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AICE Bio Mega Review!

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Receives blood from the body that is low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide
a)
Right Atrium
b)
Right Ventricle
c)
Left Atrium
d)
Left Ventricle
2.
The arrow indicates the
a)
Right atrium
b)
Left ventricle
c)
Right ventricle
d)
Left atrium
3.
The number of valves in the heart is
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
4.

Which stage of the cardiac cycle is occurring in the PINK, DOTTED box?

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Atrial diastole

c)

Ventricular systole

d)

Ventricular diastole

5.

The vector for this disease is the mosquito.

a)

malaria

b)

cholera

c)

HIV

d)

smallpox

6.
This disease is spread through the bacterium Vibrio cholerae .
a)
smallpox
b)
malaria
c)
cholera
d)
HIV
7.
Which protist causes malaria?
a)
plasmodium
b)
anopheles
c)
trypanosoma
d)
chagas
8.

What does penicillin break down?

a)

Cellulose cross links

b)

Murein cross links

c)

Peptidoglycan cross links

d)

Chitin cross links

9.
What elements make up carbohydrates?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
b)
sulfur, carbon, hydrogen
c)
glucose and fructose
d)
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
10.
How do the number of H atoms compare to the number of O atoms in a carbohydrate?
a)
There are TWICE as many H
b)
They are the same amount
c)
There are THREE times as many H
d)
There are TWICE as many O
11.
What does hydrolysis mean?
a)
breaking of water molecules
b)
Formation by water
c)
Splitting by water
d)
Getting rid of water molecules
12.

Which molecule is shown in the figure below?

a)

Galactose

b)

Fructose

c)

Alpha glucose

d)

Beta glucose

13.

Which molecule is shown in the figure below?

a)

Galactose

b)

Fructose

c)

Alpha glucose

d)

Beta glucose

14.

A sample of milk is tested with Benedict’s solution. After boiling, a blue color is observed. Which conclusion could be drawn using this information?

a)

Reducing sugars are present

b)

Reducing sugars are not present

c)

Non-reducing sugars are present

d)

Non-reducing sugars are not present

15.

Which of the following is a positive result for reducing sugars?

a)

Left

b)

Right

16.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.

What is a ligand?

a)

Any molecule used for cell transport

b)

A signalling molecule for cell transport

c)

A signalling molecule for cell signalling

d)

A transport molecule for hormones

18.

What is shown in this image?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Micelle

c)

Liposome

19.

Which process allows the movement of molecules that are too large to enter through a cell surface membrane?

a)

active transport

b)

endocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

facilitated diffusion

20.

In simple diffusion, molecules flow from a ______ concentration to a ________ concentration

a)

low, low

b)

low, high

c)

high, low

21.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding channel proteins?

a)

They can be used in either facilitated diffusion or active transport

b)

They can be used to transport water

c)

They are specific to certain molecules

d)

They contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

22.

Enzymes are _____________?

a)

Fibrous Proteins

b)

Hormones

c)

Lipids

d)

Globular Proteins

23.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
24.

What is the term for enzymes that function INSIDE of cells?

a)

Intercellular

b)

Extracellular

c)

Intracellular

d)

Globular

25.

Which of the following is NOT correct of the Michaelis-Menten constant?

a)

It is a measure of a certain substrate concentration in a reaction

b)

Higher values mean that the enzyme is more efficient at binding to its substrate

c)

It can be derived from the Vmax of a reaction

d)

It is also called the Km

26.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
27.

Which statement is ONLY true for the induced fit theory of enzyme action?

a)

A few amino acids give the active site a specific shape

b)

An enzyme has a substrate with a specific shape

c)

The enzyme changes shape in the presence of the substrate

d)

The substrate molecule is complementary to the active site

28.

Which bonds would be last to break as the temperature of an enzyme is increased?

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Hydrophobic Interactions

d)

Ionic

29.

In the graph below, what is true of time X?

a)

Most enzyme molecules will have a free active site

b)

The number of available substrate molecules is high

c)

The number of enzyme-substrate complexes is low

d)

The rate remains the same if more enzyme is added

30.

Which row is correct for an enzyme with a low Michaelis-Menten Constant?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

31.

