2. If a particular treatment is in an “indeterminate” class, this means that:

A) preliminary research has indicated that it would be reasonable to administer the treatment.

B) scientific evidence has concluded that the treatment may be considered for select conditions.

C) extensive research has concluded that the treatment has a greater potential to cause harm.

D) there is not enough scientific evidence to make a recommendation for or against the treatment

(a)  

3. Which of the following FDA pregnancy categories is a drug assigned if there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits for pregnant women may be acceptable despite the risk, as in life-threatening diseases for which safer drugs cannot be used?

A) B

B) C

C) D

D) X

(a)  

4. A drug that is contraindicated for pregnant women is assigned an FDA pregnancy category:

A) X.

B) D.

C) C.

D) B.

(a)  

5. The prefix value for micro (µ) is:

A) 0.00001.

B) 0.000001.

C) 0.0000001.

D) 0.00000001.

(a)  

6. The amount of medication, expressed in milligrams, grams, or grains, that is present in an ampule or vial is called the:

A) yield.

B) volume.

C) desired dose.

D) concentration.

(a)  

7. What classification of medication is activated charcoal?

A) Absorbent

B) Antiemetic

C) Adsorbent

D) Antidote

(a)  

8. Activated charcoal is contraindicated in patients:

A) who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

B) who ingested a corrosive substance.

C) who are younger than 16 years of age.

D) with abdominal pain of unknown origin.

(a)  

9. An appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a patient who weighs 160 pounds is:

A) 145 g.

B) 164 g.

C) 181 g.

D) 195 g.

(a)  

10. What is the mechanism of action of adenosine (Adenocard)?

A) Inhibits the action of acetylcholine at postganglionic parasympathetic neuroeffector sites; increases heart rate

B) Slows conduction through the AV node; can interrupt re-entrant pathways; slows heart rate by acting directly on sinus pacemaker cells

C) Blocks sodium channels and myocardial potassium channels; delays repolarization; increases the duration of the action potential

D) Decreases heart rate, myocardial contractility, and cardiac output; inhibits dilation of bronchial smooth muscle

(a)  

11. Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with:

A) reentry tachycardia.

B) narrow-complex tachycardia.

C) wide-complex tachycardia.

D) drug-induced tachycardia.

(a)  

12. If an initial dose of adenosine is ineffective for a 130-pound patient, you should:

A) give 6 mg rapid IV/IO push.

B) give the second dose more slowly.

C) give 12 mg after 1 to 2 minutes.

D) give a second dose after 10 minutes.

(a)  

13. The correct second dose of adenosine for a 50-pound child is:

A) 2.3 mg.

B) 4.6 mg.

C) 6 mg.

D) 12 mg.

(a)  

14. The side effects of adenosine are limited in most patients because:

A) adenosine has such a short half-life.

B) the doses of adenosine are relatively small.

C) patients who receive adenosine are stable.

D) adenosine is subject to first-pass metabolism.

(a)  

15. Albuterol is a(n):

A) selective beta-1 agonist.

B) beta-adrenergic blocker.

C) parasympatholytic drug.

D) sympathomimetic drug.

(a)  

16. Side effects of albuterol may include:

A) wheezing, hypersalivation, and nausea.

B) tremors, lightheadedness, and irritability.

C) hypotension, bradycardia, and headache.

D) dizziness, blurred vision, and dysphagia.

(a)  

17. Which of the following medications antagonizes albuterol?

A) Alpha agonists

B) Ace inhibitors

C) Beta-blockers

D) Antidepressants

(a)  

18. Which of the following represents the correct adult dose of albuterol when given via nebulizer?

A) 90 mg diluted in 5 mL of normal saline

B) 2.5 mg diluted in 2.5 mL of normal saline

C) 180 mg diluted in 10 mL of normal saline

D) 1.25 mg diluted in 2.5 mL of normal saline

(a)  

19. Fibrinolytic agents dissolve blood clots by:

A) converting plasminogen to plasmin, which digests the fibrin strands of the clot.

B) reducing the overall number of circulating platelets, which thins the blood.

C) blocking certain clotting factors in the liver necessary to hold the clot together.

D) converting plasmin to fibrin, which digests the plasminogen matrix of the clot.

