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Physics Exam Revision

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of this component?

a)

battery

b)

cell

c)

open switch

d)

lamp

2.

What is the name of this component?

a)

battery

b)

cell

c)

open switch

d)

lamp

3.

What is the name of this component?

a)

battery

b)

bell

c)

motor

d)

lamp

4.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

motor

d)

lamp

5.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

motor

d)

lamp

6.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

motor

d)

lamp

7.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

battery

d)

wire

8.

What is the name of this component?

a)

closed switch

b)

cell

c)

open switch

d)

wire

9.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

bell

d)

lamp

10.

What is the name of this component?

a)

fuse

b)

cell

c)

wire

d)

bell

11.
Magnetism is generated by moving
a)
protons.
b)
electrons.
c)
neutrons.
d)
elements.
12.
As the distance between two magnets increases (they get farther apart), the force between them:
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the Same
13.
If you cut a magnet in half, what happens to the poles?
a)
One half gets the North Pole, the other half gets the South Pole
b)
Both halves get only a North Pole
c)
Both halves get only a South Pole
d)
Both halves get a North pole and a South Pole
14.
What characteristics do magnetic substances have?
a)
They can give you a "shock" when you touch them
b)
They can push or pull objects without touching them
c)
They are always black and cold to touch
d)
They fall faster than other objects when you drop them
15.
Earth acts like a giant magnet because its center is made up MOSTLY of
a)
granite
b)
limestone
c)
iron
d)
nickel
16.
The two poles on a magnet are
a)
north and east
b)
north and west
c)
south and north
d)
south and west
17.
What kind of magnet can be turned on and off?
a)
refridgerator magnet
b)
electromagnet
c)
magnetite
d)
iron
18.
Where is the strongest attraction force of the magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
19.
Electricity can be used to create a magnet
a)
True
b)
False
20.
You can make an electromagnet stronger by...
a)
increasing the current through the wire
b)
make the iron core bigger
c)
increase the number of loops around the core
d)
All of these
21.

Friction is a

a)

(a) non-contact force

b)

(b) contact force

c)

(c) magnetic force

d)

(d) electrostatic force

22.

Which of the following produces least friction?

a)

(a) Sliding friction

b)

(b) Rolling friction

c)

(c) Composite friction

d)

(d) Static friction

23.

Friction always

a)

(a) opposes the motion

b)

(b) helps the motion

c)

(c) both (a) and (b)

d)

(d) none of these

24.

Friction can be reduced by using

a)

(a) oil

b)

(b) grease

c)

(c) powder

d)

(d) all of these

25.

The shape of an aeroplane is like a

a)

(a) dog

b)

(b) bird

c)

(c) car

d)

(d) all of these

26.

Friction due to fluids is called

a)

(a) force

b)

(b) pressure

c)

(c) friction

d)

(d) drag

27.

Which of the following is not a smooth surface?

a)

(a) Surface of wet soap

b)

(b) Surface of tyres

c)

(c) Glazed tiles

d)

(d) Surface of mirror

28.

A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on

a)

(a) muddy surface

b)

(b) polished marble surface

c)

(c) cemented surface

d)

(d) brick surface

29.

If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will

a)

(a) increase

b)

(b) decrease

c)

(c) disappear altogether

d)

(d) will remain unchanged

30.

Force of friction depends on

a)

(a) roughness of surface

b)

(b) smoothness of surface

c)

(c) inclination of surface

d)

(d) all of these

31.

Fluids are

a)

(a) liquids

b)

(b) gases

c)

(c) both (a) and (b)

d)

(d) none of these

32.

Which of the following is responsible for wearing out of bicycle tyres?

a)

a) Muscular force

b)

(b) Magnetic force

c)

(c) Frictional force

d)

(d) Electrostatic force

33.

It is difficult to walk on an oily floor because

a)

(a) Floor gets spoiled

b)

(b) There is more resistance

c)

(c) Force of friction is high

d)

(d) Force of friction is very less

34.

Sliding friction is _________ than / to rolling friction

a)

(a) smaller

b)

(b) greater

c)

(c) equal

d)

(d) None of the above

35.

Four children were asked to arrange forces due to rolling, static and sliding frictions in an increasing order. Their arrangements are given below. Choose the correct arrangement.

a)

(a) Rolling, Static, Sliding

b)

(b) Static, Rolling, Sliding

c)

(c) Rolling, sliding, static

d)

(d) Sliding, Static, Rolling

36.

A kind of energy that travels in waves that you hear

a)

Sound

b)

Crest

c)

Light

d)

Pitch

37.

Each high point of a sound wave

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

frequency

38.

The number of crests or troughs that pass by over a certain amount of time

a)

Frequency

b)

sound

c)

amplitude

d)

volume

39.

Each low point of a sound wave

a)

crest

b)

frequency

c)

trough

d)

acoustics

40.

Halfway between a crest and a trough

a)

resting point

b)

trough

c)

wavelength

d)

sound

41.