What conclusion can you draw from the following amylase results?

a)

The enzyme denatures between 20 and 35° C

b)

The enzyme is active from 5-35° C

c)

The enzyme denatures at a pH of 2.0

d)

Amylase breaks down iodine

32.

What does a colorimeter measure?

a)

Rate of reaction

b)

Wavelength of light absorbed

c)

Temperature

d)

pH

33.

What type of microscope likely took this image?

a)

Scanning Electron Microscope

b)

Transmission Electron Microscope

c)

Compound Light Microscope

d)

Transfer Electron Microscope

34.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of plant cells?

a)

Tonoplast

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Plasmodesmata

d)

Centrioles

35.

Which of the following is a function of the nucleolus?

a)

Carbohydrate synthesis

b)

Hold genetic information to dictate cellular functions

c)

Ribosome Synthesis

d)

Protein Synthesis

36.

Where are 70S ribosomes found? (Select all that apply)

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Viruses

c)

Nuclear Envelope

d)

Prokaryotes

e)

Chloroplasts

37.

Which of the following are found in the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum?

a)

Cristae

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Chromatin

d)

Cisternae

e)

Cellulose

38.

Which TWO organelles are part of the endosymbiont theory?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chloroplast

39.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of a typical bacterium?

a)

1-5 μm in diameter

b)

Peptidoglycan cell wall

c)

Linear DNA

d)

70S ribosomes

40.

The evaporation of water from the stomata (openings in the leaves) is the process of ...

a)

Transpiration

b)

Translocation

c)

Diffusion

d)

Perspiration

41.

Identify 3 plant adaptations of Xerophytes

a)

More leaves during the summer months

b)

Sunken stomata

c)

Leaves modified into spines or hairs

d)

Thick stem

42.

Why is water able to flow up a plant?

a)

Gravity

b)

Water pressure

c)

Leaves have a higher water potential

d)

Leaves have a lower water potential

43.

Which of the following is true of the symplast pathway?

a)

Water does not travel through the plasma membrane

b)

Water travels through intercellular spaces

c)

Water flows through plasmodesmata

d)

Pathway is blocked by the Casparian strip

44.

Where is lignin found?

a)

Phloem cell walls

b)

Leaves

c)

Stomata

d)

Xylem cell walls

45.

What is the most abudant solute in phloem sap?

a)

amino acids

b)

hormones

c)

sugar

d)

minerals

46.

Which of the following statement is true about sieve tube cells?

a)

Sieve tube cells are nucleated but devoid of mitochondria and ER

b)

Companion cells are non-nucleated and regulated by nucleated sieve cell

c)

Sieve tube cells are present in all plants

d)

Companion cells are nucleated and regulates activity of non-nucleated sieve tube

47.

What is the best words to describe sugar source and sugar sink

a)

Both are plants organ and act as storage

b)

Sugar sink can be either roots, fruit or mature leaves and sugar source is shoots

c)

Sugar source act as site for sugar production and sugar sink will store sugar

d)

Companion tube carry food from a sugar source to a sugar sink

48.

What is a xerophyte?

a)

A CAM Plant

b)

A C4 Plant

c)

A plant that possesses physical adaptations to reduce transpiration loss

49.

Which of the following substances can water pass through?

a)

Cellulose Cell Wall

b)

Lignin Cell Wall

c)

Suberin Cell Wall

d)

Phospholipid Cell Wall

50.

What will happen to the water potential of the sieve tube when sucrose moves OUT of the sieve tube into a root cell?

a)

Water potential Increases

b)

Water Potential Decreases

51.

Where is lignin found?

a)

Companion Cell Cell Wall

b)

Periderm Cell Wall

c)

Xylem Vessel Cell Wall

d)

Parenchyma Cell Wall

52.

Which organ can act as both a source and a sink for sucrose?

a)

Roots

b)

Stems

c)

Leaves

d)

Fruits

53.
a)

Amylase and starch

b)

Cellulose and starch

c)

Phospholipid and cellulose

d)

Starch and Phospholipid

54.

Which bonds hold the secondary structure of proteins together?

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 only

d)

2 and 3 only

55.

The diagrams show the amino acid serine. Which circled area is different in all other amino acids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
56.

Which diagram correctly shows hydrogen bonding between water molecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
57.

The diagram shows the mitotic cell cycle. During which phase is DNA replicated?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

58.

