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Worksheets

Semester 2 Test Review

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 3hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How did Mendel refer to the two kinds of traits exhibited by the pea plants (one coming from the father, one from the mother)?

a)

Gametogenic

b)

Elective traits

c)

Alleles

d)

Sequals

2.

What do we call the result of the genotype (for example, the color of the peas)?

a)

Visible traits

b)

Physiotrait

c)

Genotype 2

d)

Phenotype

3.

What do we call the table used to calculate the probability of an offspring's genotype?

a)

Punnett Square

b)

Venn Diagram

c)

Avogadro's Graph

d)

Circle of Life

4.

Yy is an example of...

a)

A heteroygous phenotype

b)

A heterozygous genotype

c)

A homozygous phenotype

d)

A homozygous genotype

5.

YY is an example of...

a)

A heterozygous phenotype

b)

A homozygous phenotype

c)

A homozygous genotype

d)

A heterozygous genotype

6.
The passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring is called
a)
cross-pollination
b)
cross-breeding
c)
heredity
d)
genetics
7.

Each pea plant had _____alleles for each trait.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

8.
Gregor Mendel’s principles of genetics apply to
a)
plants only
b)
animals only 
c)
pea plants only 
d)
all organisms that reproduce sexually
9.

Using Mendel's cross of two F1 generation plants with the genotype Tt, what is the probability that the F2 generation offspring will be tall (TT or Tt)?

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

3/4

d)

1

10.

Organism's genetic makeup

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

karyotype

d)

trait

11.

Organism's physical traits

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

karyotype

d)

trait

12.

Principle of independent assortment states that _______.

a)

genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes

b)

genes for the same traits segregate together during the formation of gametes

c)

only dominant genes segregate during the formation of gametes

d)

genes cannot segregate during the formation of gametes

13.

What are the possible genotypes for this cross?

a)

TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%

b)

all tall

c)

TT= 75% tt = 25%

d)

Tt = 100%

14.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
15.

Which choice best represents the genotypic ratios for the offspring of this cross?

a)

1 Yy: 2 yy: 0 YY

b)

2 Yy: 2 yy: 0 YY

c)

3 Yy: 1 yy: 0 YY

d)

1 Yy: 3 yy: 0 YY

16.

Law which states that different traits are inherited independently of each other

a)

Law of independent assortment

b)

Genetics law

17.

Law states that 1 allele is more dominant than the other. Recessive allele is only expressed when dominant is not present

a)

Law of dominance

b)

Law of inheritance

18.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

19.

An organism is a hybrid genotype (Tt) but is appears tall instead of short.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

20.

Which horse coat color shows incomplete dominance?

a)

Creme

b)

Chesnut

c)

Palomino

21.

Which Pit Bull Terrier is showing incomplete dominance?

a)
b)
c)
d)
22.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
23.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
24.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
25.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
26.
A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (SS) and a medium plant (TS) results. This is what type of inheritance pattern?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Codominance
27.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
28.
If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, only checkered chickens would be produced.  What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?
a)
incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
29.
A dog has 78 chromosomes in its body cells.  What is the diploid number?
a)
78
b)
39
c)
1
d)
100
30.
A Goat has 60 chromosomes in its body cells.  What is the haploid number?
a)
60
b)
30
c)
100
d)
120
31.
Mitosis produces cells with haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
32.
Meiosis produces cells with a haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
33.
Body cells have diploid or haploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
34.
Gametes have haploid or diploid number of chromosomes?
a)
Haploid
b)
Diploid
35.
How many cells are produced in Mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
36.
Are the cells in Mitosis identical or unique?
a)
Identical 
b)
Unique
c)
It's random
37.

A diploid cell...

a)

has 1/2 the amount of chromosomes

b)

has the normal amount of chromosomes (46)

c)

is represented by (n) in meiosis

38.

A haploid cell...

a)

has the complete amount of chromosomes (46)

b)

is represented by (2n)

c)

has 1/2 the amount of chromosomes

39.

Which phrase best describes MEIOSIS?

a)

cell division of somatic cells (normal body cells)

b)

cell division of prokaryotic cells

c)

cell division of gametic cells

40.

