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Before the EOC Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The amount of energy the producers in this energy pyramid provide the primary consumer is 54,000 joules. From this amount, 540 joules are provided to the tertiary consumers. Based on this model, how much of the energy was provided to secondary consumers?

a)

53,460 J

b)

5,400 J

c)

540 J

d)

54 J

2.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

3.

The green frog (Lithobates clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog. Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5,000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

4.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem. An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

5.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material. This exchange of genetic material

a)

increases the genetic variation

b)

reduces the diploid number to the haploid number

c)

increases the haploid number to the diploid number

d)

reduces the probability of mutations

6.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. The family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family’s geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

7.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

8.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in the diagrams?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

9.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

10.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve a way the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutions to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

11.
Name the photosynthesizing organelle of the plant cell.
a)
G
b)
B
c)
J
d)
C
12.
Name the process in the picture.
a)
transcription
b)
mitosis
c)
translation
d)
replication
13.
What process is occurring in the picture?
a)
DNA replication
b)
mitosis
c)
protein synthesis
d)
meiosis
14.
Which number contains the nucleic acid?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
15.
Which gas is filling the balloon in the experiment?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon Dioxide
c)
Glucose
d)
Water
16.
Name B.
a)
phosophate
b)
glucose
c)
deoxyribose
d)
nitrogen base
17.
What type of punnett square?
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
sex linked recessive
18.
How do viruses reproduce?
a)
They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.
b)
They kill a cell and reproduce inside it.
c)
They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material.
d)
They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things.
19.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
20.
Which of the following is a possible result of a disruption in the cell cycle?
a)
cancer
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cellular respiration
d)
protein synthesis
21.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
22.
This cell is undergoing mitosis.  What stage of mitosis is shown?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
23.
The ability to taste a bitter chemical called PTC is a dominant trait in humans.  The Punnett square below shows a cross between two parents who are heterozygous for the ability to taste this chemical.  What is the probability, expressed as a percentage, that these parents will produce an offspring who is homozygous recessive for the tasting trait?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
24.
A strand of DNA with the sequence A-C-T-T-G serves as a template to form a strand of mRNA with the sequence U-G-A-A-C.  During which process would this happen?
a)
replication
b)
transcription
c)
translation
d)
meiosis
25.
The diagram summarizes two stages in the production of the specialized cells used for sexual reproduction.
What happens in the stage labeled "process 2"?
a)
The chromosomes cross over.
b)
Th chromosomes number is reduced by half.
c)
The chromosomes move to opposite end of the cell.
d)
Four identical gametes form.
26.
Proteins are formed in the cytoplasm of cell using genetic instructions from DNA, which is located in the cells nucleus.  Which of the following best explains how the genetic information gets to the site of protein synthesis?
a)
DNA is divided during mitosis, and one strand travels outside the nucleus to bind with RNA and form a protein
b)
DNA is copied to make mRNA. The mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the ribosomes, where the information is used to guide protein synthesis.
c)
Genetic information travels from DNA in the nucleus along a strand of mRNA that is connected to ribosomes in the cytoplasm where proteins are made.
d)
The genetic code is transferred to ribosomes on tRNA molecules, which can pass through the nuclear membrane.
27.
The diagram shows the base sequence of a strand of DNA.
From left to right, what is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA in this molecule?
a)
T G A A C
b)
A C T  T G
c)
T G U U C
d)
U C T T G
28.
The legs of crocodiles and mice have similar bone structures and develop in a similar way.  What type of structures are the leg bones?
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossilized structures
d)
vestigial structures
29.
The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature.  What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?
a)
genus and species
b)
class and genus
c)
class and species
d)
domain and kingdom
30.

Complete the sentence with the correct word.


________________ is how many organisms an area can support for an extended period of time.

a)

Abiotic

b)

Limiting factors

c)

Biotic

d)

Carrying capacity

31.

Complete the sentence with the correct word.


________________ are the things that affect population size.

a)

Abiotic

b)

Limiting factors

c)

Biotic

d)

Carrying capacity

32.