The distance between one crest or trough to the next

a)

volume

b)

acoustics

c)

sound

d)

wavelength

42.

The distance between the resting point and a crest or trough

a)

acoustics

b)

pitch

c)

amplitude

d)

volume

43.

How high or low a sound is

a)

pitch

b)

volume

c)

sound

d)

acoustics

44.

How loud or soft the sound is

a)

pitch

b)

acoustics

c)

wavelength

d)

volume

45.

The study of how sounds travel and how they can be controlled

a)

acoustics

b)

wavelength

c)

pitch

d)

trough

46.

Sound waves travel slowest through a _____

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

47.

Sound waves travel fastest through a ______

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

48.

Sound waves move faster when the medium is

a)

warm

b)

cold

49.

Sound waves move slower when the medium is

a)

warm

b)

cold

50.

What is a tool that makes sounds louder called?

a)

pitch

b)

wavelength

c)

outer ear

d)

amplifier

51.

Models of the solar system with Sun at the center are called _____________________ models.

a)

geocentric

b)

heliocentric

c)

terrestrial

d)

none of the above

52.

Models of the solar system with Earth at the center are called _____________________ models.

a)

geocentric

b)

heliocentric

c)

terrestrial

d)

none of the above

53.

How many known planets are in our solar system?

a)

4

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

54.

What dwarf planet was downgraded from planetary status in 2006?

a)

Mercury

b)

Uranus

c)

Neptune

d)

Pluto

55.

According to the nebular theory, did the planets start forming before or after the Sun ignited?

a)

The planets started forming during the time the Sun ignited.

b)

The planets started forming before the Sun ignited.

c)

The planets started forming after the Sun ignited.

56.

What happens to the amount of the Sun's mass as it "burns"?

a)

The mass of the Sun is constant.

b)

It is converted into kinetic energy of the Sun.

c)

It is converted into radiant energy.

d)

It is converted into gravitational energy.

57.

What is the age of the Sun?

a)

Nearly 5 billion years old.

b)

Nearly 500 million years old.

c)

Nearly 1 billion years old.

d)

Nearly 10 billion years old.

58.

Where is the Sun located when you view a full Moon?

a)

During a full Moon, the Sun, Earth, and the Moon are lined up, with Earth in between.

b)

During a full Moon, the Sun, the Moon, and Earth are lined up, with the Moon in between.

c)

During a full Moon, the Moon, the Sun, and Earth are lined up, with the Sun in between.

d)

During a full Moon, the angle between the Sun, the Moon, and Earth is 90∘.

59.

Why don't eclipses occur monthly, or nearly monthly?

a)

Eclipses occur each time when the Moon is located at the intersection of the Moon's orbital plane and Earth's orbital plane, which is relatively rare event.

b)

Eclipses occur only when the Moon is located at the intersection of the Moon's orbital plane and Earth's orbital plane, and the angle between the Sun, the Moon, and Earth is 90∘, which is relatively rare event.

c)

Eclipses occur only when the Moon is located at the intersection of the Moon's orbital plane and Earth's orbital plane, and the Sun is located on the same line with Earth and the Moon, which is relatively rare event.

d)

None of the above.

60.

Between the orbits of what two planets is the asteroid belt located?

a)

The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Earth and Mars.

b)

The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

c)

The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Saturn and Uranus.

d)

The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

61.

Identify the phase of the moon in picture 2

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Cresent

d)

Waning Gibbous

62.

Because Pluto has not cleared its orbital path of debris, it was reclassified from a planet to a . . .

a)

asteroid.

b)

meteor.

c)

moon.

d)

dwarf planet.

63.

The astronomer _______________________ first proposed that Earth and the other planets orbit the sun.

a)

Copernicus.

b)

Einstein.

c)

Kepler.

d)

Newton.

64.

Identify the phase of the moon in picture 9

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Cresent

d)

Waning Gibbous

65.

The nebular hypothesis explains

a)

why the planets are spherical in shape.

b)

why the solar system is in a flattened disk.

c)

how the sun and planets formed from a cloud of gas and dust.

d)

all of the above.