When gametes fuse during fertilization, they create a zygote that has_______________ cells.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

polyploid

41.

One similarity between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS is...

a)

the order of phases (PMAT)

b)

the types of cells that are dividing

c)

where the process is occurring in the organism

42.

Meiosis occurs in the _________________ of organisms.

a)

digestive organs (stomach, intestines)

b)

reproductive organs (testes, ovaries)

c)

sensory organs

(eyes, ears, nose)

43.

How many daughter cells are made at the end of Meiosis l?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

44.

How many daughter cells are made at the end of Meiosis ll?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

45.

The daughter cells created in Meiosis are _____________.

a)

identical

b)

non-identical

46.

Crossing over is the process of...

a)

chromosomes separating during Anaphase

b)

tiny pieces being exchanged on two sister chromatids

c)

chromatids lining up in the middle of the cell during Metaphase

47.

During Prophase l of MEISOSI...

a)

the cell is split in two

b)

chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

c)

crossing over occurs between two chromosomes

48.

Which is NOT true about sexual reproduction?

a)

only one organism is required to pass on traits

b)

sperm and egg are required for a zygote to form

c)

both parents pass on traits to offspring

49.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

50.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

51.

The matching pair of chromosomes you inherit from your genetic parents are called

a)

sister chromatids

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

sex chromosomes

52.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

53.

What happens during anaphase?

a)

Chromosomes/chromatids line up in center

b)

Nucleus dissolves

c)

The cell divides

d)

Chromosomes/chromatids are pulled apart

54.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

55.

During which phase are sister chromatids lined up in a single file along the center of the cell?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

56.

Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

A only

57.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

58.
a)

Interphase I

b)

Interphase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Prophase II

59.
a)

Interphase I

b)

Interphase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Prophase II

60.
a)

Interphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase I

e)

Cytokinesis I

61.
a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

62.
a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Telophase I

d)

Cytokinesis I

63.

Which genes will have the greatest chance of being separated during crossing over?

a)

B and C

b)

A and B

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

64.

How might a plasmid contribute to a selective advantage for a bacterial cell?

a)

Make the cell competent.

b)

Could provide a selective advantage for that cell.

c)

Make the cell wall stronger.

d)

Does not contribute

65.

What is transformation?

a)

The use of viruses to transform or genetically


engineer cells.

b)

The measure of how well cells are transformed in a new phenotype.

c)

The insertion of a foreign plasmid into a bacterial cell which results in new acquired traits.

d)

Genetic engineering or transformation of mammalian cells.

66.

What is genetic transformation?

a)

A prokaryotic cell turning into a eukaryotic cell

b)

Foreign DNA being inserted into a plasmid

c)

A host organism taking in foreign DNA

d)

A gene being mutated

67.

Which image is a plasmid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

What organism(s) did Frederick Griffith study? There may be 2!

a)

mice

b)

bacteriophage

c)

bacteria

69.

Who discovered that bacteria could be changed by the process of transformation?

a)

Griffith

b)

Hershey & Chase

c)

Avery

d)

Franklin

70.
From his work with mice and pneumonia-causing bacteria, Frederick Griffin coined the term
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Transformation
d)
Translation
71.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
72.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
73.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
74.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
75.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
76.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
77.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
78.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
79.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
80.

Each section of DNA that codes for a protein is called a...

a)

Chromosome

b)

RNA

c)

Gene

d)

Enzyme

81.
DNA codes for...
a)
bases
b)
proteins
c)
amino acids
d)
phosphates
82.

In RNA, Adenine will pair with what nitrogen base?

a)

Thymine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Uracil

83.

What is the job of ribosomes?

a)

make proteins

b)

store energy

c)

create covalent bonds

d)

create hydrogen bonds

84.

Using the hotspot tool, identify the 5-carbon sugar of the nucleotide.

A
B
C
85.

Using the hotspot tool, label the nitrogenous base pair.

A
B
C
86.

Using the hotspot tool, correctly label the phosphate group.

A
B
C
87.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Dinucleic Acid

b)

Dinucleotide Acid

c)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

d)

Deoxynucleotide Acid

88.