What is "abiotic" ?

a)

living

b)

non-living

33.

What is "biotic" ?

a)

living

b)

non-living

34.

What images represent abiotic factors?

Choose all that are correct.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
35.

What images represent biotic factors?

Choose all that are correct.

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
36.

What graph represents carrying capacity?

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

An organism that obtains energy by eating other organisms is a ___________.

a)

Decomposer

b)

Consumer

c)

Producer

38.

_____________ break down dead and/or decaying matter.

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Decomposers

39.
In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of Thymine, then how much Guanine would be present?
a)
30%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
10%
40.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
41.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
42.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
43.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
44.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
45.
What are the building blocks of proteins ?
a)
monosaccharides
b)
nucleotides
c)
ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
46.
21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?
a)
3 amino acids
b)
5 amino acids
c)
7 amino acids
d)
9 amino acids
47.
Three nucleotide bases on a strand of mRNA are a(n) ____.
a)
mutation
b)
chromosome
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
48.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

49.
What word describes the process of having the advantageous traits that helps an organism survive  and reproduce?
a)
natural selection
b)
adaptation
c)
mutation
d)
genetic engineering
50.
All mutations and adaptations usually lead to what process?
a)
selective breeding
b)
behavioral
c)
natural selection
d)
genetic engineering
51.
Why do frogs and other organism reproduce so many eggs or offspring?
a)
so that their babies can have friends to play with
b)
the more offspring the more likely the offspring will survive
c)
the more offspring the less likely offspring will survive 
d)
the more offspring the less competition
52.
Which organisms are most likely to survive?
a)
the best adapted
b)
the fastest
c)
the strongest
d)
the most domesticated (tamed)
53.
Which of the following means "genetic change over time"
a)
natural selection
b)
speciation
c)
evolution
d)
fitness
54.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
55.
The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
56.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
57.
order of replication
a)
3, 4, 2, 1
b)
3, 1, 4, 2
c)
2, 1, 4, 3
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
58.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
59.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
60.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
61.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. 
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
62.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
63.
What are the four macromolecules?
a)
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
b)
monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccaharides, and proteins
c)
RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
d)
proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
64.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

65.
The molecule show is a ______ and is the building block of _____.
a)
monosaccharide, carbohydrate
b)
fatty acid, lipid
c)
nucleotide, nucleic acids
d)
amino acid, protein
66.
A rigid layer that lies outside the cell's  membrane is...
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Cilia
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Flagella
67.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
68.
What type of cells have a cell wall and chloroplasts?
a)
Plant cells
b)
Animal cells
c)
Plant and animal cells
d)
Neither plant NOR animal cells
69.
What is the structure labeled #5?
a)
Vacuole
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Lysosome
70.
What is the structure labeled #9?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondria
71.
Label I
a)
nucleolus
b)
lysosome
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
nucleus
72.

How do we write DOMINANT alleles?

a)

Capital letters

b)

Lower case

73.

How do we write recessive alleles?

a)

Capital letters

b)

Lower case

74.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
75.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)

the possible combination of alleles in a gene (what you can't see)

c)

The physical traits (what you can see)

d)
how an organism will appear
76.

Squidward has light blue skin, and his genotype for this trait is Bb. Which of the following would describe Squidward?

a)

Purebred

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous

d)

Sex-linked

77.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
78.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
79.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
80.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
81.
Two heterozygous (Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
75%tall and 25% short
c)
100%short
82.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
83.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

84.
How many alleles does an individual have for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
85.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X R X r ?

a)

male with white eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with red eyes

d)

female with white eyes

86.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is the sex and eye color of flies with the following genotype: X r Y ?

a)

male with red eyes

b)

female with red eyes

c)

male with white eyes

d)

female with white eyes

87.

H= normal blood clotting

h=hemophilia


XHXh x XHY


What is the probability that any of their offspring will have hemophilia?

a)

4/4

b)

3/4

c)

2/4

d)

1/4

88.

