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Semester 1 Final Bio Honors

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 5hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A part of a triangle. The sum of the squares of the two sides is equal to the square of the hypothesis

b)

Another name for an antithesis. It is used in formal debate.

c)

A guess about what will happen in your experiment.

d)

A testable statement of your understanding of a particular situation, used to predict how an experiment will turn out.

2.

Using the partial periodic table of elements below, which of the following elements would tend to lose one electron and become an ion in order to become stable?

a)

Krypton (Symbol: Kr)

b)

Potassium (Symbol: K)

c)

Fluorine (Symbol: F)

d)

Boron (Symbol: B)

3.

Which of the following are the steps of the scientific method as we discussed them in class?

a)

Observation, experiment, procedure, results, future directions

b)

Researchable question, procedure, hypothesis, experiment, results

c)

Researchable question, hypothesis, results, conclusion, speculation, Wikipedia search

d)

Researchable question, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion, communication.

4.

The process in which two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of a new organism is called:

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Asexual reproduction

c)

Leeuwenhoekification

d)

Sexual reproduction

5.

How many valence electrons does Nitrogen (N) have?

a)

2

b)

Not enough information is given to be able to answer that.

c)

5

d)

7

6.

The prefix in the name of an organic molecule that means it has three carbons is

a)

But-

b)

Meth-

c)

Tri-

d)

Pro-

7.

Which of the following is a simple organic molecule with three carbons?

a)

Methane

b)

Ethane

c)

Propane

d)

Propane

8.

Two molecules that have the same chemical formula (same numbers of each element in the moilecule) but having different arrangements of those elements are:

a)

isomers

b)

imsotiredofatoms

c)

isotopes

d)

ions

9.

To be scientific, an explanation must be consistent with evidence (from experiment or observations), and be able to make accurate predictions about the system being studied. It must also:

a)

Support the political party currently in power.

b)

Be public and open to criticism (usually in the form of peer review).

c)

Be useful in making money, in other words, be part of a salable product.

d)

Only be public if it agrees with popular religious or cultural views.

10.

Different versions of an element, all with the same number of protons, but differing in numbers of neutrons and having different mass are:

a)

isomers

b)

imsotiredofatoms

c)

ions

d)

isotopes

11.

A covalent bond happens when

a)

one atom loses and electron an another gains it, the resulting opposite charges cause them to be attracted to each other.

b)

two atoms share a pair of electrons. Each electron ends orbiting both nuclei.

c)

polar molecules are attracted to the oppositely charged parts of other polar molecules

d)

atoms find that they have interests in common and spend a lot of time together.

12.

An ion is an atom that has lost or gained electrons, so the number of electrons no longer is equal to the number of protons, resulting in an overall charge.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Science is different from other ways of knowing about the world because it

a)

Is based on empirical knowledge (repeatable experiments and observations).

b)

Uses logical arguments and skepticism.

c)

Both A and B are a part of science.

d)

Neither A or B are true.

14.

Molecules become polar when the electrons shared in a covalent bond don't spend equal time around both nuclei, causing one part of the molecule to develop a slight positive charge and another part of the molecule to develop a slight negative charge. 

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Approximately when was the scientific method developed and adopted?

a)

1900’s-2000’s A.D.

b)

1600’s-1700’s A.D.

c)

1400’s-1500’s A.D.

d)

350 B.C.

16.

Water molecules are polar and can attract each other and form hydrogen bonds. This results in the strong surface tension we see, and also is part of how water moves in plants from their roots to leaves. 

This force of attraction is called:

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Osmotic pressure

d)

Antigravity

17.

Which of the following is NOT useful for determining if something is alive?

a)

Movement.

b)

Made of cells

c)

Evolve as a species or group over time

d)

Reproduce on their own

18.

How many protons does oxygen (O) have?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

2

d)

4

19.

Using the partial periodic table of elements below, how many valence electrons would Silicon (Si) have? 

a)

6

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

20.

How do old theories get replaced by newer theories?

a)

They get replaced when people come up with explanations that do a better job of explaining all the available evidence.

b)

They expire after 100 years and have to be replaced.

c)

They are replaced when people vote every four years to elect new theories.

d)

They get replaced if people don't like them.

21.

Organic molecules (the building blocks of life) are based on:

a)

Carbon

b)

Organitron

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

22.