(a)  

20. Contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy include:

A) any long bone fracture.

B) systolic BP greater than 150 mm Hg.

C) an allergy to salicylates.

D) intracranial surgery within 3 months.

(a)  

21. What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone?

A) Blocks sodium channels and myocardial potassium channels

B) Acts directly on the sinus node and slows impulse formation

C) Blocks calcium channels and decreases cardiac contractility

D) Antagonizes beta-1 receptors and decreases the heart rate

(a)  

22. If an initial dose of amiodarone is not effective in terminating ventricular tachycardia in a patient with a pulse, the paramedic should give:

A) 150 mg via rapid IV push.

B) 300 mg over 10 minutes.

C) 150 mg over 10 minutes.

D) 300 mg via rapid IV push.

(a)  

23. What is the initial loading dose of amiodarone for a 28-pound child?

A) 28 mg

B) 65 mg

C) 97.5 mg

D) 150 mg

(a)  

24. Which of the following medications converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin, which chemically binds with cyanide and prevents its toxic effect?

A) Amyl nitrite

B) Romazicon

C) Calcium gluconate

D) Hydroxocobalamin

(a)  

25. What is the mechanism of action of aspirin when given to patients experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?

A) Prevents platelets from aggregating and forming emboli

B) Converts plasminogen to plasmin, which destroys fibrin

C) Dilates the coronary arteries and improves blood flow

D) Prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and lyses clots

(a)  

26. Aspirin is relatively contraindicated in patients with:

A) asthma.

B) heart failure.

C) hypotension.

D) tachycardia.

(a)  

27. The correct dose of aspirin for a patient with cardiac-related chest pain is:

A) 81 to 162 mg, enteric.

B) 81 to 324 mg, enteric.

C) up to 325 mg, chewable.

D) up to 160 mg, chewable.

(a)  

28. Atenolol is indicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A) hypertension.

B) paroxysmal SVT.

C) atrial flutter.

D) AV heart block.

(a)  

29. Which of the following classifications of medication may potentiate atenolol?

A) Alpha-adrenergic agonist

B) Calcium channel blocker

C) Selective beta-2 agonist

D) Beta-1 receptor agonist

(a)  

30. Atropine sulfate is classified as a(n) (a)   medication.

A) adrenergic

B) anticholinergic

C) sympatholytic

D) sympathomimetic

31. Atropine should NOT be given to patients with:

A) hypothermic bradycardia.

B) nerve agent exposure.

C) beta-blocker overdose.

D) calcium channel blocker overdose.

(a)  

32. Side effects of atropine sulfate when given in therapeutic doses and at the proper rate may include:

A) pupillary constriction.

B) excessive urination.

C) paradoxical bradycardia.

D) dry mouth and nausea.

(a)  

33. Atropine is supplied in 10-mL prefilled syringes that contain 1 mg. What is the concentration per milliliter?

A) 1 mg/mL

B) 10 mg/mL

C) 0.1 mg/mL

D) 0.01 mg/mL

(a)  

34. The maximum total dose of atropine for a 190-pound patient is:

A) 2 mg.

B) 2.5 mg.

C) 3 mg.

D) 3.5 mg.

(a)  

35. In doses less than 0.1 mg, atropine may cause:

A) profound tachycardia.

B) paradoxical bradycardia.

C) severe urinary retention.

D) flushed, hot, dry skin.

(a)  

36. Calcium chloride may be beneficial to patients with beta-blocker overdose because it:

A) increases cardiac contractility.

B) stimulates beta-1 receptors.

C) blocks calcium channels.

D) decreases ventricular automaticity.

(a)  

37. Calcium chloride is NOT routinely given to patients with:

A) hypermagnesemia.

B) beta-blocker overdose.

C) hyperkalemia.

D) cardiopulmonary arrest

(a)  

38. Clopidogrel (Plavix) is a(n):

A) anticoagulant.

B) antiplatelet aggregant.

C) coronary vasodilator.

D) fibrinolytic.

(a)  

39. Which of the following statements regarding clopidogrel (Plavix) is correct?

A) The peak effect of clopidogrel ranges between 10 and 12 hours.

B) A major contraindication for clopidogrel is acute ischemic stroke.

