. The bears use sea ice as a resting spots during their long swims. However, the sea ice is rapidly melting as a result of global warming. Which statement describes what most likely happen if global warming continues at its present rate?
a)
Polar bear and seal populations will both increase
b)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will increase.
c)
Polar bear populations will increase, and seal populations will decrease.
d)
Polar bear populations will decrease, and seal populations will remain the same
82.
The loss of habitat in a forest region has caused some plant species to become extinct, while others survive. The process by which some plant species survive and others do not in a changing environment is best explained by 
a)
natural selection
b)
law of segregation
c)
biological magnification
d)
alternation of generations
83.
A species of snake was introduced to a tropical region. Scientists then noticed a steady decline in the presence of a field mice and an increase in the number of snakes. Which of these is the most likely explanation about why the population size of each animal changed?
a)
The snakes introduced to the region dominated the habitat, forcing the mice to find another place to live 
b)
The mice became prey to the introduced snakes, allowing the snake population to increase but decreasing the mice population 
c)
The snakes introduced to the region competed with the mice for food, allowing the snake population to increase but decreasing the mice population
d)
The people in the surrounding are set traps that killed the mice, allowing the snakes to live without any predators and therefore to increase in number
84.
One species of Galapagos finches, the cactus finch, eats insects off cactus plants, A disease kills off most of the cacti. Which of these will most likely happen to the carrying capacity of the island? 
a)
It would increase a small amount since the insect population would decrease. 
b)
It would remain about the same since the finches would change to a different diet. 
c)
It would increase exponentially since the insects would have limited places to hide. 
d)
It would decrease considerably since finches and insects are specifically adapted to their niche. 
85.
Why did the population of peppered moths in England change from light to dark after the Industrial Revolution?
a)
Light moths were easy to see against sooty trees and were eaten
b)
Light moths were killed by soot
c)
The birds that ate the dark moths were killed by soot
d)
Dark moths were produced by industrial processes
86.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
87.
What trait separates sharks from ray-finned fish?
a)
Vertebrae
b)
Bony skeleton
c)
Four limbs
d)
None
88.
The diagram provided shows a breakdown of the genomes of humans, mice, chickens, and zebra fish. The numbers in overlapping regions indicate homologous sequences, similar genes that indicate shared ancestry. The data in the diagram best supports which of the following conclusions?
a)
There are no gene sequences that are common to all these animals.
b)
The common ancestor of the mouse and the chicken lived very recently.
c)
The mouse and the zebrafish share the closest relationship of all animals shown.
d)
Humans are more closely related to zebrafish than to chickens.
89.
Below is the illustration of the bones of the forelimbs (wing or arm) of three animals. While only birds and bats have wings, the underlying skeletal structure is more similar in bats and humans.
What is the most reasonable conclusion one can draw from a comparison of these structures?
a)
Birds and bats are closely related to each other, while humans are unrelated to both.
b)
The common ancestor of birds and bats must have had wings and flown.
c)
Humans live in habitats very different from the habitats of both birds and bats.
d)
Humans and bats share a closer evolutionary history with each other than with birds.
90.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms. Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

91.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram. Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

92.

A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from 8000 to 800). In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific Ocean. Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new population?

a)

The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population

b)

The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population

c)

There is equal genetic variety compared to the original population

d)

None of the answers

93.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

94.

Which role of protists has the most positive effect on maintaining the plant population in an ecosystem?

a)

Protists are a major food source for animals

b)

Protists produce approximately 75% of the oxygen on Earth

c)

Protists decompose dead materials, returning nutrients to the soil

d)

Protists found in the gut of animals assist in digestion

95.

Saprophytes are fungi that feed on dead and decomposing organisms. They secrete enzymes that digest components of cell walls, such as cellulose and lignin.


Which statement explains why these fungi are an important part of the biogeochemical cycle?

a)

Saprophytes perform gas exchange that assists the cellular activities of autotrophs.

b)

Saprophytes extract minerals from living tissue to recycle them back into the soil.

c)

Saprophytes transport nutrients through the xylem and phloem in autotrophs.

d)

Saprophytes return organic material to the soil for use by living organisms.