Look at this cross: XBXb x XBY

Colorblindness is a recessive sex-linked trait.

What proportion of the male children are colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

89.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
90.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
91.
The correct order of the phases of mitosis and meiosis could be abbreviated as:
a)
MAPT
b)
PAMT
c)
TPAM
d)
PMAT
92.
Which of the following phases of mitosis is represented by the diagram below?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
93.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
94.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase I
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
 Metaphase I
95.
About 96% of the information in human DNA is found in gorilla DNA. This evidence supports which statement?
a)
Humans evolved from gorillas.
b)
Gorillas and humans diverged from a common ancestor.
c)
As gorillas evolve, they will become more similar to humans.
d)
Gorillas and humans are too different for meaningful genetic comparisons.
96.

Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species. Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?

a)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time as did the skull.

b)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.

c)

There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.

d)

The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size

97.

Based on the illustration to the right, what do the similarities between human and chimpanzee hands and feet suggest about the different organisms?

a)

Chimpanzees and humans both have hands and feet adapted for walking upright, showing they have identical DNA.

b)

Chimpanzees and humans both have similar hands for grasping, proving they make and use complex tools.

c)

Humans and chimpanzees both developed five digits on their hands and feet, suggesting they have a common ancestor.

d)

Humans and chimpanzees both have thumbs, proving they eat similar foods like meat, nuts, and vegetation.

98.
Which of the following correctly summarizes the physical changes that early humans went through over the past million years or so?
a)
Brain size increased as jaw size decreased
b)
Brain size decreased as jaw size increased
c)
Bipedalism increased as use of tools increased
d)
Bipedalism decreased as the use of tools increased
99.

The illustration below shows four lobes of the human brain.


What lobe is designated by label 2?

a)

temporal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

100.

Which lobe of the brain is designated by number 4?

a)

Occipital Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Frontal Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

101.

What structure is red in this picture?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

102.
An idea that is probably true, but has not yet been proven to be true; based on research and data.
Example: "Modern day humans and apes evolved from a common ancestor.
a)
Fact
b)
Theory
c)
Law
d)
Belief
103.
What are the variations of mice in this environment?
a)
white and grey
b)
short and tall
c)
red and green
d)
long fur and short fur
104.
Which layer is the youngest
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
105.
Which layer is the oldest
a)
B
b)
A
c)
E
d)
C
106.

The picture shows a/an ___________

a)

homologous structure

b)

vestigial structure

107.
The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they---
a)
are descended from a common ancestor
b)
Have very similar skeletal structures
c)
belong to the same species
d)
must range great distances to eat
108.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

109.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
110.
Which is not evidence for evolution?
a)
many animals have homologous structures due to common ancestry
b)
Many animals have vestigial structures from an ancestor
c)
We can observe changes in life forms by observing the fossil record
d)
All of these are evidence for evolution
111.
If two organisms have similar traits of DNA they are probably
a)
share a common ancestor
b)
share a common environment
c)
share a common population
d)
speciation
112.

Which statement best describes Blood Pressure?

a)

The Force applied on the Blood Vessels by the Heart

b)

It’s Normal and Healthy to have extended periods of High Blood Pressure.

c)

Your Blood Pressure is Higher when you Sleep.

d)

Being Nervous can Decrease your Blood Pressure.

113.

When an individual has Atherosclerosis, it forms Plaque within the Arteries.

How does Atherosclerosis affect Blood Flow?

a)

Arterial plaque clogs the arteries, limiting or stopping blood flow.

b)

Arterial plaque changes the direction of blood flow, which forces oxygenated blood to the heart.

c)

Arterial plaque changes the size of blood cells, which prevents blood from flowing in the arteries.

d)

Arterial plaque clears the arteries, increasing blood flow.

114.

Flexibility in blood vessels allows the vessels to stretch and move based on changes in Blood Volume. Conditions like Hypertension can cause the arteries to harden and lose their Flexibility.