What are the sides of the DNA ladder made of?

a)

Nitrogen bases

b)

Amino acids

c)

Alternating sugar and phosphate molecules

d)

Carbon and hydrogen bonds

89.

What is the bond between nitrogen bases?

a)

Carbon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

90.

6A A segment of a DNA strand is shown.


3’ AGGTCAGGT 5’


Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5’ AGGTCAGGT 3’

b)

5’ ACCUGAGGU 3’

c)

5’ TGGACTGGA 3’

d)

5’ TCCAGTCCA 3’

91.

what nucleotides are purines?

a)
Thymine and cytosine
b)
Adenine and thymine
c)
Uracil and cytosine
d)
Adenine and guanine
92.

what nucleotides are pyrimidines?

a)

Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil

b)

Adenine, Guanine, and Thymine

c)

Adenine, Guanine, and Uracil

d)

Adenine, Cytosine, and Guanine

93.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
94.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
95.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
96.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
97.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
98.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
99.
The DNA is found in the nucleus of what type of organisms?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Viruses
100.

Match the enzymes to the correct location.

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
101.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
102.

The fragments on the lagging strand that are made up of repeating segments of DNA and RNA Primers

a)

okazaki fragments

b)

Primase

c)

Polymerase

d)

unused DNA

103.

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of the sides of the DNA molecule

a)

Bonding

b)

Alternating

c)

Anitparallel

d)

Parallel

104.

DNA polymerase moves in the _________ to ____________ direction

a)

3' to 5'

b)

easiest

c)

5" to 3"

d)

9 to 5

105.

Enzyme that connects the DNA to the backbone (glues)

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

106.

Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds (unzips)

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

107.

The diagram above shows both a portion of a DNA molecule and a portion of an RNA molecule. The RNA molecule is located

a)

towards the bottom of the diagram. I know this because it contains thymine.

b)

towards the bottom of the diagram. I know this because it is a single strand and contains uracil.

c)

towards the top of the diagram. I know this because it is a double strand and contains thymine

d)

towards the top of the diagram. I know this because it contains uracil.

108.

The synthesis of RNA is called _______ and happens in the ______.

a)

Transcription / ribosomes

b)

Translation / ribosomes

c)

Translation / nucleus

d)

Transcription / nucleus

109.

There are 3 main types of RNA that we are studying. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) along with proteins help build the ribosome. What is the role of mRNA?

a)

The role of mRNA is to carry the amino acid from the nucleus to the ribosome.

b)

The role of mRNA is to work with the rRNA and help create the ribosome.

c)

The role of mRNA is to carry the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome so that the correct protein can be made.

d)

The role of mRNA is to help make proteins by transferring the amino acids from the cytoplasm.

110.

This picture depicts what is known as the initiation portion of RNA synthesis (transcription). Notice that RNA polymerase is present. What is the role of RNA polymerase?

a)

RNA Polymerase helps attract synthesis factors to the promotor site.

b)

RNA Polymerase is an enzyme that helps in DNA replication

c)

RNA polymerase forms an amino acid sequence along the mRNA strand.

d)

RNA polymerase binds to DNA at a promoter region (a specific sequence of bases) and separates DNA strands.

111.

The diagram above shows the elongation of the mRNA strand. What is the template used in transcription?

a)

DNA strand

b)

mRNA strand

c)

tRNA strand

d)

rRNA strand

112.

Which of these bases does NOT exist in an RNA strand?

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Uracil

d)

Guanine

e)

Cytosine

113.

Before the mRNA leaves the nucleus it must be edited. Multiple section of the mRNA will be cut out and discarded. These sections are called

a)

Exons

b)

Intons

c)

Promotors

d)

Cap region

e)

Tail region

114.

The resulting exons will be spliced together forming a molecule

a)

.known as the mRNA strand.

b)

that carries the genetic message

c)

leave the nucleus and go to the ribosome to make a protein

d)

all of these are correct

115.

What is " junk DNA"?

a)

Coding DNA

b)

Non-coding DNA

c)

Waste DNA

d)

There is no such thing as junk DNA

116.

The job of tRNA is to

a)

copy the genetic code from DNA

b)

bring amino acids to the ribosome

c)

bring the code from the DNA to the ribosome

d)

synthesize amino acids

117.