96.

Health professionals sometimes recommend nutritional supplements that contain a variety of species of bacteria to promote good digestive health. The product label for one of these supplements is shown.


Why does this type of bacteria-filled supplement benefit human health instead of causing illness?

a)

Stomach acids and digestive enzymes kill the bacteria in this type of supplement, protecting the person against future infections by live organisms.

b)

The human digestive system contains billions of beneficial bacteria that enhance digestion and nutrient absorption, synthesize vitamins, and help limit the growth of harmful bacteria.

c)

These species of bacteria remove all the other species of microorganisms living in the human digestive system and ensure that no microorganisms survive to contaminate the body.

d)

These bacteria are able to deactivate viruses that may inhabit the human digestive system and are used to protect against further viral infections.

97.

Some fungi secrete substances that are toxic to bacteria that compete with them for food. Scientists have used their knowledge of this ability of fungi in order to produce which of the following substances?

a)

Yogurt

b)

Fertilizers

c)

Plastic

d)

Antibiotics

98.

During secondary succession, which of these best describes why decomposing pioneer plants give way to larger, more complex plant species, such as hardwood trees?

a)

Increased amounts of sunlight are able to reach the ground while the pioneer species are decomposing

b)

Increased soil temperatures from decomposing pioneer species help tree seeds germinate more quickly

c)

Increased amounts of decomposing pioneer species remove nutrients that tree seedlings need to grow and mature

d)

Increased amounts of soil from decomposing pioneer species allow plants with more extensive root systems to become established

99.

An estuary collects sediments from teh ocean and rivers that feed into it. The sediments swirl around and then settle to form a medflat. Eel grass is then established on the mudflat. The ecosystem changes over time and ultimately develops into a salt marsh that contains mangrove trees. Which of the following is likely NOT involved in this example of ecological succession?

a)

The rotting remains of plants add to the fertility of the soil

b)

The soul becomes so fertile that eel grass is replaced by other plant species

c)

The roots from plants help stabilize the sediment, keeping it in place

d)

The concentration of salt becomes so high that all plant life is destroyed

100.

The rocky material left behind by a retreating glacier forms what is called a moraine. When primary succession occurs on a moraine, which life-forms will help create the soil by breaking down bare rock?

a)

Insects

b)

Lichens

c)

Grasses

d)

Deciduous trees

101.

During ecological succession, how does the growth of young hardwoods affect the organisms living in an ecosystem?

a)

Grasses and low shrubs are unable to obtain the amount of light they need to survive, so there are small numbers of them

b)

The trees provide shelter and food for a variety of mammals, insects, and birds

c)

In Autumn, falling leaves provide a source of energy for decomposers such as fungi

d)

All of these answer choices are correct

102.

As ecosystems move through the stages of succession, the populations of organisms in them change. Which of the following describes the stage of succession likely to have the most species diversity?

a)

A newly formed volcanic island

b)

An agricultural field that has not been plowed for one year

c)

A temperate forest that has. never been cleared by logging

d)

A field that is regularly mowed

103.

How do an increase in the organic matter in soil and an increase in soil depth affect the population of plants in an area?

a)

Larger plants become the dominant species

b)

Mosses replace flowering plants

c)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria kill young trees.

d)

Grasses become diseased

104.

The graph shows the changes in the number of species in an ecosystem. Which event was most likely the cause of the changes in species diversity in this ecosystem?

a)

A large volcanic eruption

b)

A flash flood

c)

A small tornado

d)

A migration of locusts

105.

The ocean sunfish is a large, flat fish that spends most if its time in deep water feeding mainly on jellyfish. Sunfish often have many species of copepods, small crustaceans, that bury their heads into the soft tissue of the sunfish. Sunfish will swim to the surface of the water and lie sideways, allowing seabirds to eat the copepods from their skin. Which list describes the types of relationships the sunfish has with other marine organisms?

a)

Seabirds: mutualism

Jellyfish: predation

Copepods: parasitism

b)

Seabirds: parasitism

Jellyfish: commensalism

Copepods: predation

c)

Seabirds: predation

Jellyfish: mutualism

Copepods: commensalism

d)

Seabirds: commensalism

Jellyfish: parasitism

Copepods: mutualism

106.

Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between certain types of bacteria and humans?

a)

Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from the gut and produce vitamin K used by humans

b)

Bacteria become resistant to antibacterial medication that humans use for treatment

c)

invasive bacteria at an area of injury produce toxins that damage healthy tissues of the human body

d)

Bacteria in improperly prepared food is consumed by humans, causing food poisoning

107.

In North American forests, two species of birds, nuthatchers and brown creepers, forage on the same trees for insects. Brown creepers feed on insects found near the bottom of the tree trunk, while nuthatchers feed on insects in the top part of the tree. The difference in foraging behavior most likely affects the nuthatchers and brown creepers by -

a)

allowing the birds to avoid many types of predators

b)

reducing competition between the birds for resources

c)

preventing the birds from interbreeding with each other

d)

establishing dominance between the birds for nesting sites

108.

The table lists some organisms found in a swamp ecosystem and their sources of energy. When constructing an energy pyramid of the swamp ecosystem, which of these would be placed at the top of the pyramid?

a)

Grass carp

b)

American alligator

c)

Eastern mud turtle

d)

Great blue heron

109.

The energy pyramid below shows the energy made available by producers. Based on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1000 joules

d)

50 joules

110.

Many years ago, a volcanic eruption killed many plants and animals on an island. Today the island looks much as it did before the eruption. Which statemnt is the best possbile explanantion for this?

a)

Altered ecosystems regain stability through the evolution of new plant species

b)

Destroyed environments can recover as a result of the process of ecological succession.

c)

Geographic barriers prevent the migration of animals to island habitats

d)

Destroyed ecosystems always return to their original state

111.

What impact do the amounts of available energy, water, and oxygen have on an ecosystem?

a)

They act as limiting factors

b)

They are used as nutrients

c)

They recycle the residue of dead organisms

d)

They control environmental temperature

112.

In the diagram below, what does X most likely represent?

a)

autotrophs

b)

herbivores

c)

decomposers

d)

carnivores

113.

Which diagram best illustrates the relationship between humans (H) and ecosystems (E)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

114.

What would most likely happen if most of the bacteria and fungi were removed from an ecoystem?

a)

Nutrients resulting from decomposition would be reduced

b)

Energy provided for autotrophic nutrition would be reduced.

c)

The rate of mutation in plants would increase

d)

Soil fertility would increase

115.

Which statement best describes how bacteria recycle matter in an ecosystem?

a)

Bacteria are producers that create energy for second-order consumer.

b)

Bacteria produce toxins to prevent the growth of invasive species.

c)

Bacteria cause diseases that limit the reproduction of organisms in a population.

d)

Bacteria are decomposers that help to transfer organic material to the soil.

116.

Hydrothermal vents form deep in the ocean when iron-rich magma is released from openings on the seafloor. These vents spew extremely hot water (400 degrees Celsius) mixed with methane and sulfur. Bacteria that thrive in this hostile environment form the base of a food chain that leads to colonization by tube worms, mussels, and many other life-forms. When a hydrothermal vent becomes inactive and cold, the bacterial community that lives in the hot fluid methane and sulfur dies out. Which organisms most likely succeed the original community in this ecosystem?

a)

Cold-tolerant bacteria that feed on sulfur and iron in the vents.

b)

Giant kelp that use sulfur in photosynthesis.

c)

Fish that do not need oxygen for cellular respiration.

d)

Ocean mammals that tolerate cold and act as top predators in the food chain.

117.

During secondary succession, which of these best describes why decomposing pioneer plants give way to larger, more complex plant species, such as hardwood trees?

a)

Increased amounts of sunlight are able to reach the ground while the pioneer species are decomposing.

b)

Increased soil temperatures from decomposing pioneer species help tree seeds germinate more quickly.

c)

Increased amounts of decomposing pioneer species remove nutrients that tree seedlings need to grow and mature.

d)

Increased amounts of soil from decomposing pioneer species allow plants with more extensive root systems to become established.