C) It should not be given to patients taking a proton pump inhibitor.

D) It should not be given to patients who are unable to take aspirin.

(a)  

40. Dextrose is classified as a(n):

A) electrolyte.

B) carbohydrate.

C) negatively charged ion.

D) antihyperglycemic.

(a)  

41. In addition to rapidly increasing serum glucose levels, dextrose:

A) provides a short-term diuretic effect.

B) causes a decrease in intracranial pressure.

C) has potent anticonvulsant properties.

D) stimulates the liver to produce glycogen.

(a)  

42. The correct dose of IV dextrose for an adult is:

A) 100 mL of a 50% solution.

B) 2 to 4 g/kg of a 50% solution.

C) 500 mg/kg of a 25% solution.

D) 12.5 to 25 g of a 50% solution.

(a)  

43. Diazepam produces all of the following clinical effects, EXCEPT:

A) sedation.

B) hypnosis.

C) analgesia.

D) anticonvulsant.

(a)  

44. Diazepam may be indicated for patients with:

A) myasthenia gravis.

B) coma of unknown cause.

C) increased intracranial pressure.

D) acute alcohol withdrawal.

(a)  

45. Prior to cardioverting a patient, the paramedic can give up to (a)   mg of diazepam.

A) 5

B) 10

C) 15

D) 20

46. By classification, digoxin is a(n):

A) inotropic agent.

B) anticholinergic.

C) catecholamine.

D) sympathomimetic.

(a)  

47. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with digitalis toxicity?

A) Acute weight gain and nausea

B) Blurred yellow or green vision

C) Narrow-complex tachycardia

D) Fine motor tremors and vomiting

(a)  

48. Diltiazem is commonly used for patients with:

A) rapid atrial fibrillation.

B) ventricular tachycardia.

C) high-grade AV heart block.

D) heart failure and hypotension.

(a)  

49. If an initial dose of diltiazem is ineffective, a second dose of (a)   can be given.

A) 5 to 10 mg

B) 10 to 20 mg

C) 0.25 mg/kg

D) 0.35 mg/kg

50. Which of the following medications can be given before diltiazem to a patient with borderline hypotension?

A) Digoxin

B) Labetalol

C) Calcium chloride

D) Magnesium sulfate

(a)  

51. Diphenhydramine is primarily used for patients with:

A) bronchospasm.

B) status asthmaticus.

C) allergic reactions.

D) beta-blocker toxicity.

(a)  

52. For which of the following conditions is diphenhydramine contraindicated?

A) Severe motion sickness

B) Narrow-angle glaucoma

C) Acute dystonic reaction

D) Phenothiazine toxicity

(a)  

53. Which of the following represents a correct adult dose of diphenhydramine?

A) 25 to 50 mg IM

B) 1 to 2 mg/kg IV

C) 12.5 to 25 mg SC

D) 50 to 100 mg IV

(a)  

54. Which of the following statements regarding dobutamine is correct?

A) The adult dose for dobutamine is 2 to 20 mg/kg/min, titrated to the desired clinical effect.

B) Dobutamine increases myocardial contractility, but has minimal effect on the heart rate.

C) Dobutamine is especially beneficial for patients who are in shock due to poisons or drugs.

D) Patients with hypotension due to left ventricular failure should not be given dobutamine.

(a)  

55. Prior to administering dopamine to a patient, the paramedic must ensure that the patient is:

A) awake and alert.

B) not bradycardic.

C) tracheally intubated.

D) not hypovolemic.

(a)  

56. Which of the following clinical effects would you expect to observe in a patient who is receiving dopamine in a dosing range of 2 to 4 mg/kg/minute?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Increased vascular resistance

C) Increased urine output

D) Increased cardiac contractility

(a)  

57. Which of the following is NOT a physiologic effect of epinephrine?

A) Beta-1 receptor agonist

B) Beta-2 receptor agonist

C) Histamine receptor agonist

D) Alpha-1 receptor agonist

(a)  

58. Epinephrine is deactivated by:

A) catecholamines.

B) alkaline solutions.

C) magnesium sulfate.

D) sympathomimetics.

(a)  

59. Indications for epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) hypothermic cardiac arrest.

B) bradycardia-induced hypotension.

C) atropine-refractory bradycardia.