How old do scientists think the universe is?

a)

ABout 13.7 years old

b)

About 13.7 billlion years old

c)

About 13.7 thousand years old

d)

About 13.7 million years old

23.

While their strengths can sometimes overlap, the strength of the three types of bonds we have discussed in order of WEAKEST TO STRONGEST are:

a)

Ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, covalent bonds

c)

Covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds

d)

Ionic bonds, covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds

24.

An ionic bond happens when:

a)

atoms find that they have interests in common and spend a lot of time together.

b)

two atoms share a pair of electrons. Each electron ends orbiting both nuclei.

c)

polar molecules are attracted to the oppositely charged parts of other polar molecules

d)

one atom loses an electron and another gains it, the resulting opposite charges cause them to be attracted to each other.

25.

The process where a new organism starts as a single-celled embryo and grows in to an adult with many different types of cells (often with different functions), sometimes changing form through several distinct stages during its life cycle is called:

a)

Biodiversification

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Reproduction

d)

Development

26.

The reason water is a good solvent is because it is polar, and can form hydrogen bonds with any other ions or polar molecules, surrounding them and spreading them out through the water.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A hydrogen bond happens when

a)

polar molecules are attracted to the oppositely charged parts of other polar molecules

b)

atoms find that they have interests in common and spend a lot of time together.

c)

one atom loses and electron and another gains it, the resulting opposite charges cause them to be attracted to each other.

d)

two atoms share a pair of electrons. Each electron ends orbiting both nuclei.

28.

The universal genetic code that all life is based on is:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

d)

Protein

29.

An example of an inference is:

a)

The egg was light-colored, smooth, and smelled bad.

b)

The egg was heavier because water entered the egg by osmosis.

c)

The egg weighed 50 grams.

d)

The egg had a density of 1.23 g/mL.

30.

The reason that ice floats is because the hydrogen bonds in water become stronger and pull the molecules closer together when it becomes solid.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

In science a theory is:

a)

A very well tested explanation about the natural world that can include a broad range of facts, laws, inferences, and tested hypotheses.

b)

Just a guess that might or might not be true, and hasn’t been proven.

c)

The same thing as a hypothesis.

d)

A step-by-step description of what will be done in an experiment that helps make the experiment repeatable.

32.

An observation based on direct measurements is:

a)

A quantitative observation

b)

An inference

c)

A sensible observation

d)

A qualitative observation

33.

The four most important elements for life are:

a)

Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N)

b)

Carbon (C), Nitrogen (N), Potassium (K), Sulfur (S)

c)

Carbon (C), Helium (He), Sodium (Na), Chlorine (Cl)

d)

Earth (E), Wind (W), Fire (F), Water (Wa)

34.

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways carbon can move from living things to non-living carbon pools?

a)

Evaporation/ condensation

b)

Cutting down and burning trees

c)

Respiration/ breathing

d)

Decompositin/ decay

35.

Describe why oganic molecules, the molecules that make up living things, are based on carbon atoms.

(a)  

36.

Describe how elements heavier than hydrogen and helium form.

(a)  

37.

The main type of reaction involved in building up biological macromolecules like proteins or polysaccharides is

a)

A hydrolysis reaction (which adds a water molecule across bonds)

b)

A dehydration (aka a condensation) reaction which creates a water molecule when the covalent bonds are rearranged.

c)

An isomerization reaction that changes the shape of one molecule into another.

d)

A phosphorylation reaction which adds a phosphate group to a molecule. 

38.

The variable in an experiment that is the measured result is the:

a)

Control

b)

Independent variable

c)

Dependent variable

d)

Hypothesis

39.

The process where a new organism starts as a single-celled embryo and grows in to an adult with many different types of cells (often with different functions), sometimes changing form through several distinct stages during its life cycle is called:

a)

Development

b)

Biodiversification

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Reproduction

40.

The process in which two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of a new organism is called:

a)

Sexual Reproduction

b)

Leeuwenhoekification

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Asexual reproduction

41.

If you carried out an experiment on the effect of salt concentration on enzyme activity, and got an ANOVA result of p=0.08, did the salt treatments have an effect?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

We can't tell because there is no graph

42.

An observation based on direct measurements is:

a)

A quantitative observation

b)

An inference

c)

A qualitative observation

d)

A sensible observation

43.

Organic molecules (the building blocks of life) are based on:

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Organitron

44.