Which diagram represents a cell undergoing metaphase of mitosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.

Which diagram shows the bond linking the individual units of a nucleic acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

Which diagram shows the bond linking the individual units of a polysaccharide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

Which diagram shows the bond linking the individual units of a polypeptide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
62.

Which diagram shows the bond linking the individual units of a triglyceride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Which diagram represents a correct base pair of DNA?

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

Identify cell 1.

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Neutrophil

65.

Identify cell 2.

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Neutrophil

66.

Identify cell 3.

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Neutrophil

67.

Which statements about the formation of haemoglobinic acid are correct?

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 only

d)

2 and 3 only

68.

The diagram is an incomplete summary of the role of haemoglobin in the carriage of CO2. Which letter shows the Chloride Shift?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

What is the role of the chloride shift?

a)

Stabilizes temperature imbalances

b)

Stabilizes electrical imbalances within red blood cells

c)

Stabilizes protein structure

d)

Salty

70.

The diagram is an incomplete summary of the role of haemoglobin in the carriage of CO2. What process is occurring at C? (both)

a)

Active transport

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

71.

The diagram is an incomplete summary of the role of haemoglobin in the carriage of CO2. What enzyme catalyzes the reaction at B?

a)

Haemoglobinic acid

b)

Catalase

c)

Carbonic amylase

d)

Carbonic Anhydrase

72.

The diagram is an incomplete summary of the role of haemoglobin in the carriage of CO2. What is formed at D?

a)

Carbonic Acid

b)

Carbaminohaemoglobin

c)

Hydrogencarbonate ions

d)

Carboxyhaemoglobin

73.

Which reactions will be taking place in blood that is passing through active tissues?

a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

1, 2 and 4 only

c)

1, 3 and 4 only

d)

2 and 3 only

74.

The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curve in different CO2 concentrations. Which conditions could change the shape of curve 1 to the shape of curve 2?

a)

High CO2 concentration causing decreasing pH

b)

High CO2 concentration causing increasing pH

c)

Low CO2 concentration causing increasing pH

d)

Low CO2 concentration causing decreasing pH

75.

Which blood VESSEL has the thickest walls?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.

Three areas involved in the control of heart action are listed. In which order are they involved?

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 3, 2

c)

3, 1, 2

d)

3, 2, 1

77.

Which identifies the tissues present in the trachea?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

What is found at N?

a)

Ciliated Epithelium

b)

Squamous Epithelium

c)

Mucus Glands

d)

Cartilage

79.

What is found at O?

a)

Ciliated Epithelium

b)

Squamous Epithelium

c)

Mucus Glands

d)

Cartilage

80.

What is found at P?

a)

Ciliated Epithelium

b)

Squamous Epithelium

c)

Mucus Glands

d)

Cartilage

81.

When a person suffers as asthma attack, the tubes of the gas exchange system narrow and extra mucus is produced. Which changes occur during an asthma attack?