D) mild or severe allergic reactions.

(a)  

60. For anaphylactic shock, epinephrine should be given via the (a)   route.

A) intravenous

B) endotracheal

C) intramuscular

D) subcutaneous

61. The correct adult IV/IO dose and concentration of epinephrine for cardiac arrest is:

A) 1 mg, 1:1,000 every 3 to 5 minutes.

B) 0.1 mL/kg, 1:1,000 every 5 minutes.

C) 0.01 mg/kg, 1:10,000 every 3 minutes.

D) 1 mg, 1:10,000 every 3 to 5 minutes.

(a)  

62. To prepare an epinephrine infusion, the paramedic should add ___ mg of a _________ solution to 250 mL of normal saline.

A) 1, 1:1,000

B) 10, 1:1,000

C) 10, 1:10,000

D) 1, 1:10,000

(a)  

63. Racemic epinephrine is commonly administered to patients with:

A) epiglottitis.

B) heart disease.

C) laryngeal edema.

D) pneumonia.

(a)  

64. Etomidate is a:

A) short-acting barbiturate that induces sedation and retrograde amnesia.

B) long-acting benzodiazepine that is useful for patients with severe anxiety.

C) short-acting hypnotic that acts at the level of the reticular activating system.

D) long-acting narcotic analgesic that stimulates opioid receptor sites in the body.

(a)  

65. Which of the following represents the correct adult dose for etomidate (Amidate)?

A) 50 to 100 mg

B) 0.2 to 0.6 mg/kg

C) 0.2 to 0.4 mg/kg

D) 0.01 to 0.02 mg/kg

(a)  

66. The onset of action of etomidate (Amidate) is:

A) less than 1 minute.

B) 1 to 3 minutes.

C) 3 to 5 minutes.

D) 5 to 7 minutes.

(a)  

67. Fentanyl citrate (Sublimaze) is a(n):

A) opiate antagonist.

B) sedative-hypnotic.

C) Schedule I narcotic.

D) opioid analgesic.

(a)  

68. Which of the following statements regarding fentanyl (Sublimaze) is correct?

A) The adult dose of fentanyl is 25 to 50 mg.

B) Fentanyl has a duration of action of 10 minutes.

C) Fentanyl should be given over 10 to 20 seconds.

D) The peak effect of fentanyl is 3 to 5 minutes.

(a)  

69. A dose of 100 mg of fentanyl (Sublimaze) is equivalent to (a)   mg of morphine.

A) 0.5

B) 5

C) 10

D) 20

70. Which of the following medications antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines on the central nervous system?

A) Naloxone

B) Nalbuphine

C) Flumazenil

D) Hydroxyzine

(a)  

71. The initial dose of furosemide (Lasix) for a 175-pound man is:

A) 20 to 40 mg.

B) 40 to 80 mg.

C) 80 to 100 mg.

D) 100 to 120 mg.

(a)  

72. Furosemide (Lasix) increases urinary output by:

A) blocking sodium absorption at the distal and proximal tubules and the loop of Henle.

B) promoting the movement of fluid from the intracellular space to the extracellular space.

C) alkalinizing the urine, which promotes hydrogen ion excretion via the renal system.

D) drawing glucose from the cells into the vascular compartment, which induces diuresis.

(a)  

73. Glucagon can be classified as all of the following, EXCEPT as a(n):

A) pancreatic hormone.

B) hypoglycemic agent.

C) insulin antagonist.

D) hyperglycemic agent.

(a)  

74. Glucagon increases the blood glucose level by:

A) stimulating glycogenesis.

B) inhibiting gluconeogenesis.

C) agonizing the effects of insulin.

D) facilitating glucose entry into the cell.

(a)  

75. Glucagon may be indicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A) hypoglycemia.

B) beta-blocker overdose.

C) hyperglycemia.

D) calcium channel blocker overdose.

(a)  

76. Glucagon would be ineffective in patients with:

A) significant hypertension.

B) low serum glucose levels.

C) severe beta-blocker toxicity.

D) depleted glycogen stores.

(a)  

77. Haloperidol (Haldol) should NOT be given to patients with:

A) associated hypertension.

B) hypoxia-induced agitation.

C) a history of acute psychosis.

