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TEAS Review by Nurse Cheung

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following tools would be most appropriate to measure the mass of a human liver?

a)

Balance scale

b)

Meter stick

c)

Spring scale

d)

Barometer

2.

Which of the following reflects the correct steps in the scientific method?

a)

Conduct an experiment, draw a conclusion, form a hypothesis

b)

Form a hypothesis, draw a conclusion, conduct an experiment

c)

Conduct an experiment, analyze the data, draw a conclusion

d)

Identify a problem, analyze the data, form a hypothesis

3.

Scientists conduct an experiment to assess the effect of a certain substance, Substance A, on bacterial cell division. One group is exposed to Substance A at regular intervals over a period of 10 days. A second group of bacteria receives no exposure to Substance A. Which of the following is the dependent variable in this study?

a)

Bacterial cell division

b)

Substance A

c)

The group of bacteria exposed to Substance A

d)

The group of bacteria with no exposure to Substance A

4.

A scientist concluded that decreasing the birth order results in an increasing weight at birth. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between birth order and weight at birth?

a)

Birth order varies directly with weight at birth

b)

Birth order varies indirectly with weight at birth

c)

Birth order is directly correlated with weight at birth

d)

Birth order is positively correlated with weight at birth

5.

Which of the following is the most appropriate unit to measure the length of a standard basketball court?

a)

Yards

b)

Millimeters

c)

Kilometers

d)

Liters

6.

A scientist concluded that increasing the temperature results in an increasing number fo blooms on a given flower. Which of the following correctly identifies one problem with this conclusion?

a)

The scientist is biased because he or she prefers flowers with multiple blooms.

b)

The scientist failed to include a control group in the experiment.

c)

The scientist assumed that the correlation observed does not apply to other types of plants.

d)

The scientist failed to identify a point at which increasingly higher temperatures become a barrier to bloom formation.

7.

Which of the following provides an example of inductive reasoning?

a)

All of the singers in the choir are talented. Elana is in the choir, Therefore, Elana is talented.

b)

All of the gorillas observed in the zoo have brown hair, therefore all gorillas have brown hair.

c)

All surgeons are detail oriented. Jorge is a surgeon, therefore jorge is detail oriented.

d)

All libraries are quiet. The MacArthur Reading Room is a library. Therefore the MacArthur Reading Room is quiet.

8.

A study is conducted to determine the effect of aspirin on heart attack risk. Study participants are divided into 2 groups. Participants in the first group are given a low dose of aspirin daily, while participants in the second group receive no aspirin. Which of the following describes the first group?

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Treatment group

d)

Control group

9.

In a pregnancy study, women in Group 1 were given a low dose of medication X daily. Women in Group 2 did not receive medication X. The pregnancy rate for the medication X users was 60% and the pregnancy rate for the nonusers was 40%. Which of the following is a reasonable hypothesis related to this experiment?

a)

Women in Group 2 have higher pregnancy rates than women in Group 1.

b)

Women in Group 1 have higher pregnancy rates than women in Group 2.

c)

Therapy with medication X reduces labor time.

d)

Therapy with medication X improves pregnancy rates.

10.

The final step in the scientific method is reflected by which of the following?

a)

Formulate a hypothesis

b)

Conduct an experiment

c)

Draw a conclusion

d)

Analyze the evidence

11.

Which of the following macromolecules break down most slowly in the body?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Simple carbohydrates

d)

Complex carbohydrates

12.

Which of the following components males up a protein?

a)

ribosomes

b)

enzymes

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotides

13.

Brown rice belongs primarily to which of the following categories of macromolecule?

a)

lipid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

carbohydrate

d)

protein

14.

WHIch of the following describes a function of an enzyme?

a)

They store energy within a cell

b)

They catalyze chemical reactions

c)

They carry information to the ribosomes

d)

They provide structure in a cell wall

15.

Cholesterol levels can be reduced by dietary intake of which of the following?

a)

simple carbohydrates

b)

saturated fats

c)

trans fats

d)

monounsaturated fats

16.

WHIch of the following is a function of a nucleic acid?

a)

transport

b)

structure

c)

storage

d)

regulation

17.

What type of bond forms macromolecules?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

c)

hydrogen

d)

polar covalent

18.

During digestion, protein breaks down into which of the following?

a)

amino acids

b)

glucose

c)

glycerol

d)

sucrose

19.

Which of the following describes the process of hydrolysis?

a)

addition of H2O to break the bond between molecules in a polymer

b)

the endergonic removal of an H2O molecule

c)

molecules joining by peptide bonds

d)

addition of a carbon atom to form an isotope

20.

Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

a)

glucose

b)

cellulose

c)

sucrose

d)

maltose

21.

A cell reproduces itself through binary fission rather than mitosis or meiosis. What kind of cell is it?

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

gamete

d)

haploid

22.

WHIch organelle work sin concert with the endoplasmic reticulum to produce other organelles?

a)

centriole

b)

lysosome

c)

golgi complex

d)

cytoplasm

23.

What is the function of lysosomes?

a)

protein transport

b)

cellular waste breakdown

c)

cellular respiration

d)

chromosome replication

24.

In what stage of meiosis do spindle fibers disappear?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

25.

At the end of meiosis I, in what state is the original cell?

a)

2 haploid cells

b)

4 haploid cells

c)

2 diploid cells

d)

4 diploid cells

26.

Which of the following is not contained within the cell membrane of a eukaryote cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

flagellum

27.

What is the function of the nucleus?

a)

ribosome production

b)

protein storage

c)

cellular respiration

d)

reproduction

28.

Cells that are not reproducing are in which of the following states?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

29.

The stages of meiosis are interphase, _______, metaphase, _______, and telophase. These are followed by a new interphase.

a)

prophase; anaphase

b)

interphase; prophase

c)

anaphase; cytokinesis

d)

cytokinesis; glycolysis

30.

IN which phase of meiosis does genetic variation take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

metaphase II

d)

telophase II

31.

Which of the following lists the 4 nitrogenous bases found in RNA?

a)

alanine, cysteine, threonine, glycine (A,C,T,G)

b)

guanin, uracil, adenine, cytosine (G,U,A,C)

c)

adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine (A,T,G,C)

d)

cytosine, uracil, guanine, thymine (C,U,G,T)

32.

DNA is composed of which of the following substances?

a)

nucleotides

b)

cells

c)

neurons

d)

proteins

33.

During which of the following processes is tRNA active?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

meiosis

d)

mitosis

34.

Amino acids are building blocks of which of the following?

a)

blood

b)

neurons

c)

proteins

d)

cell walls

35.

DNA uses hydrogen bonds to hold the purines and pyrimidines together. How many hydrogen bonds are there between cytosine and guanine?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

36.

Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases that allow DNA to form into its double helix shape via hydrogen bonding. Which of the following are the complementary base pairs that form DNA?

a)

T-C and A-G

b)

A-C and T-G

c)

G-C and A-T

d)

A-U and G-C

37.

Which of the following is used during the transcription phase of protein synthesis?

a)

snippets

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

mRNA

38.

Which os the following is inherited only from the mother?

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

lysosomal DNA

d)

mitochondrial DNA

39.

DNA and RNA share almost identical nitrogenous bases. Which nitrogenous base is found only in RNA?

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

uracil

d)

cytosine

40.

TAC-GGT-GTA-ACT Gene

?-?-?-? mRNA

During transcription, messenger RNA carries the code from the genes to the ribosomes. To do this, RNA polymerase must add matching RNA nucleotides to the complementary DNA sequence. Looking at the gene sequence above, which of the following reflects the correct mRNA sequence?

a)

ATG-CCA-CAT-TGA

b)

CGU-AAC-ACG-GUG

c)

GUC-AAG-AGU-UCG

d)

AUG-CCA-CAU-UGA

41.

Which of the following indicates the number of protons and neutrons in an atom with an atomic number of 6 and a mass of 14?

a)

6 protons and 6 neutrons

b)

6 protons and 8 neutrons

c)

8 protons and 6 neutrons

d)

12 protons and 14 neutrons

42.

What is the approximate overall mass of an atom with 19 protons and 23 neutrons?

a)

19 AMU

b)

23 AMU

c)

38 AMU

d)

42 AMU

43.

What are the overall charge and mass number of an atom with 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 7 electrons?

a)

Charge -1; mass number 14

b)

Charge -1; mass number 21

c)

Charge +1; mass number 14

d)

Charge +1; mass number 21

44.

