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AP Bio Study: CFU Review #3 & Unit 1-4 Reviews

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 3hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The figure shows a model of the exchange of matter between the organisms that live together in an aquarium. The model includes matter exchange between plants, fish, and bacteria. The bacteria are represented as rod-shaped organisms living in the gravel at the bottom of the aquarium.

Which of the following statements best describes how molecules released by the fish become nutrients for the plants?

a)

The ammonia molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to nitrates, which are used by the plants to make proteins and nucleic acids.

b)

The nitrites released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to carbon dioxide molecules, which are used by the plants to make carbs

c)

The oxygen molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to ammonia molecules, which are used by the plants to make lipids and fatty acids.

d)

The carbon dioxide molecules released by the fish are converted by the bacteria to oxygen atoms, which are used by the plants to make water molecules

2.

Researchers claimed that a particular organelle originated from a free-living prokaryotic cell that was engulfed by a larger cell, as shown in Figure 1. Figure 1. A model showing a cell engulfing a smaller cell. Which of the following provides evidence to best support the researchers' claim?

a)

The organelle has a double membrane

b)

The organelle has protein in the membrane

c)

The organelle has a phospholipid membrane.

d)

The organelle has an internal aqueous environment that is similar to the cytosol of the larger cell.

3.

Cells contain smaller components called organelles that are necessary for a cell's survival. Organelle functions have often been compared to components of larger systems.Which of the following functional differences between the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is explained by the structural differences between them?

a)

Rough ER can produce ATP and smooth ER cannot.

b)

Rough ER can synthesize and package PROTEINS for export, and smooth ER cannot.

c)

Rough ER can synthesize and packaage lipids for export, and smooth ER cannot.

d)

Rough ER breaks down toxic substances, and smooth ER only transports them out of the cell.

4.

The figure illustrates a eukaryotic cell. Which of the following best describes how the three structures indicated work together

a)

To synthesize and isolate proteins for secretion or for use in the cell

b)

To synthesize all ribosomal proteins

c)

To catabolize nutrients and produce ATP for intracellular energy storage

d)

To synthesize lipids and modify toxic substances in order to render them harmless

5.

Membrane-bound organelles have been an important component in the evolution of complex, multicellular ogansisms. Which of the following best summarizes an advantage of eukaryotic cells having internal membranes?

a)

Organelles isolate specific reactions, increasing metabolic effciency.

b)

Eukaryotic cells are able to reproduce faster because of the presence of organelles.

c)

Some organelles, such as mitochondria and chloroplasts, are similar to prokaryotic cells in structure.

d)

Compartmentalization leads to a higher mutation rate in DNA, which leads to more new species.

6.

Simple cuboial epithelial cells line the ducts of certain human exocrine glands. Various materials are transported into or out of the cells by diffusion. (The formular for the surface area of a cube is 6 X S2, and the formula for the volume of a cube is S3, where S= the length of a side of the cube.)

a)

10 um

b)

20 um

c)

30 um

d)

40 um

7.

A cell is treated with a drug that prevents the formation of new lysosomes. The cell continues to translate the mRNAs for those proteins on membrane-bound ribosomes. The hydrolytic enzymes are most likely to accumulate in which of the following cellular structures?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Smooth ER

8.

A sample of human blood was placed in a test tube containing a physiological saline solution (0.9% sodium chloride). This type of solution is often used intravenously to quickly rehydrate patients. A drop of the blood from the test tube was placed on a slide and red blood cells (RBCs) were observed under a mucroscope. Three possible outcomes are diagrammed below. Which of the following best predicts which diagrammed microscope view the laboratory worker would see and best explains why?

a)

View 1 because RBC membranes are freely permable to water

b)

View 2 because the RBC's use energy to allow sodium entry and to pump water out

c)

View 3 because the sodium-potassium pumps in the RBC membrane use energy to keep the sodium out but allow water to freely flow into the cells

d)

View 2 because the rate of water movement into the RBCs equals the rate of water movements out of the cells

9.