What reaction does the peroxidase enzyme in our experiments carry out?

a)

Breaking lactose down to glucose and galactose.

b)

Breaking DNA down to individual nucleotides adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T)

c)

Breaking down hydrogen peroxide to form oxygen and water

d)

Breaking down hydrogen peroxide using oxygen to make water

45.

An enzyme is

a)

A molecule (usually a protein) that stops chemical reactions.

b)

A molecule (usually a protein) that can speed up a reaction by raising the temperature of a reaction.

c)

A molecule (usually a protein) that can speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy required by the reaction.

d)

The name for the pentanary level of protein structure (5° structure).

46.

An example of a functional group that makes a molecule acidic is: 

a)

A hydroxyl group (-OH)

b)

A carboxyl group (-COOH)

c)

An amino group (-NH2)

d)

A methyl group (-CH3)

47.

Two molecules that have the same chemical formula (the number of atoms of each element in the molecule) but different structures are called

a)

isomers

b)

isotopes

c)

ions

d)

polymers

48.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

Another name for an antithesis. It is used in formal debate.

b)

A guess about what will happen in your experiment.

c)

A testable statement of your understanding of a particular situation, used to predict how an experiment will turn out.

d)

A part of a triangle. The sum of the squares of the two sides is equal to the square of the hypothesis.

49.

Using the partial periodic table of elements below, how many valence electrons would Silicon (Si) have? 

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

50.

In an experiment testing the ability of the enzyme lactase to break lactose sugar down to glucose and galactose,  we see that the activity of the enzyme is initially fairly high (high slope) but then levels off (slope = 0 or close). What could be causing that to happen?

a)

The enzyme ran out of glucose so the reaction stopped..

b)

The enzyme got tired and gave up so the reaction stopped.

c)

The enzyme ran out of lactose so the reaction stopped..

d)

All of the enzyme was used up so the reaction stopped. 

51.

While their strengths can sometimes overlap, the strengths of the three types of chemical bonds, in order of strongest to weakest are:

a)

Covalent bond, ionic bond, hydrogen bond.

b)

Ionic bond, covalent bond, hydrogen bond.

c)

Hydrogen bond, covalent bond, ionic bond.

d)

Hydrogen bond, ionic bond, covalent bond.

52.

Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines for a good researchable question?

a)

It should include an independent variable and a dependent variable.

b)

The answer should not be found in a book.

c)

Not usually a “yes or no” question.

d)

Not usually written as a “why” question.

e)

It should be quick to test.

53.

Functional groups in molecules are small repeating patterns of elements that we tend to find joined together (such as -OH, -COOH, -NH2, etc.) that change the chemical properties of a molecule.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

If the pH of the solution an enzyme is in is lowered a lot (compared to the pH in which it works best), the most likely effect on the enzyme is that

a)

It will slightly slow down the enzyme’s reaction rate.

b)

It will have no effect on the enzyme’s reaction rate.

c)

It will speed up the enzyme’s reaction rate.

d)

It will denature the protein and the enzyme will stop working.

55.

A substrate is

a)

A molecule that blocks an enzyme from being able to work.

b)

The molecule that is the starting material for the chemical reaction an enzyme works on, also known as a reactant.

c)

A small molecule that is the subunit of a larger polymer.

d)

A molecule that is produced by the chemical reaction an enzyme carries out.

56.

Polymer: Nucleic acid, Monomer = (a)  

57.

Polymer: Lipids, Monomer = (a)  

58.

Polymer: Polysaccharides, Monomers =

(a)  

59.

Polymer: Proteins, Monomers =

(a)  

60.

Primary structure is

a)

The order of amino acids which are joined together by covalent peptide bonds. Specified by a gene

b)

Localized folding producing a double helix with the strands running in opposite directions. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

c)

The overall three- dimenstional shape of a single polypeptide strand. The structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and covalent disulfide bonds.

d)

Localized flding produces structures such as alpha helices or beta pleated sheets. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

e)

The structure formed by multiple polypeptide subunits come together held together by hydrophobic interations and hydrogen bonds.

61.

Secondary structure is

a)

The order of amino acids which are joined together by covalent peptide bonds. Specified by a gene

b)

Localized flding produces structures such as alpha helices or beta pleated sheets. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

c)

Localized folding producing a double helix with the strands running in opposite directions. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

d)

The structure formed by multiple polypeptide subunits come together held together by hydrophobic interations and hydrogen bonds.

e)

The overall three- dimenstional shape of a single polypeptide strand. The structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and covalent disulfide bonds.