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

2 and 3 only

82.
Which describes the emulsion test for the presence of lipids?
a)
Add ethanol and shake
b)
Add ethanol, pour into water and shake
c)
Add water and shake
d)
Add water, pour into ethanol and shake
83.
In unsaturated lipid molecules, where are double bonds located?<br />
a)
Between fatty acids and glycerol
b)
Within fatty acids and within glyercol
c)
Within fatty acids only
d)
Within glycerol only
84.
Which statements about triglycerides is correct?
a)
They are made up of three fatty acids combined with glycogen
b)
They are more saturated with hydrogen compared with phospholipids
c)
They form a bilayer in the cell surface membranes of cells<br />
d)
They have a lower ratio of oxygen to carbon compared with carbohydrates<br />
85.
Which type of bond holds together an alpha helix or beta-pleated sheet of a protein?
a)
disulfide
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)
peptide
86.
Which statement about the properties of water is correct?
a)
Bonds between hydrogen atoms cause water to have a high specific heat capacity
b)
The high latent heat of vaporization of water is due to the presence of hydrogen bonds
c)
The high specific heat capacity of water causes cooling during evaporation<br />
d)
Water can dissolve amylopectin as it has hydrophilic side chains
87.
Which force holds water molecules on the surface of cell walls?
a)
Adhesion
b)
Capillary
c)
Cohesion
d)
Surface tension
88.
Which molecule have a structural formula that contains C=O bonds?
a)
Fatty acids and glucose
b)
Fatty acids and glycerol
c)
Glucose and glycerol
d)
Fatty acids, glucose and glycerol
89.
Which statement about the behavior of chromosomes during mitosis is correct?
a)
They attach to the spindle fibres to contain them within the nucleus
b)
They condense to prevent further translation of genes
c)
They reach the poles of the cell and become longer and thinner<br />
d)
They replicate to produce sufficient DNA to form two new nuclei<br />
90.
Colchicine is a substance which inhibits the formation of spindle fibres. At which stage is the cell cycle interrupted?
a)
Cell division
b)
DNA replication
c)
Interphase
d)
Mitosis
91.
Which of these events are part of mitosis? (in the list)
a)
Interphase, telophase and cytokinesis
b)
Interphase and cytokinesis only
c)
Interphase only
d)
Telophase only<br />
92.
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
G2
c)
M
d)
S
93.
Which statement is correct about the number of telomeres present in prophase of a human body cell?
a)
46 (one at the end of 46 chromsomes)
b)
92 (one at the end of 46 chromsomes)
c)
92 (one at the end of 92 chromatids)
d)
184 (one at the end of 92 chromatids)
94.
Uncontrolled cell division of cancer cells form tumors. Which statement describes the difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell?
a)
Cancer cells do not undergo cytokinesis
b)
Cancer cells do not have metaphase
c)
Cancer cells have a shorter interphase
d)
Only cancer cells have mutated DNA
95.
Which stages of mitosis make sure that each daughter cell receives one chromatid from each chromatid pair?
a)
Prophase and metaphase
b)
Metaphase and anaphase
c)
Anaphase and telophase
d)
Telophase and interphase<br />
96.
Where are anticodons found?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
tRNA
97.
Which structural feature of the DNA molecule varies?
a)
The arrangement of the sugar-phosphate groups
b)
The double helical arrangement
c)
The number of hydrogen bonds between base pairs<br />
d)
The pairing of purines with pyrimidines
98.
Which statement about nitrogenous bases is correct?
a)
Adenine is a pyrimidine with two rings
b)
Cytosine is a purine with 2 rings
c)
Guanine is a purine with 1 ring
d)
Uracil is a pyrimidine with 1 ring
99.
Two polynucleotide strands make up a DNA molecule. What is a correct description?<br />
a)
The percentage of C is 50% of that of G in the whole molecule
b)
The percentage of C is the same as that of G in each strand
c)
The percentage of C is the same as that of G in the whole molecule
d)
The percentage of C is the same in each strand of the molecule
100.
What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in a length of DNA containing 700 base pairs?
a)
350
b)
700
c)
1400
d)
2100
101.
What are the products when a DNA molecule replicates?
a)
2 molecules of DNA each made of a paired sequence of bases
b)
2 molecules of DNA each made of a paired sequence of nucleotides
c)
2 strands of DNA each made of a paired sequence of bases
d)
2 strands of DNA each made of a paired sequence of nucleotides
102.
Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat TB. It works by inhibiting RNA polymerase. Which of these processes will be directly inhibited by this antibitoic?
a)
ATP synthesis and transcription
b)
ATP synthesis and translation
c)
Transcription only
d)
Translation only
103.
What does the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesise in a cell?
a)
A polypeptide using DNA as a template
b)
A strand of DNA using a polypeptide as a template
c)
A strand of DNA using DNA as a template
d)
A strand of mRNA using DNA as a template
104.
What is needed to transcribe DNA?
a)
DNA ligase
b)
DNA polymerase
c)
Ribosomes
d)
RNA polymerase
105.
In a ribosome, which bond holds together two adjacent amino acids?<br />
a)
Disulfide