D) a shortened QT interval.

(a)  

78. Haloperidol (Haldol) would be expected to antagonize the effects of:

A) opiates.

B) barbiturates.

C) benzodiazepines.

D) amphetamines.

(a)  

79. Ipratropium (Atrovent) dilates the bronchioles by:

A) inhibiting the interaction of acetylcholine at bronchial smooth muscle receptors.

B) selectively stimulating beta-2 receptors found in the bronchial smooth muscle.

C) competitively binding to beta-2 receptors found in the bronchial smooth muscle.

D) increasing the interaction of acetylcholine at bronchial smooth muscle receptors.

(a)  

80. Prior to administering ipratropium (Atrovent), the paramedic should routinely ask the patient if he or she is allergic to:

A) wheat.

B) peanuts.

C) aspirin.

D) opiates.

(a)  

81. Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol) is a(n):

A) opiate agonist.

B) corticosteroid.

C) non-narcotic anxiolytic.

D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory.

(a)  

82. Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol) should NOT be given to patients:

A) taking a narcotic analgesic.

B) older than 55 years of age.

C) with a bleeding disorder.

D) with an orthopaedic injury.

(a)  

83. The antihypertensive properties of labetalol (Normodyne) are due to its:

A) selective alpha and nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking effects.

B) nonselective alpha and selective beta-1 adrenergic blocking effects.

C) selective alpha and selective beta-adrenergic blocking effects.

D) nonselective dopaminergic and selective alpha-adrenergic blocking effects.

(a)  

84. Levalbuterol (Xopenex) is classified as a(n):

A) beta-1 agonist bronchodilator.

B) parasympathetic bronchodilator.

C) beta-2 antagonist bronchodilator.

D) sympathomimetic bronchodilator.

(a)  

85. The standard adult dose for levalbuterol (Xopenex) is:

A) 0.25 to 0.5 mg in 3 mL of normal saline every 20 minutes, up to 3 times.

B) 1.25 to 2.5 mg in 3 mL of normal saline every 20 minutes, up to 3 times.

C) 2.5 to 3 mg in 3 to 5 mL of normal saline every 20 minutes, up to 3 times.

D) 5 to 7.5 mg in 5 to 10 mL of normal saline every 10 minutes, up to 6 times.

(a)  

86. Indications for lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) AV heart block in the absence of an artificial pacemaker.

B) ventricular fibrillation that is refractory to defibrillation.

C) wide-complex tachycardia with a normal baseline QT interval.

D) stable ventricular tachycardia with preserved ventricular function.

(a)  

87. Which of the following represents a correct repeat dose for lidocaine in a 190-pound patient with refractory ventricular fibrillation?

A) 25 mg

B) 65 mg

C) 130 mg

D) 195 mg

(a)  

88. A 5-mL prefilled syringe of lidocaine contains 100 mg. How many mg/mL are present?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 30

D) 50

(a)  

89. Lorazepam (Ativan) is a:

A) Schedule I long-acting opioid.

B) benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.

C) short-/intermediate-acting benzodiazepine.

D) barbiturate with analgesic properties.

(a)  

90. When given via the IM route, lorazepam (Ativan) is:

A) not diluted.

B) given rapidly.

C) diluted with sterile saline.

D) not an effective anxiolytic

(a)  

91. Indications for magnesium sulfate include:

A) calcium channel blocker toxicity.

B) second- or third-degree AV block.

C) increased intracranial pressure.

D) digitalis-induced dysrhythmias.

(a)  

92. When given during cardiac arrest due to torsade de pointes, the dose for magnesium sulfate is:

A) 1 to 4 g of a 10% solution over 3 minutes.

B) 1 to 2 g of a 10% solution over 5 to 60 minutes.

C) 25 to 50 mg/kg of a 10% solution over 3 minutes.

D) 1 to 2 g of a 10% solution over 5 to 20 minutes.

(a)  

93. Metaproterenol sulfate (Alupent) is contraindicated in patients with:

A) a systolic BP less than 120 mm Hg.

B) tachycardia due to digitalis toxicity.

C) bronchospasm secondary to bronchitis.

D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

(a)  

94. Methylprednisoline (Solu-Medrol) is classified as a:

A) beta-2 agonist.