62.

Tertiary structure is

a)

The structure formed by multiple polypeptide subunits come together held together by hydrophobic interations and hydrogen bonds.

b)

The overall three- dimenstional shape of a single polypeptide strand. The structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and covalent disulfide bonds.

c)

Localized folding produces structures such as alpha helices or beta pleated sheets. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

d)

Localized folding producing a double helix with the strands running in opposite directions. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

63.

Quaternary structure is

a)

The structure formed by multiple polypeptide subunits come together held together by hydrophobic interations and hydrogen bonds.

b)

Localized folding producing a double helix with the strands running in opposite directions. These structures are held together by hydrogen bonds.

c)

The order of amino acids which are joined together by covalent peptide bonds. Specified by a gene

d)

The overall three- dimenstional shape of a single polypeptide strand. The structure is stabilized by hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and covalent disulfide bonds.

64.

A phospholipid is made up of

a)

A glycerol molecule with three fatty acids attached.

b)

A nitrogenous base attached to a ribose that has a phosphate attached.

c)

A glycogen molecule with a ribose and a phosphate attached.

d)

A glycerol molecule with two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached.

65.

The universal genetic code that all life is based on is:

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

d)

Protein

66.

Any large molecule made up of repeated simple subunits is called:

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A polymer

d)

A monomer

67.

According to all the information in this graph, the enzyme worked best at 40°C

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The variable in an experiment that we control or manipulate is the:

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Dependent variable

c)

Control

d)

Independent variable

69.

The main long-term energy storage polysaccharide in plants is

a)

starch

b)

glycogen

c)

cellulose

d)

glucose

70.

Molecules like the one pictured above are the subunits that go together to form:

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

71.

How long ago did prokaryotes first appear in the fossil record?

a)

3000 years ago

b)

4.6 billin years ago

c)

1.5 billion years ago

d)

3.5 billion years ago

72.

The first person to use a simple microscope to discover living things too small to see by eye was:

a)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Aristotle

c)

Carl Woese

d)

Robert Hooke

73.

Why did cell biology take off as a science after the development of textile dyes in the 1800’s?

a)

Scientists worked better wearing brightly-colored clothes.

b)

The dyes were also very useful for making cell structures visible.

c)

The scientist had more time to work because they didn’t need to wash their clothes as often.

d)

The scientists made a lot of money on their work in the textile field and were able to retire and study whatever they wanted.

74.

A lysosome is

a)

A specialized vesicle that contains digestive enzymes for breaking down food particles and recycling cell components.

b)

A type of disinfectant.

c)

A specialized vesicle that carries cell products out of the cell.

d)

A specialized vesicle for carrying proteins from the ER to the Golgi when they need to be modified.

75.

Diffusion is

a)

The hardening of a membrane due to a high concentration of cholesterol.

b)

A type of jazz music played by the band Spirogyra.

c)

Water moving through a semi-permeable membrane due to differences in solute concentration.

d)

Molecules moving due to their kinetic energy, from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

76.

Four structures we would find in all cells.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosomes

c)

DNA

d)

Mitochondria

e)

Cell Membrane

77.

If the concentration of a solute outside a cell is the same as the concentration inside the cell, we say that the solution is:

a)

Hypersonic in relation to the cell.

b)

Hypertonic in relation to the cell.

c)

Hypotonic in relation to the cell.

d)

Isotonic in relation to the cell.

78.

Osmosis is a passive process (just driven by diffusion) that does not need energy from the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

How long ago did eukaryotes first appear in the fossil record?

a)

3000 years ago

b)

4.6 billion years ago

c)

1.5 billion years ago

d)

3.5 billion years ago

80.

What do ribosomes do?

a)

They coat the outside of bacteria and help them move around.

b)

They control where different structures in the cell go when cells divide.

c)

They make new membranes and modify some proteins.

d)

They are part of the machinery that builds new proteins using the coded information stored in DNA.

81.

Which of the following organisms is a prokaryote?

a)

A human

b)

A fungus

c)

A cactus

d)

A E. coli

82.

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)? 

a)

It contains the genetic information that controls the cell.

b)

It releases energy for the cell from stored food molecules.

c)

It is where new membranes and many proteins are made, and where some proteins are modified.

d)

It helps control where different structures in the cell go when cells divide.

83.

What is the function of the nucleus?

a)

It controls most processes in the cell and contains the genetic information (DNA) of the cell.

b)

It helps control where different structures in the cell go when cells divide. It also takes sunlight from the sun and stores the energy as sugars.

c)

It releases energy for the cell from stored food molecules.

d)

It is where new membranes are made, and where some proteins are modified.

84.

If we say a membrane is permeable to a particular type of molecule, it means:

a)

That molecule can diffuse freely through the membrane.

b)

Only curly molecules can go through the membrane.

c)

That molecule can go through by osmosis.

d)

That molecule can only go through when assisted by active transport.

85.

If the microscope you are using has a 10X ocular (eyepiece) lens and you choose the 40X objective lens, what is the total magnification?

a)

4000X

b)

400X

c)

50X

d)

30X

86.

What are the main functions of a membrane?

a)

To protect and contain the cell.

b)

To control the flow of materials in and out of the cell.

c)

To control the production of new materials in the cell.

d)

Only A and B are the main functions of membranes.

e)

All three are main functions of membranes.

87.

Which of the following means “true nucleus”?

a)

Archae

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Prokaryote

88.

A covalent bond happens when

a)

atoms find that they have interests in common and spend a lot of time together.

b)

polar molecules are attracted to the oppositely charged parts of other polar molecules

c)

one atom loses and electron and another gains it, the resulting opposite charges cause them to be attracted to each other.

d)

two atoms share a pair of electrons. Each electron ends orbiting both nuclei.

89.

The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable is called:

a)

Stabilification

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Sexual reproduction

90.

What are the two main groups of prokaryotes?

a)

True bacteria and Archaeabacteria

b)

Archaeabacteria and fungi

c)

True bacteria and protozoa

d)

True bacteria and fungi

91.

When a Hydra grows buds that eventually drop off and become new independent Hydras, this is an example of:

a)

Asexual reproduction, and the offspring are a mix of the traits of the parents.

b)

Sexual reproduction, and the offspring are just copies of the parent.

c)

Asexual reproduction, and the offspring are just copies of the parent.

d)

Sexual reproduction, and the offspring are a mix of the traits of the parents.

92.

If we dissolve salt in water, which is the solute? 

a)

The salt

b)

Both together once the salt has dissolved.

c)

The water.

d)

It depends on whether there is more water, or more salt.

93.

In what kind of cells would you find chloroplasts?

a)

In bacteria cells only

b)

In animal cells only

c)

In all kinds of cells

d)

In plant cells only

94.

The movement of water through a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration, because the solute itself can’t pass through the membrane, is called: 

a)

Active transport

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

95.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three statements of modern cell theory developed by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow? 

a)

All new cells come from previous cells

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)

Cells are the smallest unit of life.

d)

All cells get their energy (directly or indirectly) from the sun

96.

Which of the following is one of the main differences between True Bacteria and Archaeabacteria?

a)

Only Archaeabacteria have circular chromosomes loose in the cell.

b)

True bacteria are mainly found in very extreme environments.

c)

Only true bacteria have cell walls.

d)

Their ribosomes are very different.

97.

The word “prokaryote” means:

a)

No nucleus

b)

No mitochondria

c)

Before nucleus

d)

In favor of nuclei

98.

What are membranes mainly made up of?

a)

A lipid bilayer and some proteins

b)

A lipid bilayer and DNA

c)

Only a lipid bilayer

d)

A lipid bilayer and some carbohydraes

99.

Why do lipids in a membrane assemble into a bilayer?

a)

They have a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail. When they are surrounded by water, the hydrophobic heads all gather together away from the water, and the hydrophilic tails move into the water. They end up lined up with heads on the inside and tails on the outside in two layers.

b)

They have a positively charged head and a negatively charged tail. Since these repel each other, all the heads line up together and all the tails line up together.

c)

They have a hydrophobic tail and a hydrophilic head. When they are surrounded by water, the hydrophobic tails all gather together away from the water, and the hydrophilic heads move into the water. They end up lined up with tails on the inside and heads on the outside in two layers.

d)

In the cell, little devices called chalazas carefully glue lipids together in the right way to end up with a double layer for extra insulation.

100.

If a cell contains 1% salt, and the solution around it contains 5% salt, what will most likely happen to the cell?

a)

The cell will lose water because the solution around it is isotonic compared to the cell.

b)

The cell will lose water because the solution around it is hypertonic compared to the cell.

c)

The cell won’t change, because the solution around it is isotonic compared to the cell.

d)

The cell will absorb water because the solution around it is hypertonic compared to the cell.

101.

If you dissolved 10 grams of sugar in 100 ml of water, what would the concentration be (in g/ml)?

a)

90 g/ml

b)

0.1 g/ml

c)

0.01 g/ml

d)

1000 g/ml

102.

Which of the following is NOT part of the cytoskeleton? 

a)

Microtubules

b)

The radius and ulna

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Microfilaments

103.

Which of the following is a description of a typical prokaryotic cell?

a)

It has many organelles including chloroplasts, but no nucleus.

b)

It has a coating of protein over a DNA or RNA chromosome, and nothing else.

c)

It has a cell membrane, a nucleus, mitochondria, smooth and rough ER, ribosomes, and several chromosomes.

d)

It has a cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and a circular chromosome made of DNA.

104.

Where are proteins taken in transport vesicles to be modified or packaged for export from the cell?

a)

In the Ribosomes.

b)

In the Golgi apparatus.

c)

In the Nucleolus

d)

In the Mitochondria.

105.

How do viruses reproduce?

a)

They go through meiosis to make gametes that then can combine during sexual reproduction.

b)

They take over a host cell and turn it into a factory for making new viruses, using all its energy and raw materials in the process.

c)

They go to the local SuperTargMart and buy new copies of themselves.

d)

They just spontaneously divide in two, budding off a new virus, every now and then.

106.

Why aren’t virus particles usually considered alive when they aren’t infecting a host cell?

a)

They aren’t made of cells

b)

They can’t reproduce on their own or evolve

c)

They don’t carry out any chemical reactions

d)

All the above are true.

107.

The overall reaction of photosynthesis is:

a)

6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy from light → C6H12O6 + 6 O2

b)

6 CO2 + 6 H2O → 6 O2 + ATP +NADPH

c)

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 36 ATP

d)

3 CO2 + 3 H2O + energy from light → C6H12O6 + 3 O2

108.

Which step of cellular respiration produces most of the ATP?

a)

Electron Transport Chain

b)

Photosystem II

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Krebs cycle

109.

The Calvin cycle (the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis):

a)

Breaks down glucose (C6H12O6) to ATP.

b)

Uses the energy from photons of light to split water, producing oxygen, ATP, and NADPH.

c)

Uses the energy from photons of light to carry out cold fusion.

d)

Uses CO2, ATP, and NADPH to make glucose (C6H12O6).

110.

Diffusion is:

a)

Water moving through a semi-permeable membrane due to differences in solute concentration.

b)

A type of jazz music played by the band Spirogyra.

c)

The hardening of a membrane due to a high concentration of cholesterol.

d)

Molecules moving due to their kinetic energy, from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

111.

A phospholipid is made up of

a)

A glycerol molecule with three fatty acids attached.

b)

A glycogen molecule with a ribose and a phosphate attached.

c)

A nitrogenous base attached to a ribose that has a phosphate attached.

d)

A glycerol molecule with two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached.

112.

In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, what molecule picks up the electrons at the end?

a)

Oxygen

b)

FADH2

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

NADPH

113.

Which step is the beginning of photosynthesis?

a)

Pigments such as chlorophyll in Photosystem I absorb light.

b)

High-energy electrons move through the electron transport chain.

c)

ATP synthase allows H+ ions to pass through the thylakoid membrane.

d)

Pigments such as chlorophyll in Photosystem II absorb light.

114.

If the pH of the solution an enzyme is in is lowered a lot (compared to the pH in which it works best), the most likely effect on the enzyme is that

a)

It will denature the protein and it will stop working.

b)

It will have no effect on the enzyme’s reaction rate.

c)

It will speed up the enzyme’s reaction rate.

d)

It will slightly slow down the enzyme’s reaction rate.

115.

An example of facilitated diffusion is the

a)

Movement of glucose from high concentration to low concentration with the help of the glucose transporter protein.

b)

Movement of glucose across the thylakoid membrane by the ATP synthase enzyme.

c)

Movement of glucose from low concentration to high concentration with the help of the glucose pump protein.

d)

Movement of glucose from high concentration to low concentration by moving directly through the membrane.

116.