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)
Peptide
106.
Which correctly identifies the main tissues found in the main tissues found in the layers of the wall of an artery?
a)
Outer- Collagen, Middle- elastic, Inner- Endothelium
b)
Outer- Collagen, Middle- muscle, Inner- elastic
c)
Outer- elastic, middle- collagen, inner- endothelium
d)
Outer- muscle, middle- collagen, inner- elastic
107.
How is most carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
a)
As carbaminohaemoglobin
b)
As carbonic acid
c)
As hydrogencarbonate ions
d)
In solution in cytoplasm
108.
Which effect could be due to a reduced concentration of carbonic anhydrase?
a)
Carbaminohaemoglobin concentrations will decrease
b)
Less oxygen is released from oxyhaemoglobin for active tissues
c)
The pH of the blood will be lowered
d)
The rate of dissociation of carbonic acid is increased
109.
Which features enable the aorta to withstand ventricular systole?
a)
Collagen fibers and elastin fibers
b)
Collagen fibers and smooth muscle
c)
Elastin fibers and endothelium
d)
Endothelium and smooth muscle
110.
Which statement explains why the ventricles contract after the atria?
a)
The band of fibers between the atria and the ventricles conducts the excitation wave slowly
b)
The excitation wave has to pass through a small area of conducting fibers in the septum
c)
The excitation wave has to travel futher to react the base of the ventricles than to spread across the atria
d)
The excitation wave travels slowly through the Purkyne tissue to reach the base of the septum
111.
Which structures contain cartilage AND cilia?
a)
Bronchi, bronchioles, trachea
b)
Bronchi and bronchioles
c)
Bronchi and trachea
d)
Trachea only
112.
What describes a function of a neutrophil?
a)
Found in tissues and secrete cytokines
b)
Leave the blood and accumulate at sites of inflammation
c)
Leave the blood and secrete cytotoxins when exposed to cells
d)
Circulate the blood and produce antigens against infection
113.
Which statement about both B-cells and T-cells is correct?
a)
Become active only when a specific antibody binds to their surface receptor
b)
Divide to form clones when meeting an antitoxin in a cell
c)
Produce memory cells to respond to an antigen when exposed in the future
d)
Release hormone-like cytokines which stimulate the release of antibodies
114.
B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes are often unable to respond to the antigens on pathogens that are intracellular parasites. What is the reason for this?
a)
Antigens are constantly mutating
b)
Antigens can destroy lymphocytes
c)
Lymphocytes do not encounter antigens
d)
Lymphocytes do not recognize antigens
115.
What describes a non-specific immune response?
a)
Activation of killer-T cells by infected cells
b)
Cloning of B-lymphocytes to form plasma cells
c)
Ingestion of a bacterial cell by a neutrophil
d)
Presentation of antigens on the cell surface of macrophages
116.
Which statement about the properties of the antigen-binding sites in antibody molecules is correct?
a)
They are located on the light chains only
b)
Have a hinge region to give flexibility for different antigens
c)
Binding sites for receptors on phagocytes
d)
Variable amino acid sequences for different antigens
117.
How many variable regions are there on a typical Y-shaped antibody molecule?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
118.
What explains why monoclonal antibodies can be used to target cancer cells?
a)
Cancer cells have different antigens than normal body cells
b)
Specific cancer drugs can be attached to the monoclonal antibody
c)
They are one type of a specific antibody that binds to an antigen
d)
They are secreted by hybridomas
119.
Whooping cough is a highly contagious disease caused by bordatella bacteria. Which method provides protection to infants against whooping cough AND reduces the chance of developing this disease later in life?
a)
A short course of multiple antibiotics
b)
A six month course of one antibiotic
c)
Injection of antibodies specific to Bordatella
d)
Injections of dead bordatella bacteria
120.
Which statement describes how passive natural immunity is obtained?
a)
A vaccination containing dead microorganisms is given
b)
An immunisation containing specific antigens
c)
Antibodies passed from mother to developing baby
d)
Antibodies from another person is injected
121.
When an organ is transplanted from one person to another, rejection must be avoided. At the same time, the immune system of the recipient must be maintained. What prevents the rejection of the transplanted organ?
a)
Continued activity of B cells
b)
Natural active immunity
c)
Natural passive immunity
d)
Suppression of T-cell activity
122.

What are the function(s) of plasma cells during an immune response?

a)

2 only

b)

3 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2 and 3

123.

Which graph shows the changes in antibody concentration following a second exposure to the same infection?

a)
b)
c)
d)
124.

When a person is given a vaccination immunity to certain pathogens develops. Which of the effects of vaccination are correct?

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

2 and 3 only

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Revisión del semestre de primavera #2

122 questions

Revisión del semestre de primavera #2

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade