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A&P 2 Fast track Final Exam Game

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

It creates chemicals, or hormones, that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

b)

It creates electrical messages that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

c)

It maintains the correct level of oxygen in the body to maintain homeostasis.

d)

It releases waste from the body to maintain homeostasis.

2.
This gland is located between the lungs behind the sternum and secretes thymosin that helps mature WBC's in our bodies when we are children. 
a)
thyroid
b)
parathyroid
c)
thymus
d)
brain stem
3.
What is the name of the structure that connects the pituitary gland to the brain/central nervous system?
a)
Hypophysis
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Pancreas
d)
Adrenal glands
4.
Diabetes type I (mellitus) is caused by a lack of what pancreatic hormone:
a)
ADH
b)
Glucocorticoids
c)
Insulin
d)
Glucagon
5.
Name the two hormones produced by the thyroid gland.
a)
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
b)
ADH and oxytocin
c)
Calcitonin and thyroxine
d)
Growth hormone and cortisol
6.
Name of the hormone that increases the levels of calcium in the blood:
a)
Calcitonin
b)
Calcium
c)
Phosphatase
d)
Parathyroid
7.
Hormone that maintains/reabsorbs the water in the body.
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Adrenaline
c)
Melatonin
d)
ADH
8.
Which hormone is not secreted by the anterior pituitary.
a)
Oxytocin
b)
FSH
c)
TSH
d)
ACTH
9.
What element is needed to produce proper amounts of Thyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)?
a)
Iodine
b)
Iron
c)
Calcium
d)
Zinc
10.
Which hormone is secreted directly from the Posterior Pituitary Gland?
a)
ADH
b)
LH
c)
ACTH
d)
FSH
11.
Glucagon is secreted by:
a)
α-cells in the Islets of Langerhans
b)
β-cells in the Islets of Langerhans
c)
β-cells in the pancreatic medulla
d)
α-cells in the pancreatic cortex
12.
The hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to a stressor is:
a)
Aldosterone
b)
Cortisol
c)
Epinephrine
d)
ACTH
13.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary stimulates the __________ glands to release _________.
a)
Pineal, cortisol
b)
Adrenal, cortisol
c)
Pineal, TSH
d)
Adrenal, TSH
14.

What effect would the secretion of anti-diuretic

hormone have on osmoregulation?

I Decreases the volume of urine excreted.

II Increases the volume of urine excreted.

III Reabsorb water from the distal tubule.

IV Conserves mineral salts for storage.

a)

I, II and III only.

b)

I and III only.

c)

II and IV only.

d)

I, II, III and IV.

15.
What part of blood carries hemoglobin?
a)
Red blood cells
b)
Plasma
c)
Platlets
d)
White blood cells
16.
Blood is classified as ___ tissue.
a)
connective
b)
circulatory
c)
epithelial
d)
muscular
17.
Blood becomes bright red in color because of the
a)
amount of folic acid present
b)
amount of hemoglobin present
c)
amount of oxygen present
d)
amount of iron present
18.
The three steps of hemostasis are:
1. vascular spasm
2. ___________
3. coagulation
a)
platelet plug formation
b)
agglutination
c)
dilation
d)
erythropoieten formation
19.
Red blood cells are
a)
thrombocytes
b)
neutrophils
c)
monocytes
d)
erthryocytes
20.
The liquid portion of the blood is
a)
leukocytes
b)
erthryocytes
c)
plasma
d)
thrombin
21.

What makes up around 55% of the blood?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

White Blood Cells

d)

Platelets

22.

Which of the following could give blood to a person who is type AB-? (more than one answer)

a)

A-

b)

AB+

c)

B-

d)

O-

e)

O+

23.

Which of the following blood groups is that of the ‘Universal donor’?

a)

A

b)

O

c)

AB

d)

B

24.

What is the function of the valves in the heart?

a)

To separate the chambers

b)

To prevent backflow of blood

c)

To prevent blockage in the heart

d)

To separate the blood

25.

Vein that empties blood from the upper body into the upper right heart chamber

a)

Inferior Vena Cava

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Aortic veins

26.
Which side of the heart carries poorly oxygenated blood?
a)
Right
b)
Left
27.

Veins that empty blood from the lungs into the upper left heart chamber

a)

Inferior Vena Cava

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Aortic veins

28.
Which valve sits between the right chambers of the heart?
a)
Pulmonary
b)
Bicuspid
c)
Aortic
d)
Tricuspid
29.
Which chamber receives blood from the two largest veins in the body?
a)
Right atrium
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Left atrium
d)
Left ventricle
30.

What are the lower chambers of the heart called?

a)

Arteries

b)

Ventricles

c)

Atria

d)

Vessels

31.