66.
What is being blocked when a shadow is formed?
a)
Light Source
b)
Light Path
c)
Object
d)
Eye
67.
The three primary colors of light are
a)
Red, Blue, Yellow
b)
Pink, Green, Blue
c)
Violet, Green, Red
d)
Blue, Green, Red
68.
Why does an apple appear red?
a)
All colors are absorbed & none are reflected
b)
All colors are absorbed except for blue, which is reflected
c)
All colors are reflected and none are absorbed
d)
All colors are absorbed except for red, which is reflected
69.
How does light travel
a)
It curves around corners
b)
Really slow
c)
In a straight line
d)
In circles
70.
Which color reflects the least light?
a)
Black
b)
White 
c)
Blue
d)
Red
71.
Sunlight is
a)
not light at all
b)
red light
c)
yellow light
d)
white light
72.
Which of the following is the best reflector of light?
a)
Lens
b)
Microscope
c)
Mirror
d)
Prism
73.
Light enters this part of the eye first.
a)
Retina
b)
Cornea
c)
Lens
d)
Cones
74.
Humans can see colors because of these photo receptor cells in the Retina called 
a)
rods
b)
optic cells
c)
cones
d)
sclera
75.
Objects that reflect ALL colors will appear _____?
a)
Black
b)
White
c)
Gray
d)
Multi-colored
76.
Objects that ABSORB all colors of light will appear _______.
a)
white
b)
black
c)
multi-colored
d)
gray
77.
If you are using a green color filter, what color will you only see?
a)
blue
b)
green
c)
white
d)
red
78.
If you are using a red color filter, blue objects will appear what color?
a)
purple
b)
blue
c)
red
d)
black
79.
Why can we sometimes see only parts of the moon?  
a)
The path of light can only reach half of the moon at a time.
b)
The path of light from Earth to the Sun is blocked.
c)
The moon is partially eaten by giant zombie rodents, but it can regrow.
d)
Our brain just wants to make things up to confuse us.
80.
Which of the following would not reflect light?
a)
Mirror
b)
Water
c)
Glasses
d)
Brick Wall
81.
What is the purpose of a model in science?
a)
To make science look cool.
b)
To explain a phenomena or process.
c)
To make a topic interesting.
d)
To explain vocabulary.
82.
What percentage of colors makes white light?
a)
100% of red, green, and blue
b)
100% of red, blue, and yellow
c)
0% of red, green, and blue
d)
50% of all colors
83.
Which term describes when light bounces off of a smooth surface?  
a)
Refraction
b)
Transmission
c)
Absorption
d)
Reflection
84.
A girl in her bedroom saw her sister break her mother's lamp in the living room.  Explain how this could be possible.
a)
The girl can see through the wall.
b)
The girl can see her sister, because light can bend.
c)
The girl can see her sister because of a reflective surface in the kitchen.
d)
Since there is light in the living room and bedroom, she is able to see.
85.
What two colors make purple?
a)
Red and White
b)
Red and Blue
c)
Red and Green
d)
Red and Black
86.

The figure shows the forces acting on a child who is balancing on a pogo stick.

The child and pogo stick are not moving.

The downward force of the child on the spring is equal to the upward force of the spring on the child.

This is an example of which one of Newton’s Laws of motion? (this is from Mechanics 1 last term)

a)

First law

b)

Second law

c)

Third law

87.

Complete the sentence - The compressed spring stores ..........................................

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

gravitational potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

electrostatic energy

88.

The child has a weight of 343 N.

Gravitational field strength = 9.8 N / kg

Select the equation which links gravitational field strength (g), mass (m) and weight (w).

a)

w = m g

b)

g = m w

c)

m = g w

d)

m = g + w

89.

The child has a weight of 343 N.

Gravitational field strength = 9.8 N / kg

Calculate the mass of the child in kg

a)

35

b)

3360

c)

353

d)

0.0286

e)

60

90.

The weight of the child causes the spring to compress elastically from a length of 30cm to a new length of 23cm.

Select the equation which links compression (e), force (F) and spring constant (k).

a)

F = k e

b)

k = F e

c)

e = F k

d)

e = F + k

91.

The weight of the child is 343N. This weight causes the spring to compress elastically from a length of 30cm to a new length of 23cm.

Calculate the spring constant (k) of the spring.

Give your answer in newtons per metre.

a)

4900

b)

49.0

c)

1140

d)

14.9

92.

Question 2: Toy glider.

When a force is applied to a spring, the spring extends by 0.12 m.

The spring has a spring constant of 25 N / m.


Calculate the force applied to the spring in Newtons.

a)

3.0 N

b)

208 N

c)

0.0048 N

d)

25.1 N

93.

Figure 1 shows a toy glider. To launch the glider into the air, the rubber band and glider are pulled back and then the glider is released.

Complete the sentence:

When the glider is released, the .................................... energy stored in the rubber band decreases.

a)

chemical

b)

elastic potential

c)

kinetic

d)

thermal

94.

Figure 1 shows a toy glider. To launch the glider into the air, the rubber band and glider are pulled back and then the glider is released.

Complete the sentence:

When the glider is released, the glider gains

..................... energy.

a)

chemical

b)

elastic potential

c)

kinetic

d)

thermal

95.

Figure 2 shows how the extension of the rubber band varies with the force applied to the rubber band.

What can you conclude, from Figure 2, would happen to the extension of the rubber band if the force applied to the rubber band was increased to 6 N? The rubber band does not break.

a)

The extension increases to 70 mm

b)

The extension increases to 90 mm

c)

The extension decreases to 30 mm

d)

The extension stays constant

96.

Figure 3 shows the vertical forces, A and B, acting on the glider when it is flying.

What name is given to the force labelled B?

a)

drag

b)

friction

c)

weight

d)

upthrust

97.

Which one of the following describes the downward speed of the glider when force B is greater than force A?

a)

Downward speed increases

b)

Downward speed is constant

c)

Downward speed decreases