B) glucocorticoid.

C) corticosteroid.

D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory

(a)  

95. Which of the following represents a correct dose of Solu-Medrol for a 115-pound adult with anaphylaxis?

A) 100 mg

B) 125 mg

C) 135 mg

D) 150 mg

(a)  

96. For which of the following is midazolam (Versed) indicated?

A) Paralysis induction for intubation

B) Sedation prior to cardioversion

C) Analgesia for orthopaedic trauma

D) To potentiate the effects of barbiturates

(a)  

97. The typical adult dose for midazolam (Versed) is:

A) 0.5 mg/kg.

B) 1 to 2 mg.

C) 2 to 2.5 mg.

D) 5 to 15 mg.

(a)  

98. Physiologic effects of morphine sulfate include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) decreased afterload.

B) decreased venous return.

C) decreased venous capacitance.

D) decreased cardiac oxygen demand.

(a)  

99. Morphine sulfate is contraindicated for patients with:

A) severe pain that is chronic.

B) cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

C) a systolic BP less than 120 mm Hg.

D) acute exacerbation of COPD.

(a)  

100. Which of the following statements regarding morphine sulfate is correct?

A) For a suspected acute myocardial infarction, morphine should be given prior to nitroglycerin.

B) To be of most benefit, morphine should be given in a dose of 5 to 10 mg over 20 to 30 seconds.

C) Morphine is indicated for patients with unstable angina if nitroglycerin does not relieve their pain.

D) Although morphine is an opioid, its effects cannot be effectively reversed with naloxone (Narcan).

(a)  

101. In which of the following situations is morphine sulfate associated with the greatest risk of bradycardia or AV heart block?

A) Inferior wall MI

B) Anterior wall MI

C) Unstable angina

D) Lateral wall MI

(a)  

102. In general, the paramedic can administer up to (a)   mg of naloxone (Narcan) before contacting medical control.

A) 4

B) 10

C) 15

D) 20

103. The onset of action of naloxone (Narcan) is:

A) less than 2 minutes.

B) 2 to 5 minutes

C) 5 to 8 minutes.

D) greater than 10 minutes.

(a)  

104. The minimum single dose that is recommended for naloxone (Narcan) is:

A) 0.4 mg.

B) 0.8 mg.

C) 2 mg.

D) 4 mg.

(a)  

105. Naloxone (Narcan) reverses the central nervous system depressant effects of drugs such as morphine and fentanyl by:

A) stimulating narcotic receptor sites.

B) facilitating excretion by the renal system.

C) agonizing opiate receptor sites.

D) competitively inhibiting opiate receptor sites.

(a)  

106. It is especially important for the paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan) with caution to patients who are:

A) in cardiac arrest.

B) addicted to narcotics.

C) severely bradycardic.

D) chronic alcoholics.

(a)  

107. What is the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin?

A) Vascular constriction; increased preload; decreased afterload

B) Smooth muscle relaxation; decreased preload and afterload

C) Vascular dilation; increased preload and afterload

D) Smooth muscle relaxation; decreased preload; increased afterload

(a)  

108. Nitroglycerin is indicated for patients with (a)   chest pain.

A) ischemic

B) traumatic

C) pleuritic

D) somatic

109. Contraindications for nitroglycerin include:

A) a systolic BP of less than 110 mm Hg.

B) a known allergy to salicylates.

C) severe bradycardia or tachycardia.

D) recent (within 24 hours) use of aspirin.

(a)  

110. Which of the following represents the correct dosing regimen for nitroglycerin?

A) 0.3 mg every 3 minutes, up to 6 times

B) 0.4 mg every 5 minutes, up to 3 times

C) 0.6 mg every 3 minutes, up to 4 times

D) 400 mg every 10 minutes, up to 5 times

(a)  

111. Norepinephrine increases the blood pressure by:

A) antagonizing beta receptors.

B) increasing cardiac contractility.

C) increasing the heart rate.

D) stimulating alpha receptors.

(a)  

112. Ondansetron hydrochloride (Zofran) prevents nausea and vomiting by:

A) blocking histamine receptors.

B) blocking serotonin receptors.

C) stimulating histamine receptors.

D) stimulating serotonin receptors.