Largest artery in the body taking oxygenated blood to the body from the lower left chamber

a)

Pulmonary

b)

Radial

c)

Aorta

d)

Femoral

32.

Type of blood vessels taking blood away from the heart

a)

Venules

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Arteries

33.

Vein that empties blood from the lower body into the upper right heart chamber

a)

Inferior Vena Cava

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Veins

d)

Aortic veins

34.
These blood cells are the protectors and help fight off disease.
a)
Red blood cells
b)
White blood cells
c)
Plasma
d)
Platelets 
35.

What is on the surface of pathogens that allows white blood cells to detect and recognise them?

a)

antibiotics

b)

antigens

c)

anticlockwise

d)

antihistamine

36.

What is the average life span of an erythrocyte?

a)

10 days

b)

12 days

c)

120 days

d)

8000 days

37.

Which of the following WBC releases heparin & histamines for blood flow & blood clots?

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

basophils

d)

monocytes

38.

Which of the following is the largest WBC?

a)

lymphocyte

b)

basophil

c)

neutrophil

d)

monocyte

39.

Which WBC kills parasites?

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

monocytes

d)

basophils

40.

Another name for platelets is ________

a)

Monocytes

b)

Leukoytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Neutrophils

41.
The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)
a)
Artery
b)
arteriole
c)
vein
d)
capillary
42.
The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
a)
thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
b)
lumbar duct and left lymphatic duct
c)
intestinal duct and left intercostal duct
d)
bronchomedianstinal duct and subclavian  duct
43.
The Spleen
a)
is the largest lymphatic organ
b)
contains nodules similar to lymphatic nodules
c)
contains numerous phagocytic cells
d)
all of these are correct
44.
The most abundant type of immunoglobin is
a)
IgA
b)
IgD
c)
IgE
d)
IgG
45.
Plasma cells function to
a)
increase the volume of blood plasma
b)
produce antibodies
c)
directly attack antigens
d)
produce interferon
46.
A primary immune response is ____; and a secondary immune response is___.
a)
very important; less important
b)
very rapid; very slow
c)
slower; faster
d)
none of these is correct
47.
Newborns can acquire ____ immunity through breast milk.
a)
specific
b)
passive
c)
active
d)
innate
48.
Small, round or oval masses that filter the lymph and remove toxins, wastes, and other harmful substances.
a)
lymphocyte
b)
lymph nodes
c)
thymus
d)
bone marrow
49.
T cells are made in the___________
a)
bone marrow
b)
spleen
c)
thymus
d)
tonsiles
50.
Where do T cells mature?
a)
lymph node
b)
bone marrow
c)
thymus
d)
liver
51.
Which is not an example of an innate external defense?
a)
Skin
b)
Mucous
c)
Tears
d)
Blood
52.

Many times people visit the doctor requesting antibiotics to treat colds and viral infections. How is the doctor justified in offering the patient treatment options that do not include antibiotics for these cases?

a)

Colds and viruses should be first treated with viral therapies and then when the body begins to recover, antibiotics can be used. Otherwise, the use of antibiotics is not effective at all.

b)

Side effects from antibiotics are severe when used for colds and viruses. Any use of antibiotics for colds and viruses will only make the patient more ill and ultimately make the patient's recovery time longer.

c)

Antibiotics can weaken the immune system when used for colds and viruses, whereas other medications are not so hard on the immune system during these types of illnesses.

d)

If a doctor provides an antibiotic to treat colds and viruses, any bacteria in the patient's body will be killed, but a few will survive. Those few survivors may become resistant to antibiotics needed for real bacterial illnesses.

53.

Which White Blood cells are involved in Innate Immunity?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

All of the above

54.

What is an example of Artificial active immunity?

a)

Vaccination

b)

Natural infection

55.

What does a mechanical barrier do?

a)

Destroy pathogens on outer surface of the body

b)

Living organisms that help protect the body

c)

Releases mucus that traps pathogens

56.

What is the difference between Adaptive Immunity and Innate Immunity?

a)

Innate is non specific and Adaptive is specific

b)

Innate has several barriers

c)

Innate uses several lymphocytes while Adaptive uses 2 types

d)

All of the above

57.

Why does the Adaptive Immune System keep a memory of the pathogens they fight off, but Innate System does not?

a)

Adaptive immunity is present at birth and needs to keep a memory of these pathogens over time, but Innate immunity is temporary so it does not a memory of pathogens.

b)

Adaptive immunity is short lived, it keeps a memory of pathogens for future reference, whereas Innate immunity is present at birth so it does not need to keep a memory.

c)

Innate immunity does not fight off pathogens so it cannot keep a record, while Adaptive immunity only fights off pathogens, therefore needing to keep a memory of them.

58.

What are the major types of cells of Adaptive (Specific) Immunity?

a)

Natural Killer Cells

b)

Neutrophils and Basophils

c)

T cells and B cells

d)

Eosinophils and Macrophages

59.

Which cells are NOT part of Adaptive (specific) Immunity?

a)

Phagocytes

b)

B cells

c)

T cells

d)

None of the above

60.
What is the volume that remains in the lungs even after a forceful exhale
a)
expiratory reserve
b)
residual volume
c)
inspiratory reserve
d)
total lung capacity
61.
What muscles are used in breathing in and breathing out?
a)
diaphragm and intercostals
b)
diaphragm and lungs
c)
lungs and ribs
d)
lungs and diaphragm
62.
The volume of a normal breath 
a)
3000mL
b)
2400mL
c)
1200mL
d)
500mL
63.
What is the volume of one breath called?
a)
minute ventilation
b)
inspiratory capacity
c)
tidal volume
d)
vital capacity
64.
When air pressure inside the lungs is less than air pressure in the atmosphere...
a)
Air moves into the lungs
b)
Air moves out of the lungs
65.
Given the following structures:
1. larynx
2. nasal cavity
3. pharynx
4. trachea
Which of the following is the correct order that air would flow during inhalation. 
a)
1,2,3,4
b)
2,3,1,4
c)
2,1,3,4
d)
4,2,3,1 
66.
When the diaphragm contracts...
a)
the volume of the thoracic cavity increases and the pressure decreases, causing air to rush into the lungs.
b)
the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases and the pressure increases causing air to rush out of the lungs. 
67.
What structure is a passageway for both food and air?
a)
Pharynx
b)
Bronchus
c)
Trachea
d)
Larynx
68.
What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils?
a)
Sound production
b)
Filtration
c)
Temperature Control
d)
Respiration
69.

What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?

a)

Pleura

b)

Oropharynx

c)

Trachea

d)

Bronchioles

70.
Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
a)
Larynx
b)
Bronchi
c)
Trachea
d)
Alveoli
71.
Membrane layer which covers the lungs
a)
Visceral pleura
b)
Alveolar Ducts
c)
Alveoli
d)
Bronchi
72.
Which oily substance is made by babies to allow their lungs to expand to take their first breath of air?
a)
Emphysema
b)
surfactant
c)
Hypoxia
d)
Cystic fibrosis
73.
This condition occurs when you have a lack of oxygen and the skin and nail beds turn blue.
a)
cystic fibrosis
b)
Hypoxia
c)
COPD
d)
bronchitis
74.

The "adam's apple" is located on the...

a)

cricoid cartilage

b)

thyroid cartilage

c)

arytenoid cartilage

d)

epiglottis

75.

The "windpipe" is also called the...

a)

trachea

b)

bronchi

c)

bronchioles

d)

alveoli

76.

what covers the glottis to prevent food going down the trachea?

a)

trachea

b)

epiglottis

c)

palate

d)

esophagus

77.

In which part of the respiratory system are the vocal cords situated?

a)

in the pharynx

b)

in the larynx

c)

in the lungs

d)

in the nasal passages

e)

in the bronchi

78.

Where is bile produced?

a)

Kidney

b)

Pancreas

c)

Liver

d)

Small intestine

79.

What is the term given to a ball-like mixture of food and saliva that forms in the mouth?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Mucus

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Bolus

80.

What is the process of wave-like muscle contractions that moves food through the digestive tract?

a)

Pericardium

b)

Peristalsis

c)

Pepsin

d)

Pericoronitis

81.
The innermost layer of the alimentary canal is...
a)
Submucosa
b)
Mucosa
c)
Muscularis externa
82.

Where does the digestion of lipids take place?

a)

Stomach

b)

Stomach and small intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Mouth, stomach and small intestine

e)

Mouth and small intestine

83.

Where does the digestion of carbohydrates take place?

a)

Mouth

b)

Mouth and Stomach

c)

Mouth and small Intestine

d)

Mouth and large intestine

e)

Stomach

84.

What is the aim of the digestion?

a)

Obtain matter and energy

b)

Obtain nutrients from food and break it down into small molecules, which are then absorbed

c)

Break down food into inorganic nutrients

d)

Obtain nutrients form food and transport it to the cells

85.

What are the two components of the gastric juice?

a)

Pepsine and hydrochloric acid

b)

Saliva and bile

c)

Bile and hydrochloric acid

d)

Amyase and hydrochloric acid

86.

Which organ releases digestive enzymes into the small intestine?

a)

pancreas

b)

small intestine

c)

esophagus

d)

salivary glands

87.

Which of the following answers correctly sequences the pathway food takes from the beginning to end?

a)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

b)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

c)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

d)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine

88.