Water is constantly diffusing into the cytosol of freshwater single-celled organisms. In order to maintain the proper solute concentrations in the cytosol, contractile vacuoles pump out the excess water. An experimenter placed single-celled organisms into various saline concentrations and recorded the ATP used by the contractile vacuole. The data are shown in the graph. Of the following, which additional investigation can be used to determine when the cells are in an isotonic solution? I

a)

Increasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until the ATP usage reaches a minimum

b)

Decreasing the alinity of the environement a little at a time until the ATP usage reaches a maximum

c)

Increasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until ATP usage reaches a maximum

d)

Decreasing the salinity of the environment a little at a time until ATP usage reaches a minimum

10.

If ATP breakdown (hydrolysis) is inhibited, which of the following types of movement across cell membrane is also inhibited?

a)

Movement of water through aquaporins

b)

Faciliated diffusion of a permeable substance

c)

Passage of a solute against its concentration gradient

d)

Movement of oxygen into a cell

11.

Choose the graph that best depicts the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction from low substrate concentation to saturating substrate concentation.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

12.

Which feature of model 1 best illlustrates how biological information is coded in a DNA molecule?

a)

The linear sequence of the base pairs

b)

The connecting sugars and phosphate groups that represent covalent bonds

c)

The labeling of the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs

d)

The 5' and 3' labels at the end of each strand

13.

Figure 1 represents a segment of DNA. Radiation can damage the nucleotides in a DNA molecule. To repair some types of damage, a single nucleotide can be removed from a DNA molecule and replaced with an undamaged nucleotide. Which of the four labeled bonds in Figure 1 could be broken to remove and replace the cytosine nucleotide without affecting the biological information coded in the DNA molecule?

a)

Bond W only

b)

Bond W and Z at the same time

c)

Bond X only

d)

Bond Y and Z at the same time

14.

A student wants to modify model 1 so that it represents an RNA double helix instead of a DNA double helix. Of the following possible changes, which would be most effective in making model 1 look more like RNA than DNA?

a)

Changing the shapes of the nitrogenous bases to match those shown in model 2

b)

Changing the sugar-phosphate backbone to a ribbon, as shown in model 3

c)

Changing the deoxyriboses to riboses by adding -OH groups

d)

Changing the sequence of the base pairs

15.

Different polysaccharides are used by plants for energy storage and structural support. The molecular structures for two common polysaccharides are shown in Figure 1. Starch is used by plants for energy storage, and cellulose provides structural support for cell walls. The monomer used to construct both molecules is glucose. Mammals do not produce digestive enzyme B. However, sheep and cattle are two types of mammals that contain microorganisms in their digestive tract that produce enzyme B. Based on Figure 1, which of the following best compares the atomic structures of starch and cellulose?

a)

Starch and cellulose are composed of identical monomers and therfore have identical structures.

b)

Starch and cellulose are composed of repeating glucose monomers; however, in cellulose every other glucose monomer is rotated 180 degrees.

c)

Starch is composed of monomers that each have a CH2OH group, whil cellulose only has a CH2OH group on every other monomer.

d)

Starch is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, while cellulose also contains nitrogen.

16.

Which of the following statements best describes why starch and cellulose provide different functions in plants?

a)

The differences in the assembly and organization of the monomers of these two polymers result in different chemical properties

b)

The monomers of cellulose are connected by covalent bonds, making it ideal for structural support

c)

Since strach and cellulose are composed of identical monomers, the cellular environments where they are located controls their function

d)

The monomers of starch are connected by ionic bonds, making it ideal for energy storage for plants.

17.

Which of the following best describes the process that adds a monosaccharide to an existing polysaccharides?

a)

The monosaccharides is completely broken down by a specific enzyme and then the atoms are reorganized

and made into a polysaccharide

b)

A specific enzyme removes the hydrogen from the monosaccharide and the hydroxide from the polysaccharide, creating a water molecule

c)

A specific enzyme removes two hydroxide, one from the monosaccharide, and one from the polysaccharide, creating a bond between the two monosaccharides and creating a hydrogen peroxide molecule.

d)

Ionic bonds are formed between adjacent carbon atoms of the monosaccharides and the polysaccharides by adding water and a specific enzyme.

18.

Which of the following would most likely occur if cattle lost the ability to maintain a colony of microorganisms in their digestive tract?

a)

Cattle would no longer be able to use cellulose as a primary source of glucose

b)

Cattle would have to convert cellulose to starch before digesting it

c)

Cattle would no longer be able to synthesize callulose

d)

Cattle would have to start producting enzyme B w/o the help of the bacteria

19.