The mass and electrical charge of a neutron can best be described by which of the following statements?

a)

A neutron has the same mass as a proton and a negative charge.

b)

A neutron has the same mass as a proton and neutral charge.

c)

A neutron has the same mass as an electron and a neutral charge.

d)

A neutron has the same mass as an electron and a positive change.

45.

Which of the following reflects the overall charge of an atom with 10 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons?

a)

-2

b)

-1

c)

+1

d)

+2

46.

Which of the following indicates the number of protons in an atom with an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 55?

a)

21

b)

23

c)

24

d)

27

47.

An atom has 47 protons, 48 neutrons, and 49 electrons. This atom has an overall charge of __ and an overall mass of approximately __ AMU.

a)

+2; 96

b)

+2; 95

c)

-2; 96

d)

-2; 95

48.

A neutral atom isotope has an atomic number of 16 and a mass number of 34. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons does the atom have?

a)

16 protons, 16 neutrons, and 16 electrons

b)

16 protons, 16 neutrons, and 18 electrons

c)

16 protons, 18 neutrons, 16 electrons

d)

18 protons, 16 neutrons, and 18 electrons

49.

Which of the following elements is most highly reactive?

a)

Argon (Ar)

b)

Neon (Ne)

c)

Radon (Rn)

d)

Fluorine (F)

50.

Which of the following elements is the best heat conductor?

a)

Iron (Fe)

b)

Phosphorus (P)

c)

Sulfur (S)

d)

Selenium (Se)

51.

Tungsten (W) has greater electronegativity than which of the following?

a)

Tin (Sn)

b)

Chromium (Cr)

c)

Hafnium (Hf)

d)

Molybdenum (Mo)

52.

Atoms of which of the following elements have the highest ionization energy?

a)

Potassium (K)

b)

Nickel (Ni)

c)

Calcium (Ca)

d)

Manganese (Mn)

53.

Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius?

a)

Rubidium (Rb)

b)

Radium (Ra)

c)

Strontium (Sr)

d)

Barium (Ba)

54.

Which of the following indicate the number of electrons in a neutral atom of zinc (Zn)?

a)

16

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

55.

Which of the following atoms has a larger atomic radius than copper (Cu)?

a)

Zinc (Zn)

b)

Gold (Au)

c)

Arsenic (As)

d)

Bromine (Br)

56.

The greatest number of protons is found in an atom of which of the following elements?

a)

Chromium (Cr)

b)

Cobalt (Co)

c)

Lithium (Li)

d)

Carbon (C)

57.

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between mercury (Hg) and lead (Pb)?

a)

Mercury atoms have fewer protons and a larger atomic radius than lead atoms.

b)

Mercury atoms have more protons and a smaller atomic radius than lead atoms.

c)

Mercury atoms have fewer protons and a higher ionization energy than lead atoms.

d)

Mercury atoms have a smaller atomic radius and a higher ionization energy than lead atoms.

58.

Which of the following lists elements ordered in terms of lowest to highest electronegativity?

a)

Iron (Fe), cobalt (Co), rhodium (Rh)

b)

Nickel (Ni), palladium (Pd), platinum (Pt)

c)

Titanium (Ti), vanadium (V), manganese (Mn)

d)

Zinc (Zn), copper (Cu), nickel (Ni)

59.

A solution with a pH of 13 is considered to be which of the following?

a)

weak acid

b)

strong acid

c)

weak base

d)

strong base

60.

A hydrocarbon with one triple bond is called an ________. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?

a)

Alkyne

b)

Alkane

c)

Alkene

d)

Anion

61.

Which of the following is the chemical formula for pentane?

a)

C6H12

b)

C8H12

c)

C5H12

d)

C7H12

62.

Which of the following describes the phase change of sublimation?

a)

solid to liquid

b)

liquid to gas

c)

solid to gas

d)

liquid to solid

63.

A solid item (X) with the density of 0.917 g/cm3 is placed in a beaker containing an aqueous substance (Y) with the density of 1.0000 g/cm3. Which of the following things do you expect to happen?

a)

X will float on surface

b)

X will sink halfway down the beaker

c)

X will sink to the bottom of the beaker

d)

X and Y have such density that X will move around freely within Y

64.

A molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a ______. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?

a)

Solvent

b)

Solution

c)

Substrate

d)

Sievert

65.

Which of the following represents an example of ionic bonding?

a)

The bonding of nonmetal atoms

b)

The sharing of electrons

c)

The transfer of electrons

d)

The bonding of metal atoms

66.

Which of the following hydrocarbons contain double bonds?

a)

C2H8

b)

C6H8

c)

C8H6

d)

C12H24

67.

Which of the following is a function of enzymes?

a)

Stop a reaction

b)

Speed up the reaction rate

c)

Slow down the reaction rate

d)

Reduce the number of reactions

68.

Liquids have the capability of lowing. Which of the following statements below explains this phenomenon?

a)

The spacing of the particles is close together

b)

The spacing of the particles is far apart

c)

The particles can glide over one another

d)

The particles are attracted to one another

69.

Which of the following is a correct example of a part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

cranium

b)

rib cage

c)

legs

d)

spinal cord

70.

_____ are chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands. Which of the following best completes the sentence above?

a)

hormones

b)

sperm cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

antigens

71.

Which of the following is not a body part involved in the respiratory system?

a)

trachea

b)

lungs

c)

bronchial tree

d)

ovaries

72.

Which of the following is a function performed by the kidneys?

a)

remove metabolic waste

b)

pump blood

c)

produce sperm

d)

secrete sweat

73.

If a female egg is not fertilized, what happens to the egg during menstrual cycle?

a)

it remains in the uterus.

b)

it is discharged during menstruation

c)

it fuses together with sperm

d)

it travels back to the ovaries

74.

If you are viewing the posterior of a skeleton, you are seeing which side of it?

a)

the front

b)

the back

c)

the side

d)

the top

75.

What is a possible situation in which an autoimmune disease could develop?

a)

The immune system attacks the body's own cells.

b)

A person has a cold of flu.

c)

Antibodies develop against a pathogen.

d)

The spleen functions normally.

76.

The plane divides the body into right and left parts. Which of the following best completes the sentence above?

a)

axial

b)

appendicular

c)

frontal

d)

sagittal

77.

Which is the main function of the nervous system?

a)

It regulates the body's movement.

b)

It maintains homeostasis in the body.

c)

It breaks down the food we eat through digestion.

d)

It coordinates the body's responses to different stimuli.

78.

The right atrium in the heart receives what kind of blood?

a)

Oxygen-rich blood from eh left ventricle.

b)

Oxygen-poor blood from the tissues.

c)

Oxygen-rich blood from the right ventricle.

d)

Oxygen-poor blood from the left atrium.

79.

Which of the following reflects the genetic makeup of an organism?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

protein

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

80.

Diploid organisms contain alleles that code for a specific gene. Which of the following terms describes two identical alleles at the same locus?

a)

heterozygous

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

dominant

81.

A homozygous individual (RR) procreates with an individual who is heterozygous for a recessive trait (Rr). Which of the following is the correct percentage of offspring who will be carriers of the recessive trait?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

82.

A specific disease is carried on allele (s), which his recessive to the general condition of (S). If a heterozygous male (Ss) procreates with a female who is also heterozygous for the recessive trait (Ss), which of the following is the correct percentage of offspring who will have the disease?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

83.

When two F1 generation flowers with the genotype AaBb are crossed, the F2 offspring are found to have which of the following phenotype ratios?

a)

3:1

b)

6:1:3:1

c)

6:3:3:1

d)

9:3:3:1

84.

Which of the following reflects the outward observable expression of an organism's genetic makeup?

a)

phenotype

b)

allele

c)

genotype

d)

codon

85.

Which of the following terms describes two different alleles in the same locus?

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

c)

recessive

d)

dominant

86.

A homozygous individual (NN) procreates with an individual who is heterozygous for a recessive trait (Nn). Which of the following is the correct percentage of offspring who will express the recessive trait?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

87.

A specific disease is carried on allele (X), which is dominant to the normal condition of (x). If a heterozygous male (Xx) procreates with a female who is normal homozygous (xx), which of the following is the correct percentage of offspring who will have the disease?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

88.

An individual's genome is composed of which of the following?

a)

only sex chromosomes

b)

only mitochondrial DNA

c)

all of the DNA

d)

all of the RNA polymerase

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