(a)  

113. The standard adult dose for ondansetron (Zofran) is:

A) 4 mg.

B) 12.5 mg.

C) 10 to 15 mg.

D) 0.1 mg/kg.

(a)  

114. The peak effect of pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) is:

A) 30 seconds.

B) 3 to 5 minutes.

C) 5 to 10 minutes.

D) 45 minutes.

(a)  

115. Pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) is contraindicated if:

A) the patient has a severe head injury and is hypertensive.

B) you have reason to believe that the patient is hypovolemic.

C) you cannot provide adequate ventilation and oxygenation.

D) the patient has had his or her spleen surgically removed.

(a)  

116. Which of the following represents the correct dose for pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) for a 140-pound adult?

A) 3.2 mg

B) 6.4 mg

C) 7.7 mg

D) 8.3 mg

(a)  

117. Phenobarbital is classified as a:

A) Schedule II narcotic.

B) Schedule III benzodiazepine.

C) Schedule V sedative-hypnotic.

D) Schedule IV barbiturate.

(a)  

118. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) reverses the effects of organophosphate poisoning by:

A) reactivating cholinesterase.

B) blocking the vagus nerve.

C) increasing vagal tone.

D) deactivating cholinesterase.

(a)  

119. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) should NOT be used concurrently with:

A) atropine.

B) epinephrine.

C) dextrose solutions.

D) succinylcholine.

(a)  

120. The initial adult dose of pralidoxime (2-PAM) for organophosphate poisoning is:

A) 2 to 4 g by IM injection, repeated one time.

B) 20 to 40 mg/kg as an IV infusion over 15 to 30 minutes.

C) 1 to 2 g as an IV infusion over 30 to 60 minutes.

D) 600 mg by IM injection, repeated at 15-minute intervals.

(a)  

121. Procainamide is contraindicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A) third-degree atrioventricular block.

B) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

C) tricyclic antidepressant overdose.

D) preexisting QT interval prolongation.

(a)  

122. The adult dose of procainamide for recurrent V-Fib or pulseless V-Tach is:

A) 1 to 2 g IV push.

B) 20 to 50 mg/min.

C) 0.5 to 1 mg/kg/min.

D) 15 mg/kg over 30 minutes.

(a)  

123. A procainamide infusion should be stopped if:

A) a total of 17 mg/kg has been given.

B) QRS complex narrowing occurs.

C) the patient becomes hypertensive.

D) the dysrhythmia is not quickly suppressed.

(a)  

124. Promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) can be classified as all of the following, EXCEPT as a(n):

A) antiemetic.

B) phenothiazine.

C) alpha agonist.

D) antihistamine.

(a)  

125. Which of the following statements regarding Phenergan is correct?

A) Phenergan possesses sedative and anticholinergic activity.

B) Phenergan should only be given by the intravenous route.

C) Phenergan antagonizes the effects of narcotic analgesics.

D) Phenergan is contraindicated for patients with asthma.

(a)  

126. The adult dose for Phenergan is:

A) 1 to 2 mg/kg.

B) 50 to 100 mg.

C) 12.5 to 25 mg.

D) 0.25 to 0.5 mg/kg.

(a)  

127. Indications for propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) may include:

A) bradycardia.

B) hypertension.

C) bronchial asthma.

D) pulmonary edema.

(a)  

128. The onset of action of rocuronium bromide (Zemuron) is:

A) 30 seconds.

B) 1 to 2 minutes.

C) 3 to 5 minutes.

D) about 10 minutes.

(a)  

129. Rocuronium bromide (Zemuron) is classified as a:

A) depolarizing neuromuscular blocker.

B) nondepolarizing neuromuscular agonist.

C) depolarizing neuromuscular agonist.

D) nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker.

(a)  

130. After administering rocuronium bromide (Zemuron), you can expect its effects to last for at least:

A) 45 minutes.

B) 60 minutes.

C) 90 minutes.

D) 120 minutes.

(a)  

131. Sodium bicarbonate may be indicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A) aspirin overdose.

B) cardiac arrest.

C) hypokalemia.

D) crush injury.

(a)  

132. During cardiac arrest, sodium bicarbonate must be used in conjunction with:

A) IV fluid boluses.

B) effective ventilation.