118.

In an experiment, two plants are grown together for a time and then separated. Plant 2 is a parasite of Plant 1.


Which graph best predicts the growth of Plant 1 and Plant 2 during the experiment?

a)
b)
c)
d)
119.

Four common relationships between organisms are listed in the box.


Which statements best describe these relationships?

a)

Relationships 1 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 2 is an example of commensalism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

b)

Relationships 1 and 2 are examples of commensalism.

Relationships 3 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

c)

Relationship 1 is an example of commensalism.

Relationships 2 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 3 is an example of predation.

d)

Relationships 1, 2, and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

120.

A student performed an investigation in which two ivy plants were planted in two separate containers. One of the containers had earthworms mixed in with the soil, and the other container had soil and no earthworms. The plants were given the same amount of water and exposed to the same amount of sunlight. The student observed that after several weeks of growth, the plant exposed to earthworms appeared to be healthier and exhibited more growth. To conclude that the relationship between the plant and the earthworm is an example of mutualism, the student must perform follow-up investigations that do which of the following?

a)

Determine whether the earthworms damage the soil in any way.

b)

Determine whether the earthworms benefit from being with the plant.

c)

Determine whether the water given to the plant is unpolluted.

d)

Determine whether the other plant in the investigation suffers as a result of not being exposed to earthworms.

121.

Parrotfish are herbivores that are found in coral reefs. To escape predators, a parrotfish will graze with a rabbitfish, which has venomous spines at the end of its pelvic fins. The rabbitfish does not benefit from the relationship. Which type of relationship do the parrotfish and the rabbitfish have in the coral reef environment?

a)

Commensal

b)

Mutualistic

c)

Predator-prey

d)

Parasitic

122.

Bats eat insects that damage crops and mosquitoes that are vectors for disease. One million bats can eat several tons of insects per night, saving billions of dollars in pesticides yearly. Agricultural and public health scientists are concerned about the spread of white-nose syndrome (WNS). WNS is a result of a fungus that can infect cave-dwelling bats. While bats hibernate during winter months, the fungus covers the bats' face and wings. WNS has a near 100% mortality rate, and 5.7 million bats have dies since the discovery of the fungus in 2006. Many scientists are searching for ways to protect these bats. The relationship between this fungus and bats can best be defined as -

a)

commensal, because the bats provide a surface for the fungus to grow

b)

parasitic, because the fungus obtains nutrients and shelter from the bats

c)

competitive, because both organisms use caves as shelter during the winter.

d)

mutualistic, because the relationship involves two distinct species living together

123.

In any environment or ecosystem, organisms can have several different types of relationships. Three types of relationships are described in the box.


Which of these correctly describes the relationships between the organisms?

a)

X: mutualism

Y: parasitism

Z: commensalism

b)

X: commensalism

Y: mutualism

Z: parasitism

c)

X: parasitism

Y: commensalism

Z: mutualism

d)

X: commensalism

Y: parasitism

Z: mutualism

124.

Brazil nuts are tall canopy trees that make up a large portion of the Amazon rain forest. They produce large grapefruit-sized seedpods. The agouti, a ground-dwelling rodent, has teeth strong enough to open the tough seedpods. While the agouti eats some of the tree's seeds, it also buries caches in various spots on the rain forest floor.


Why is the agouti important tot he rain forest ecosystem?

a)

It eats and disperses the trees' seeds.

b)

It eats the trees' excess seeds and prevents other animals from doing so.

c)

It cleans the rain forest floor of debris, allowing for easier motility.

d)

It prevents the trees' seeds from rotting on the rain forest floor.

125.

A native species and non-native species are competing for resources within the same ecosystem. The non-native species is more likely to survive than the native species in which of the following situations?

a)

Both the native and the non-native species thrive on the same food source.

b)

The native species is immune to certain pathogens in the ecosystem.

c)

Predators prey on both native and non-native species.

d)

The non-native species has no natural enemies in the ecosystem.

126.

The trophic pyramid is a triangular shape because

a)

90% of energy is lost to heat, movement, and survival, and only 10% of energy goes to the next level

b)

People see the top of the pyramid so it is important to know the keystone species.

c)

10% of energy is lost to heat, movement, and survival, and only 90% of energy goes to the next level

d)

the top of the pyramid is the pinnacle organism of an ecosystem

127.

Based on the food web shown above, which of the following is most likely responsible for the rabbit population trend as shown in the graph?

a)

increase in amount of grass

b)

decrease in amount of grass

c)

overpopulation in squirrel population

d)

decrease in hawk population

128.

Based on the food web shown above, which of the following is most likely responsible for the rabbit population trend as shown in the graph?

a)

increase in amount of grass

b)

decrease in amount of grass

c)

overpopulation in squirrel population

d)

decrease in hawk population

129.

If the population of Piping Plovers decreased, what would likely happen to the population of foxes?

a)

The population of foxes would definitely increase

b)

The population of foxes would definitely decrease

c)

The population of foxes might decrease because they eat Piping Plovers, but if there are enough other foods for the fox, then the population may be unaffected.

130.

Secondary succession occurs -

a)

after a forest fire wipes out a flourishing ecosystem, leaving it with only soil and rock.

b)

after a volcano erupts, leaving a flourishing ecosystem covered in ash and rock.

c)

when lichens and mosses break down rocks into soil, eventually leading to a developing ecosystem.

d)

when humans cut down trees to develop land into a shopping mall.

131.

Match the type of survivorship curves with the appropriate descriptions below:

a)

Type 1: survival is high at an early and middle age and decreases into old age. Type 2: survival remains the same life, implying that their mortality rate remains constant at every age. Type 3: survival is low in the early ages and continues to increase throughout life.

b)

Type 1: survival is low in the early ages and continues to increase throughout life. Type 2: survival remains the same life, implying that their mortality rate remains constant at every age. Type 3: survival is high at an early and middle age and decreases into old age.

c)

Type 1: survival is low in the early ages and continues to increase throughout life. Type 2: survival is high at an early and middle age and decreases into old age. Type 3: survival remains the same life, implying that their mortality rate remains constant at every age.

d)

Type 1: survival is high at an early and middle age and decreases into old age. Type 2: survival is low in the early ages and continues to increase throughout life. Type 3: survival remains the same life, implying that their mortality rate remains constant at every age.survival is low in the early ages and continues to increase throughout life.

132.

If the grass starts out with 10,000 J of energy...how much of the original energy is available to the snake in this food chain?

a)

1,000 J

b)

100 J

c)

10 J

d)

1 J

e)

0.1 J

133.

A hummingbird receives a nectar food reward and the plant benefits by having its genetic material carried to another flower to increase genetic diversity through sexual reproduction. What type of relationship is this?

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

predator-prey

d)

parasitoid

134.

This is an unlabeled predator-prey relationship graph. Which one represents the prey?

a)

the line that gets up to ~80 individuals

b)

the line that gets up to ~40 individuals

c)

both are equally likely

135.

In this foodweb interspecific competition occurs between

a)

dolphins and otters for pollock

b)

eel grass for bacteria and little schools of fish

c)

dolphins and seals for herring

d)

ocra for dolphins and seals

136.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
137.

Why is most of the energy at the bottom of the pyramid?

a)

Because producers use the most energy

b)

Because consumers use the most energy

c)

Because consumers make the most energy

d)

Because producers make the most energy

138.

If the fox was removed from the ecosystem which other organism would be affected?

a)

The grasshopper would decrease

b)

The hawk would decrease

c)

The trees would increase

d)

The chipmunk would decrease

139.

Why is a mushroom considered a heterotroph?

a)

It creates different types of food.

b)

It makes food through photosynthesis.

c)

It makes food through chemosynthesis.

d)

It obtains nutrients from its environment.

140.

The common brushtail possum is a marsupial native to Australia. This possum was introduced to New Zealand where it had no natural predators and had an abundant food supply. Which of these likely occurred a few years after the introduction of this possum to New Zealand?

a)

The possums became extinct.

b)

The possums developed shorter life spans.

c)

The possum population grew to a larger size.

d)

The possum population evolved into a different species.

141.

An animal population decreases from 800 individuals to 600 individuals. Which of the following could explain this change in population size?

a)

The population size of the animal’s predator increased.

b)

The emigration rate of the animals from the population decreased.

c)

The number of breeding pairs in the animal’s population increased.

d)

The number of species competing with the animal for food decreased.

142.

A biologists compares how different ecosystems undergo succession. She divides the series of events that happen during primary and secondary succession into three different stages. Which feature might be used to distinguish secondary succession from primary succession?

a)

the lack of pioneer species in the second stage

b)

the presence of pioneer species in the final stage

c)

the presence of trees and large plants in the final stage

d)

the presence of soil and organic matter in the first stage.

143.

After a volcano erupts and destroys an ecosystem, a few organisms are able to begin growing from the decaying organic matter left behind. What do we call those organisms that are able to grow in little or no soil that first appear?

a)

adaptors

b)

pioneer species

c)

non-vascular plants

d)

decomposers

144.

A builder is proposing a new housing development in an area of western Massachusetts. Construction of the housing development will destroy the wetland habitat in the area.

Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of the wetland’s destruction?

a)

The wetland plant species would disperse to adjacent meadow habitats.

b)

The populations of wetland animals would be unable to survive in that area.

c)

The wetland animal species would survive by interbreeding with non-wetland species.

d)

The populations of wetland plants would evolve to disperse seeds by wind rather than water.

145.

Mullet are local estuarine fish that move in schools and feed on plankton and plant matter. Natural predators of the mullet include spotted sea trout, sharks, pelicans and dolphins. The graph above shows how the number of mullet in an area has changed over time.


Based on the data, one student concludes that a new predator was introduced into the area during this time period. Which of the following is a likely alternate explanation for the change in the mullet population

a)

mullet prey increased in the area

b)

mullet parasites decreased in the area

c)

the temperature of the area increased

d)

the amount of aquatic plants in the area decreased

146.

The pH of the water in several lakes in Norway and Sweden had decreased to below 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain. Which of the following is most likely to happen in these lakes?

a)

the decline of several fish populations.

b)

an increase in numbers of fish

c)

an increase in the amount of primary producers

d)

increased predator-prey relationships

147.

The number of pythons found throughout Everglades National Park has increased in recent years. These huge snakes are not native to Florida and are believed to have been released into the wild by pet owners. Wildlife biologists have initiated attempts to capture and remove these pythons. Which statement best explains the biologists' reasons for removing these pythons from the Everglades?

a)

The pythons could upset the territorial boundaries of native organisms.

b)

The pythons could adapt to overcome diseases common to native snakes.

c)

The pythons could prey on native organisms and cause native population to decline.

d)

The pythons could begin to interbreed with native snakes and produce a more successful species.

148.

A diagram of a food web is shown above.


Which organism receives the least amount of energy from the producers?

a)

hawk

b)

rabbit

c)

grasshopper

d)

mouse

149.

The diagram above shows the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.


The removal of which of the following groups would cause an immediate decrease in the amount of energy flowing through the

a)

producers

b)

consumers

c)

decomposers

d)

inorganic nutrients

150.

DDT and other pesticides used over 50 years ago are still affecting the environment today. Scientists have found these substances in recent glacier runoff. Glacier runoff occurs during the summer, when precipitation that has fallen on glaciers during the winter is released. Ice layers from existing glaciers have been analyzed. The results of this analysis show that the concentrations of DDT and other pesticides were highest about 10 years after the use of these substances was banned.

This information shows that

a)

DDT and other pesticides cause glacier runoff during the summer.

b)

it takes humans over 50 years to analyze a glacier.

c)

precipitation helps to break down pesticides.

d)

the decision of one human generation may have an impact on future generations.

151.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
152.

What best describes the term succession?

a)

rapid changes that create an ecosystem overnight

b)

gradual changes over time to fully create or restore and ecosystem

c)

forest with the tallest trees

d)

the rate species produce offspring