Ribosomal RNA is a form of RNA that

a)

makes up a ribosome

b)

carries amino acids to the ribosome

c)

transfers the genetic code to the nucleus

d)

copies the genetic code from DNA

118.

What subunits comprise a ribosome?

a)

large and small

b)

big and little

c)

big and small

d)

large and little

119.

Which answer models central dogma?

a)

DNA to protein to RNA

b)

RNA to DNA to protein

c)

DNA to RNA to protein

d)

protein to RNA to DNA

120.

If the codon triplet is ACA, what amino acid is being requested?

a)

Threonine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Cysteine

d)

Histidine

121.

If the codon triplet is CGU, what amino acid is being requested?

a)

Alanine

b)

Aspartic Acid

c)

Arginine

d)

Asparagine

122.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

123.

What does tRNA "transfer"?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

AUG

124.

What do amino acids come together to join?

a)

a growing polypeptide chain (protein)

b)

a growing lipid

c)

a growing carbohydrate

d)

a growing nucleic acid

125.

codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

126.

anti-codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

127.

Which process does this picture show?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

128.

Overall, protein synthesis consists of these steps

a)

DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis and transcription

b)

transcription and translation

c)

DNA synthesis, transcription and translation

129.
What is the monomer (building block) of proteins?
a)
Monosacchrides
b)
Polysaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
Triglycerides
130.

Match the following mutations with their effect.

a)

silent

(substitution)

1.

different codon is for same amino acid, so no effect

b)

missense

(substitution)

2.

different codon changes amino acid, so some effect

c)

nonsense

(substitution)

3.

different codon causes early STOP, so polypeptide cut short

d)

insertion

(frameshift)

4.

extra codon alters subsequent 3-code sequences, so different chain produced

e)

deletion

(frameshift)

5.

deleted codon alters subsequent 3-code sequencesso different chain produced

131.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

A

1.

Parent

b)

B

2.

helicase

c)

C

3.

single strand binding proteins

d)

D

4.

DNA polymerase

e)

F

5.

leading strand

132.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
133.

What type of mutation results from the replacement of one nucleotide with another?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Duplication

134.

Which mutation is likely to have the most severe impact on the protein it codes for?

a)

Silent mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Nonsense mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

135.

What is a deletion mutation?

a)

The removal of one or more nucleotide pairs from a DNA sequence

b)

The addition of extra nucleotides into a DNA sequence

c)

The reversal of a segment of the DNA sequence

d)

The replacement of a segment of DNA with another segment from a different chromosome

136.

Is this individual male or female?

a)

Male

b)

Female

137.

Homologous chromosome pairs are a combination of how many chromosomes from each parent?

a)

1 from each parent

b)

2 from each parent

138.

What is an organized picture of all of an organism’s homologous chromosome pairs lined up with each other?

a)

Pedigree

b)

Karyotype

139.

Which of the following is used to determine genetic defects or if an extra or missing chromosome exist in an organism?

a)

Pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Karyotype

140.

The following pedigree chart shows _______ females and ______ males that DO NOT have the trait.

a)

7, 3

b)

4, 4

c)

3, 2

d)

3, 3

e)

57, 93.5

141.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
142.

What is the genotype of individual IV – 2?

a)

HH

b)

HY

c)

hh

d)

Yh

143.

If a child shows a recessive disorder, and his brother does not, his healthy parents' genotypes are;

a)

Hh and Hh

b)

HH and HH

c)

Hh and HH

d)

hh and hh

144.
Structures that are inherited from a common ancestor are homologous.
a)
True
b)
False
145.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
146.
Bird wings and butterfly wings are an example of
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Mimicry
d)
Camoflague
147.
How would you describe this evolution?
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Structural adaption
d)
Functional adaption
148.
The structures shown are_________
a)
homologous
b)
heterologous
c)
analogous
d)
vestigial
149.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
150.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
151.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
152.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
153.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
154.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
155.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
156.

Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis (hip) bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

157.
Which of these best represents a time period in which an organism could evolve?
a)
5 days
b)
100 years
c)
10,000 years
d)
2 decades

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