As shown in the diagram, when environmental temperatures drop below freezing, a layer of ice typically forms on the surface of bodies of freshwater such as lakes and rivers. Which of the following best describes how the structures of ice benefits the organisms that live in the water below?

a)

The water molecules in ice are closer together than those in liquid water, so the ice prevents the passage of air to the water.

b)

The water molecules in ice are farther apart than those in liquid water, so the ice floats, maintaining the warmer, denser water at the lake bottom.

c)

The water molecules in ice are farther apart than those in liquid water, so the ice floats, preventing the escape of gases from the liquid water.

d)

The water molecules in ice are closer together than those in liquid water, so the ice forms a barrier that protects the organisms in the water from the freezing air temperatures

20.

Water molecules are polar covalent molecules. There is a partial negative charge near the oxygen atom and partial postive charges near the hydrogen atoms due to the uneven distribution of electrons between the atoms, which results in the formation of hydrogen bonds between water molecules. The polarity of water molecules contributes to many properties of water that are important for biological processes. Which of the following models best demonstrates the arrangment of hydrogen bonds between adjacent water molecules?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.
a)

Evaporation from the leaf decreases the hydrogen bonds that form between the water molecules in the xylem, which helps the water molecules to be pulled up the xylem

b)

Evaporation of water from the leaf increases the hydrogen bonds that form between water molecules in the air, providing the energy for transport

c)

As water exits the leaf, signals are sent to the roots to pump more water to the leaves through the zylem by adhesion

d)

As water exits the leaf, hydrogen bonding between water molecules pulls more water up from below

22.
a)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in a greater increase in plant growth under ideal conditons than under stressed conditions.

b)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in a greater increase in plant growth under stressed conditons than under ideal conditions.

c)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 had no observable effect on plant growth under either ideal or stressed conditions.

d)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in an inhibition of plant growth under both ideal and stressed conditions.

23.
a)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and carbohydrates, limiting growth.

b)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required nucleic acids and lipids, limiting growth.

c)

The phosphorus-starbed plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and lipids, limiting growth.

d)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required carbohydrates and nucleic acids, limiting growth.

24.
a)

The ability to form a covalent bond with both its NH2 group and its COOH group

b)

An R-group that is compatible with the R-group of the last amino acid incorporated

c)

A central carbon atom that reacts with a nitrogen atom to form the peptide bond

d)

The ability to remain stable in the presence of water molecules

25.
a)

Two identical monomers are joined by a covalent bond.

b)

Monomers are joined by ionic bonds, and a water molecule is produced

c)

Two different monomers are joined by a covalent bond

d)

Monomers are joined by a covalent bond, and a water molecule is produced

26.
a)

Some amino acids are hydrophobic

b)

Some amino acids contain the element phosphorus

c)

Only some amino acids have a carboxyl group (COOH)

d)

Only some amino acids have an R-group

27.
a)

Since the new amino acid is bounded on one side by an amino acid with a negatively charged R-group and by an amino acid on the other side with a positevly charged R-group, the charges will balance and the protein will fold as usual

b)

Since this is a linear section, it does not influence protein folding. Thus there will be no change in protein structure or function.

c)

The R-group of the new amino acid, valine has different chemical properties than the R-group of cysteine. This will cause the protein to misfold and not function properly in the cell

d)

The new amino acid, valine, has replaced cysteine in the new protein. Since the number of amino acids has remained the same there will be no change in the three-dimensional folding, or function of the protein.

28.
a)

It is RNA because of the number of different nucleotides found in the molecule.

b)

It is DNA because of the nucleotides present

c)

It is RNA because of the relative direction of the two strands

d)

It is DNA because of the nature of the hydrogen between guanine and cytosine

29.
a)

Both molecules are composed of the same four nucleotides, which allows each molecule to be produced from the same pool of avaliable nucleotides

b)

Both molecules contain nitrogenous bases and phosphate groups, which allows each molecule to be used as a monomer in the synthesis of proteins and lipids

c)

Both molecules contain nucleotides that form base pairs with other nucleotides, which allows each molecule to act as a template in the synthesis of other nucleic acid molecules

d)

Both molecules are composed of the same type of five-carbon sugar, which allows each molecule to act as a building block for the production of polysaccharides

30.
a)

The synthesis of polysaccharides for energy storage

b)

The production and secretion of proteins

c)

The destruction of toxic materials produced in other cells of the organism

d)

The production and secretion of steroids

31.
a)

The cell is unable to synthesize most proteins required for normal cell functions

b)

The cell is unable to complete reactions related to electron transport and ATP production

c)

The cell is unable to break down toxic materials and would accumulate large volumes of these materials.

d)

The cell is able to syntheize proteins, but the proteins would not contain the correct molecular tags for export from the cell.

32.
a)

The chloroplast, since all organisms need a source of energy

b)

The ribosome, since all organisms need to synthesize proteins

c)

The mitochondrion, since all organisms need to break down glucose

d)

The cell wall, since all marine organisms need them for support

33.
a)

It was mostly incorporated into proteins that regulate and manage metabolic reactions

b)

It was mostly incorporated into carbohydrates that form protective structures outside the cells

c)

It was mostly incorporated into lipids that help seperate cells from their surrounding environment

d)

It was mostly incorporated into nucleic acids that store the biological information.

34.
a)

The valinomycin treatment caused a decrease in the activity of the lysosome

b)

The valinomycin treatment caused a decrease in the activity of the mitochondria

c)

The valinomycin treatment caused an increase

d)

The valinomycin treatment caused an increase

35.
a)

It increases the amount of space avaliable of space avaliable for storing cellular wastes, which results in faster cell growth.

b)

It increases the efficiency of photosynthesis, which results in faster cell growth.

c)

It increases the surface area avaliable for ATP production, which results in faster cell growth

d)

It increases the rate of protein transport to the plasma membrane, which results in faster cell growth

36.
a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

37.
a)

The ratio is 1.12, and the cells are less effective at transferring oxygen

b)

The ratio is 0.45, and the cells are more effective at transferring oxygen

c)

The ratio is 141, and the cells are more effecient at transferring oxygen

d)

The ratio is 0.89, and the cells are less effecient at transferring oxygen

38.
a)

The ratio increases from 0.63 to 0.86, because more stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations.

b)

The ratio increases from 1.2 to 1.6, because more stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations

c)

The ratio decreases from 0.86 to 0.63, because fewer stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentations

d)

The ration decreases from 1.6 to 1.2 , beacuse fewer stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentations

39.
a)

3 because testosterone dissolves in water and flows through the channel.

b)

2, beacuse testosterone covalently binds to a surface protein and transports into the cell

c)

1, because testosterone is nonpolar and can diffuse through the membrane

d)

4, because testosterone is filtered out of the extracellular fluid and taken into the cell by endocytosis

40.
a)

Region 1 is hydrophilic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane

b)

Region 1 is hydrophobic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane, whereas regiion 2 is hydrophilic because it interacts with an aqueous environment

c)

Region 1 is hydrophilic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane, whereas region 2 is hydrophobic because it interacts with an aqueous environment

d)

Region 1 is hydrophobic because it interacts with an aqueous environment, whereas region 2 is hydrophillic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane

41.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.
a)

Repeat the process using red blood cells from other animals

b)

Repeat the process with other salt concentrations

c)

Develop a model to explain why the cells react differently to different salt concentrations

d)

Develop an experimental procedure that uses a stain that makes the organelles of red blood cells more visable

43.
a)

Use two additional treatments, one containing only ethyl alcohol and one containing only acetate. Compare the graphs of these two treatments with the original graph.

b)

Repeat the original experiment, but at three different temperatures. Compare the transport rates among the three temperatures.

c)

Repeat the original experiment, but add a substance known to block movement of molecules across aquaporins. Compare the rates on the two graphs

d)

Use two additonal treatments, one containing only ethyl alcohol and one containing only acetate. Including a substance known to block ATP use by the plasma membrane. Compare the graphs of these two treatments to the original graph

44.
a)

Incubate the cells in the presence of the protein for several different lengths of time

b)

Incubate the cells in the absence of the protein

c)

Incubate the cells in the presence of several different proteins

d)

Incubate the cells in the presence of several different concentrations of the protein

45.
a)

The lysosomal enzymes will become active, since passive diffusion will move H+ ions into the lysosome

b)

The lysosomal enzymes will become active, since faciliated diffusion will move H+ ions into the lysosome

c)

The lysosomal enzymes will not become active, since H+ ions will diffuse out of the lysosome

d)

The lysosomal enzymes will not become active, since there will be no active transport of H+ ions

46.
a)

The movement of water molecules through aquaporins

b)

The diffusion of oxygen molecules across the plasma membrane

c)

The facilitated diffusion of Ca2+ ions into the cell

d)

The transport of glucose molecules against a concentration gradient

47.
a)

The Na+ concentration inside the cell will increase

b)

The K+ concentration inside the cell will increase

c)

The K+ concentration outside the cell will decrease

d)

The Na+ concentration outside the cell will increase

48.
a)

Actual cell membranes have a variety of proteins embedded in the membrane that are absent in the artifical membrane

b)

Hydrophillic substances spend more time attached to the polar region of the phospholipids in the artificial membrane than they do attached to the polar region of the phospholipids in the actual membrane

c)

Actual cell membranes have a much thicker phospholipid bilayer than the artifical membrane does

d)

Hydrophobic substances spend more time between the two layers of phospholipids in the artifical membrane than they do between the layers in an actual membrane

49.

A magnesium sulfate solution taken orally can cause a net movement of water into the large intestine, which results from water molecules diffusing through aquaporins embedded in the cells of the intestinal lining. By which of the following mechanisms do the water molecules most likely move into the large intestine?

a)

By active transport from an area of high osmolarity to an area of low osmolarity

b)

By active transport from an area of low osmolarity to an area of high osmolarity

c)

By passive transport from an area of low osmolarity to an area of high osmolarity

d)

By passive transport from an area of high osmolarity to an area of low osmolarity

50.
a)

By simple diffusion

b)

By endocytosis

c)

By faciliated diffusion

d)

By active transport

51.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.
a)

Hydrolytic enzymes will be released, which will cause cell death

b)

Enzymes will be released that will specifically target the virus

c)

Cellular osmotic concentration will change, preventing viral entry into the cell

d)

Intracellular digestion of organic materials will increase, which will increase the energy available to the cell for fighting the virus

53.
a)

The nucleus

b)

The mitochondrion

c)

The lysosome

d)

The smooth ER

54.
a)

Eukaryotes evolved after prokaryotes and have more complex structures

b)

Chloroplasts and some prokaryotes share similar photosynthetic reactions

c)

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms both acquire nutrients form the surrounding environment

d)

Chloroplasts are seperated from other subcellular compartments by semipermable membranes

55.
a)

Mitochondria contain proteins

b)

Mitochondria exchange substances with the cytosol

c)

Mitochondria are surrounded by a double membrane

d)

Mitochondria produce ATP

56.
a)

It originated from the incorporation of a photosynthetic prokaryote into a eukaryotic cell by a single endosymbiotic event

b)

It originated from the fusion of the plasma membranes of two different free-living photosynthetic prokaryotes

c)

It originated from the incorporation of a photosynthetic prokaryote into an eukaryotic cell by two endosymbiotic events

d)

It originated from the spontaneous assembly of organic molecules into a lipid bilayer inside a free-living prokaryote

57.
a)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution with cellulase, the solution turns dark red

b)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution with cellulase, the solution remains clear

c)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution, it turns dark red with or w/o cellulase present

d)

Since plant cells contain cell membranes, not cell walls, the alternate hypothesis cannot be tested

58.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.
a)

Ethanol is found in the cytosol of cells when they are briefly exposed to a ten percent ethanol solution

b)

CO2 and N2 movement in and out of cells in unaffected when membrane protein activity is blocked

c)

Sodium ions cannot move across the cell membrane when membrane protein activity is blocked

d)

Cells become oxygen deficient when membrane protein activity is blocked

60.
a)

Repeating the experiment using twice the amount of hydrogen peroxide

b)

Repeaing the experiment using heat-denatured peroxidase

c)

Repeating the experiment at 25 C

d)

Repeating the experiment using twice the amount of peroxidase

61.
a)

Peroxidase activity will stay the same

b)

Peroxidase activity will increase

c)

Peroxidase activity will increase at first and then decrease

d)

Peroxidase activity will decrease

62.
a)

The experiment can be repeated w/o water, which will reveal whether the reaction can occur inside a living cell

b)

The experiment can be repeated w/o hydrogen peroxide, which will help eliminate an uncontrolled variable

c)

The experiment can be repeated w/o peroxidase, which will introduce a second independent variable

d)

The experiment can be repeated w/o guaiacol, which will reveal the effect of guaiacol on the reaction rates

63.
a)

It changes the amino acid sequence of the ALAD protein so that the enzyme catalyzes a different reaction

b)

It changes the enzyme-substrate complex so that the transition state is more stable and the reaction proceeds at faster rate

c)

It changes the shape and charge of the substrate so that it becomes more compatible with ALAD's active site

d)

It changes the three-dimesional structure of the active site so that ALAD is no longer compatible with its substrate

64.
a)

AChE begins converting product into substrate as the acetylcholine concentration changes from low to high

b)

The AChE protein becomes denatured as the acetylcholine concentration changes from low to high

c)

The substrate specificity of AChE changes as the acetylchline concentation changes from low to high

d)

The active site of AChE is specific for acetylcholine, and only one substate molecule can occupy the active site at a time

65.
a)

A hydrophobic molecule interact with polar side chains in the enzyme's active site

b)

A molecule with postive charges interacts with positively charged side chains in the enzyme's active site

c)

A molecule with negative charges interacts with postively charged side chains in the enzyme's active site

d)

A hydrophilic molecule interacts with nonpolar side chains in the enzyme's active site

66.
a)

pH 4 buffer solution and hydrogen peroxide only

b)

All five pH buffer solutions combined and hydrogen peroxide only

c)

Water and yeast only

d)

Water, hydrogen peroxide, and yeast

67.
a)

Test tubes: 2, 4, 6, 8

b)

Test tubes: 1,3, 5, 7

c)

Test tubes: 1 and 2 only

d)

Test tubes: 5 and 6 only

68.
a)

It will show the changes that occur in the roots of seedlings following an infection by soil bacteria.

b)

It will show whether the changes observed in group 1 depend on the metabolic activity of soil bacteria.

c)

It will show the average growth rate of seedlings that are maintained in a nonsterile environment

d)

It will show whether the changes observed in group 1 depend on thetype of plants used in the experiment

69.
a)

It will act as a control for test tube 4 by showing the effect of the presence or absence of the substrate

b)

It will act as a control for test tube 4 by showing the effect of a chnage in environemental temperature

c)

It will act as a control for test tube 6 by showing the effect of the presence or absence of the enzyme

d)

It will act as a control for test tube 6 by showing the effect of a change in sodium chloride concentration

70.
a)

Function will be unaffected by the addition and removal of the urea

b)

Function will be disrupted by adding the urea, but it will not be regained by removing the urea

c)

Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea

d)

Function will be gained by adding the urea and disrupted by removing the urea

71.
a)

The amount of product will decrease until the reaction rate goes to zero

b)

The amount of product will increase w/o stopping because the enzyme will be uncharged by the reaction

c)

The amount of product will increase until the reaction reaches its equilibrium point or until the substrate is used up by the reaction

d)

The amount of product will decrease until the reactionreaches its equilibrium point or until the enzyme has been used up by the reaction

72.
a)

The energy requirements for hatching European flycatchers and caterpillars are proportional to each other

b)

Female European flycatchers require energy to lay eggs, so they lay their eggs when the caterpillar biomass is maximal

c)

European flycatchers hatchlings begin to need energy to leave the nest only after the caterpillars have turned into pupae

d)

Young European flycatchers hatch from eggs when caterpillar biomass is avaiable for the young birds to consume and convert into energy for growth

73.
a)

Organisms contain enzymes that lower the activation energies of specific chemical reactions

b)

Photosynthetic organisms use the organic molecules produced during photosynthesis for growth and repair

c)

The total system that includes photosynthetic organisms and the Sun becomes less ordered over time

d)

An ecosystem is formed by the ineraction of a community of organisms with their surrounding environment

74.
a)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue increases the production of ATP and causes more body heat to be produced to warm the animal

b)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue reduces the proton gradient across the membrane and thus produces heat to warm the animal w/o ATP production

c)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue reduces the production of ATP and creates an increase in the proton gradient that allows more heat energy to be produced to warm the animal

d)

The uncouploing protein in this tissues causes an increase in the proton gradient, which causes more ATP to be produced that helps to warm the animal

75.
a)

Evidence that some of the earliest eukaryotes used oxygen to produce ATP by cellular repsiration

b)

Evidence that some of the earliest organisms carried out photosynthesis w/o producing oxygen

c)

Evidence that the cyanbacteria produced oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis

d)

Evidence that the earliest plants produced oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis

76.
a)

Some enzymes embedded in the thylakoid membrane catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP

b)

Carbon fixation in the Calvin-Benson cycle takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts

c)

The thylakoid membrane is more permable to carbon dioxide than to polar molecules

d)

ATP synthase activity depends on a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane

77.
a)

The additonal pigment allows the cyanobacteria to store light energy so that it can be used at night to continue photosyntheiss

b)

The additional pigments require energy and cellular resources to produce, so they can be used as an energy source during times of insuffiecient light

c)

The additonal pigments absorb light at wavelengths that green algae cannot absorb; this may allow cyanobacteria to capture more light energy for phototsynthesis than green algae can in cetain areas

d)

The additonal pigments block light and prevent it from reaching photosynthetic organisms at greater depths, so no photosynthetic organisms can live below the surface waters containing cyanobacteria

78.
a)

Yeast cells produce catalase, which is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas

b)

Yeast cells produce DNA polymerases, which are enzymes that catalyze the conversion of free nucleotides into strands of DNA

c)

Yeast cells produce invertase, which is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of the disaccharide sucrose into glucose and fructose

d)

Yeast cells produce protein kinases, which are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups from ATP to protein substrates

79.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

80.
a)

The proteins bind to molecules secreted by cells located in other parts of the body

b)

The proteins recieve electrical signals from nerve cells

c)

The proteins interact directly w/ proteins on the surfaces of other cells

d)

The proteins leave the cell and travel in the bloodstream to other cells

81.
a)

Small, water-soluable molecules

b)

Membrane-bound organelles

c)

Branced polysaccharides

d)

Condensed, duplicated chromosomes

82.
a)

More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, decreasing production of erythocytes

b)

Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneyys, increasing production of erythocytes

c)

Less erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneyes, decreasing production of erythocytes

d)

More erythropoietin will be secreted from the kidneys, increasing production of erythrocytes

83.
a)

They increase the surface area avaliable for attachment of ribosomes and thus increase protein synthesis

b)

They eliminate the need to produce signaling molecules and eliminate the need for cells to have receptors for signaling molecules

c)

They prevent the cell membrane from pulling away from the cell wall fruing periods of drought

d)

They allow the movement of molecules from one cell to another, enabling communication between cells

84.
a)

The hormone interacts w/ the nerves at the base of the brain and directs signals to the target cells through the nervous system

b)

The hormone is released into the bloodstream where it can be transported to all cells w/ the correct receptors

c)

The hormone diffuses into target cells adjacent to the anterior pituitary gland, where the hormone is degraded

d)

The hormone moves through cytoplasmic connections between cells until it has reached all cells w/ the correct intracellular binding sites

85.
a)

cAMP modifies a specific monomer so that it can be added to an elongating structural macromolecule

b)

cAMP results in the activation of an enzyme that amplifies the signal by acting on many substrate molecules

c)

cAMP carries the signal to the nucleus of the cell and results in new sequences of nucleotides being added to the cellś DNA

d)

cAMP binds the extracellular signal molecule and carries it to the intracellular target specified by the signal

86.
a)

It is a competitive inhibitor that binds to glucose and prevents it from entering the cell

b)

It is an allosteric regulator that binds to a crucial section of the DNA that makes the enzymes needed for glucose uptake

c)

It is a secondary messenger that amplifies a signal through a cascade reaction

d)

It is a ligand that activates the signal transduction pathway of the activation of AMPK

87.
a)

Specific proteins are synthesized

b)

A ligand binds to a receptor

c)

A second messenger molecule is produced

d)

Specific genes are activated

88.
a)

Cell signaling depends on the signal being able to diffuse through the cell membrane. Epinephrine is incapable of diffusing through some plasma membranes because of the membrane's phospholipid compositon

b)

Cell signaling depends on the transduction of a received signal by the nervous system. Not all cells are close enough to a synapse to recieve the signal and respond

c)

Cell signaling requires reception, transduction, and response. All cells can recieve epinephrine, all cells respond with a pathway, but only select cells have the proper coding in their DNA to respond

d)

Cell signaling depends on the ability to detect a signal molecule. Not all cells have receptors for epineprine. Only cells w/ such receptors are capable of responding

89.
a)

An experiment showed that the ced-9 gene normally produces a protein that promotes excessive cell death in C. elegans

b)

Apoptosis is dependent on a signal from the ced-9 gene in C. elegans

c)

A mutation in ced-3 will cause ced-9 to be incorrectly transcribed

d)

An experiment shows that a mutation in the ced-9 gene led to excessive cell death in C-elegans

90.
a)

The storage of GLUT4 in vesicles inside the cell will increase

b)

The number of GLUT4 molecules in the plasma membrane will increase

c)

The concentration of glucose inside the cell will increase

d)

The stimulation of the signal transduction pathway will increase

91.
a)

The enzymatic activity of protein kinase A will increase

b)

The cellular concentration of cyclic AMP will increase

c)

The activation of glycogen phosphorylase will increase

d)

The rate of glycogen synthesis in the cell will increase

92.
a)

A decrease in the intracellular concentration of ATP

b)

The loss of the FGFR protein kinase function

c)

A decrease in the extracellular concentrations of fibroblast growth factors

d)

The irreversible association of FGFR proteins

93.
a)

The activity of the enzyme will fluctuate independent of the ATP concentration

b)

Positive feedback does not occur, and the activity of the enzyme will decrease when glycolysis is needed

c)

The activity of the enzyme will not be affected becasue the active site in not involved in substrate binding at the allosteric site

d)

Negative feedback regulation does not occur, so the enzyme will be actvie when glycolysis is not needed

94.
a)

The blood glucose level will not change after the 5pm meal because the person has already consumed two meals and the blood glucose level has been adjusted to a steady-state level

b)

Several hours after the meal, the blood glucose level will increase sharply because of an increase in the amount of glucagon secreted

c)

Immediately after the meal, the blood glucose level will increase, and then insulin will be secreted to counter and increase

d)

Immediately after the meal, the blood glucose level will decrease because of the increase in glucagon levels

95.
a)

10 %

b)

50 %

c)

5 %

d)

25 %

96.
a)

More cells are produced per unit of time in the root tips growing in compact sand than in the root tips growing in loose sand

b)

The average rate of mitotic cell division is greater for the root tips growing in loose sand than for the root tips growing in loose sand than for the root tips growing in compact sand

c)

The average cell cycle time is greater for the root tips growing in compact sand than for the root tips growing in loose sand

d)

The cells of the root tips grow to larger sizes when the seedlings are planted in compact sand than when the seedlings are planted in loose sand

97.
a)

Stage I represents the G2 phase of the cell cycle

b)

Synthesis of sufficient DNA for two daughter cells occurs in stage II

c)

The replication of genetic material occurs in stage IV

d)

Stage III includes mitosis

98.
a)

The cells have a diploid chromosome number of 6

b)

The cells have a haploid chromosome number of 3

c)

There is a change from 6 to 3 picograms of DNA after each cell divison because the chromosomes lengthen following cell division

d)

There is a change from 3 to 6 picograms of DNA because DNA replicated before each round of cell division

99.
a)

40 % of the virus-infected cells are in interphase. These cells are preparing for replication of genetic material

b)

75 % of the virus-infected cells are found in mitosis. The virus stimulates frequent cell division

c)

Normal cells spend 98 % of their time cycling in and out of interpahse. The virus reduces this to 5 % of the time

d)

20 % of the virus-infected cells are in interphase. These cells are no longer part of the cell cycle

100.
a)

Increase apoptosis will lead to abnormal growth of the tissue

b)

Cells will exit the cell cycle, entering a non-divigin G0 phase

c)

Fewer cells will be in any of the stages of mitosis

d)

Increase cell divison will lead to the formation of a tumor

101.
a)

Immediate activation of apoptosis pathways

b)

Increased expression of p53 target genes

c)

Uncontrolled cell proliferation

d)

Rapid cell growth w/o cell division

102.
a)

Proteins necessary for M phase of the cell cycle have not been produced

b)

There are not enough nucleotides available to construct new DNA

c)

Dmaage occured to DNA when it was being copied in G1

d)

Spindle fibers have not correctly attached to chromosomes