The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis:

a)

Use the energy from photons of light to split water, producing oxygen, hydrogen ions, ATP, and NADPH.

b)

Break down glucose (C6H12O6) to ATP.

c)

Use the energy from photons of light to carry out cold fusion.

d)

Use CO2, ATP, and NADPH to make glucose (C6H12O6).

117.

In the 1918 “Spanish” flu pandemic, why did only 20% of the people exposed to the influenza virus get sick?

a)

Some people ran fast enough that the virus couldn’t catch up to them.

b)

Many people were able to take antibiotics to kill the virus.

c)

People in the military aren’t allowed to get sick.

d)

Some people naturally were more resistant than others to that particular version of the virus.

118.

The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place in

a)

The mitochondria

b)

The thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts

c)

The stroma of chloroplasts

d)

The cytoplasm

119.

Molecules like the one pictured above are the subunits that go together to form:

a)

Proteins

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

120.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

ATP is exposed to sunlight.

b)

A phosphate group is added.

c)

A phosphate group is removed.

d)

Adenine bonds to ribose.

121.

What happens during the Krebs (citric acid) cycle?

a)

Water is broken down to hydrogen ions and oxygen, and ATP and high-energy electrons are produced.

b)

Glucose is broken down to pyruvate molecules and high-energy electrons are produced.

c)

The ATP and NADPH from the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are used to make glucose from carbon dioxide.

d)

Pyruvate molecules are broken down to carbon dioxide molecules, and ATP, NADH, and FADH2 are produced.

122.

How many ATP molecules are produced from each glucose during the entire cellular respiration process?

a)

2

b)

It depends on how long the process takes.

c)

36

d)

24

123.

Generally speaking, viruses are made of:

a)

Membrane wrapped around a nucleus

b)

Little A’s, T’s, G’s and C’s, floating around in a miniature glass bubble.

c)

Proteins wrapped around some genetic information (RNA or DNA)

d)

Small crystals of silicon, arranged in a matrix capable of sucking the energy out of cells

124.

Which of the following is used for medium to long-term energy storage in cells?

a)

Carbohydrates such as sugars like glucose

b)

ATP

c)

Very small rechargeable batteries

d)

NADPH

125.

In the diagram of a chloroplast above,

a)

“A” is the spindle, and “B” is the chalaza

b)

“A” is the cytoplasm, and “B” is the mitochondrion

c)

“A” is the stroma, and “B” is a granum

d)

“A” is a granum, and “B” is a thylakoid

126.

What are the main functions of a membrane?

a)

To protect and contain the cell.

b)

To control the flow of materials in and out of the cell.

c)

To control the production of new materials in the cell.

d)

Only A and B are the main functions of membranes.

e)

All three are main functions of membranes.

127.

Why are controlled experiments important in science?

a)

They cost less to carry out.

b)

Uncontrolled experiments might cause an explosion, mess, or very bad smell.

c)

If we only change one variable at a time, then we know that any differences we see between our treatment and our control are due to that specific change.

d)

It is easier to keep track of things if we always use the same amounts.

128.

What electron carrier molecule is involved in photosynthesis?

a)

ATP

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADPH

129.

During glycolysis, ATP and NADH are produced when:

a)

Glucose is split to form carbon dioxide molecules.

b)

Glucose is split to form two pyruvate molecules.

c)

Glucose is split to form two protein molecules.

d)

Two pyruvate molecules are combined to form glucose.

130.

The order of amino acids in a protein is the

a)

Tertiary structure of the protein

b)

Quaternary structure of the protein

c)

Secondary structure of the protein

d)

Primary structure of the protein

131.

If carbon dioxide is removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to its production of high-energy sugars like glucose?

a)

Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of sugars in plants.

b)

Fewer sugars would be produced.

c)

More sugars would be produced.

d)

The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide in them.

132.

Viruses have been found to infect nearly all types of life, including plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

The form of viral infection where the virus invades the cell, shuts down its normal functions, turns it into a virus-producing factory, and often kills the cell is called

a)

A cryptic infection

b)

A bacterial infection

c)

A lysogenic infection

d)

A lytic infection

134.

True or False: Antibiotics are an effective treatment for diseases caused by viruses.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Because fermentation does not require oxygen, it is said to be:

a)

A passive process.

b)

An anaerobic process.

c)

A quadratic process.

d)

An aerobic process.

136.

Osmosis is a passive process (just driven by diffusion) that does not need energy from the cell.

a)

True

b)

False