An inactive enzyme secreted by the chief cells

a)

Pepsinogen

b)

Pepsin

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Amylase

89.

Enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates

a)

Amylase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Pepsinogen

d)

Hydrochloric acid

90.

Chewing food would be a example of

a)

Chemical Digestion

b)

Mechanical Digestion

c)

Abdominal Digestion

d)

the digestive system.

91.

What is the function of the large intestine?

a)

Mix chyme

b)

Absorb nutrients

c)

Absorb water

d)

Secrete enzymes

92.
The correct order for the renal tubules is:
a)
proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle
b)
distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
c)
proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct
d)
collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
93.
Urine production takes place in the:
a)
nephrons
b)
bladder
c)
ureter
d)
renal pelvis
94.
Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and electrolytes to the bloodstream?
a)
filtration
b)
excretion
c)
secretion
d)
reabsorption 
95.
What is the function of ADH?
a)
decreases reabsorption of water and salts
b)
increases reabsorption of hydrogen ions
c)
increase reabsorption of salts
d)
increases reabsorption of water 
96.
The proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron aids in:
a)
Reabsorption
b)
Secretion
c)
Filtration
d)
Urination
97.
The _________ is/are responsible for urine storage.
a)
Bladder
b)
Kidneys
c)
Ureter
d)
Urethra
98.

Oliguria (urinating below the average amount) is the opposite of

a)

Hematuria

b)

Polyuria

c)

Incontinence

d)

Retention

99.
Which sequence represents the correct pathway for the removal of urine from the human body?
a)
kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra
b)
kidney → urethra → urinary bladder → ureter
c)
ureter → kidney → urinary bladder → urethra
d)
urethra → kidney → urinary bladder → ureter
100.

Which structure of the nephron lies primarily in the renal medulla?

a)

PCT

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

DCT

d)

Glomerulus

101.

Where does FILTRATION take place in the nephron?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Bowman's Capsule

c)

PCT

d)

Collecting Duct

102.

This structure brings blood to the glomerulus:

a)

Afferent arteriole

b)

Efferent arteriole

c)

PCT

d)

DCT

103.

This structure is responsible for almost 70% of the reabsorption that takes place in the nephron

a)

PCT

b)

DCT

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Collecting Duct

104.

Aldosterone does which of the following:

a)

increases secretion of organic acids

b)

stimulates retention of Na+ and water

c)

increases glomerular function

d)

results in diabetes mellitus

105.

_____________ is the third step of urine formation; substances move from the blood into the fluid of the renal tubule

a)

Tubular Reabsorption

b)

Tubular Secretion

c)

Glomerular Filtration

106.

Identify Structure E

a)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

b)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

c)

Nephron Loop (Loop of Henle)

d)

Collecting Duct

107.

_____________ is the second step of urine formation; substances move from the tubular fluid back into the blood.

a)

Tubular Reabsorption

b)

Tubular Secretion

c)

Glomerular Filtration

108.

What is the correct name for a sex cell?

a)

The noise

b)

Gamete

c)

Ovary

d)

Sperm

109.

Where specifically are sperm made in human males?

a)

Testes

b)

Seminiferous tubules

c)

Ovary

d)

Scrotum

110.

In which organ does the embryo/fetus develop?

a)

Cervix

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian Tube

d)

Ovary

111.

Which hormone induce ovulation?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Inhibin

d)

Estrogen

112.

The source of FSH in the body is...

a)

ovary

b)

ovarian corpus luteum

c)

anterior pituary gland

d)

pineal gland

113.

What part regulates the temperature of the testes?

a)

prostate gland

b)

epididymis

c)

scrotum

d)

bladder

114.

Assuming that a vasectomy was not done, the fluid ejaculated from the penis is called:

a)

only sperm

b)

semen

c)

urine

d)

testosterone

115.
Which of the following does not contribute to the production of the fluid called semen?
a)
cowper's gland
b)
prostate gland
c)
seminal vesicle
d)
vas deferens
116.
What is the name of the structure labeled #3 where sperm is stored?
a)
testis
b)
epididymis
c)
scrotum
d)
seminal vesicle
117.

What pea-sized male reproductive structure is located below the prostate, and is responsible for prepping the urethra before ejaculation?

a)

vas deferens

b)

testes

c)

Cowper’s gland

d)

seminal vesicles

118.
The name of the baby for the first 2 weeks of life
a)
Zygote
b)
Embryo
c)
Fetus 
119.
What the baby is called from the 3rd week until the 8th week
a)
Zygote
b)
Embryo
c)
Fetus
120.
What the baby is called from week 9 until birth 
a)
Zygote
b)
Embryo
c)
Fetus

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