C) calcium chloride.

D) high-dose epinephrine.

(a)  

133. What is the initial dose of sodium bicarbonate for a 240-pound man?

A) 37 mEq

B) 55 mEq

C) 70 mEq

D) 110 mEq

(a)  

134. Streptokinase (Streptase) can stop an evolving acute myocardial infarction by:

A) inhibiting platelet aggregation near a vascular occlusion.

B) blocking certain clotting factors, which thins the blood.

C) dilating the occluded vessel and improving blood flow.

D) converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin.

(a)  

135. Succinylcholine (Anectine) is contraindicated for patients with:

A) head trauma.

B) major burns.

C) tachycardia.

D) blunt force trauma.

(a)  

136. Succinylcholine (Anectine) is preferred by many paramedics because it:

A) has a short duration of action.

B) is a nondepolarizing paralytic.

C) does not cause fasciculations.

D) has a slow onset of action.

(a)  

137. Which of the following medications is indicated for patients with delirium tremens?

A) Brethine

B) Isoptin

C) Thiamine

D) Luminal

(a)  

138. Which of the following statements regarding vasopressin (Pitressin) is correct?

A) Vasopressin stimulates beta-1 receptors during cardiac arrest.

B) The usual adult dose of vasopressin is 40 U every 5 minutes.

C) Vasopressin is an alternative to epinephrine in cardiac arrest.

D) There are no data to support the use of vasopressin in adults.

(a)  

139. Vasopressin is given for its physiologic effects of:

A) increased inotropy.

B) bronchodilation.

C) decreased chronotropy.

D) vasoconstriction

(a)  

140. Vasopressin is supplied in 1-mL vials that contain 20 units. How many vials should you give to achieve the initial adult dose?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

(a)  

141. Prior to administering vecuronium bromide (Norcuron), or any other neuromuscular blocker, it is important for the paramedic to remember that:

A) neuromuscular blockers have no effect on a patient's level of consciousness.

B) chemical paralysis should be achieved prior to administering a sedative drug.

C) the airway should be secured with an ET tube or other advanced airway device.

D) neuromuscular blockers are potent analgesics and may cause severe hypotension.

(a)  

142. Verapamil hydrochloride (Isoptin, Calan) is indicated for patients with:

A) stable wide-complex tachycardias.

B) atrial flutter with a slow ventricular rate.

C) re-entry supraventricular tachycardia.

D) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

(a)  

143. Verapamil hydrochloride (Isoptin, Calan) is classified as a(n):

A) beta adrenergic blocker.

B) alpha adrenergic agonist.

C) selective beta antagonist.

D) calcium channel blocker.

(a)  

144. Plasma protein fraction (Plasmanate) is especially useful for patients with:

A) hyponatremia.

B) burn shock.

C) dehydration.

D) blood loss.

(a)  

145. Dextran is classified as a(n):

A) natural colloid.

B) isotonic crystalloid.

C) artificial colloid.

D) hypertonic crystalloid.

(a)  

146. Which of the following statements regarding hetastarch (Hespan) is correct?

A) Hetastarch can expand circulating volume for up to 36 hours.

B) Hetastarch is an isotonic crystalloid used primarily for blood loss.

C) Patients who are allergic to peanuts may be allergic to hetastarch.

D) Hetastarch has been shown to antagonize anticoagulant medications.

(a)  

147. Which of the following medications should NOT be given through an IV line of D₅W?

A) Dilantin

B) Solu-Medrol

C) Verapamil

D) Amiodarone

(a)  

148. In hypovolemic shock, lactated Ringer's solution should be:

A) mixed with normal saline solution.

B) titrated to the patient's physiologic response.

C) given until a systolic BP of 110 mm Hg is achieved.

D) avoided if the patient's shock is caused by blood loss.

(a)  

149. The use of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) should NOT be considered for patients with:

A) freshwater drowning.

B) diabetic ketoacidosis.

C) shock due to blood loss.

D) congestive heart failure.

(a)  

150. 0.45% sodium chloride (½ normal saline) should NOT be used when:

A) less than 250 mL of fluid is needed.

B) your patient has renal impairment.

C) rapid fluid rehydration is required.

D) your patient has a diabetic disorder.

(a)