How would the hardening of the arteries most likely affect Blood Flow?

a)

The hardening of the arteries would likely cause blood flow to remain constant.

b)

The hardening of the arteries would likely increase blood flow.

c)

The hardening of the arteries would likely cause blood flow to stop completely.

d)

The hardening of the arteries would likely restrict blood flow.

115.

Arteriosclerosis is a disease which clogs arteries in the human body. In arteriosclerosis, artery walls become thick. Fatty deposits build up on inner walls of arteries. This condition reduces the ability of arteries to perform their function. The diagram above shows a comparison between a healthy artery and one with arteriosclerosis. Which of the following explains how Atherosclerosis affects the Body?

a)

Decreases the circulation of Blood to tissues

b)

Assembles Amino Acids into Proteins

c)

Replaces damaged Cells with new Cells

d)

Breaks down Food particles into Molecules

116.

A Doctor prescribes a Blood Thinner, like Aspirin, to a patient with a Heart Condition.

How will this Blood Thinner affect the Flow and Viscosity of Blood?

a)

The Blood Thinner will Increase the Flow and Decrease the Viscosity

b)

The Blood Thinner will Decrease the Flow and Increase the Viscosity

c)

The Blood Thinner will Increase the Flow and the Viscosity

d)

The Blood Thinner will Decrease the Flow and the Viscosity

117.

If there is an Increase in Blood Viscosity, then there will be a ________ in Resistance flowing within the Blood Vessels.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

118.

If the Arteries are Narrow and Hard, the Blood Pressure is likely to be _____ than Normal

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

119.

An Athlete comes in Dehydrated from the Field because his body lacks ALOT of Fluids.

How does Dehydration affect the Flow and Viscosity of Blood?

a)

Dehydration will Increase the Flow and Decrease the Viscosity

b)

Dehydration will Decrease the Flow and Increase the Viscosity

c)

Dehydration will Increase the Flow and the Viscosity

d)

Dehydration will Decrease the Flow and the Viscosity

120.
Which is an example of passive immunity?
a)
You have been infected
b)
You have been vaccinated
c)
You made antibodies
d)
You got your mother's antibodies
121.
Which of the following is an example of active immunity?
a)
You get a vaccination
b)
You create antibodies
c)
You get infected
d)
All of these are correct
122.
If you are feeling ill and the doctor prescribes you some antibiotics to help you feel better, you are infected with a _______
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
123.
What is the first barrier against disease?
a)
White blood cells
b)
Red blood cells
c)
the skin
d)
leucocytes 
124.

A/an ________ is an injection of a weakened form of a pathogen to help the individual gain immunity from a disease.

a)

Virus

b)

Vacuum

c)

Vaccine

d)

Antibiotic

125.

Which of the following help to make up the 1st line of defense?

a)

white blood cells, histamine

b)

t cells, b cells antibodies

c)

skin, hair, chemical secretions such as mucus, saliva and tears

d)

Skin, histamine

126.

Which of the following are involved in the 3rd line of defence?

a)

B cells, T helper cells, Killer T cells, Antibodies

b)

B cells, T helper cells, Killer T cells, Antigens

c)

skin, hair, chemicals such as mucus, tears and saliva

d)

Histamines, and Phagocytic White blood cells (macrophages)

127.

The third line of defense helps to

a)

prevent pathogens from entering body

b)

fight all types pathogens once they have entered the body

c)

fight off specific pathogens, and remember pathogens that have previously invaded

128.

B cells are a type of white blood cell involved in the 3rd line of defense. B cells

a)

Help to activate other white blood cells such as killer T cells and B cells

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Produce antigens

d)

Kill pathogenic cells

129.
The diagram shows the female reproductive system. The part labelled B is called  
a)
sperm 
b)
the egg  
c)
the womb  
d)
the ovary 
130.

After fertilization the zygote increases in size and travels down the Fallopian tube to become embedded in the walls of the uterus. This process is known as

a)
implantation
b)
ovulation
c)
menstruation
d)
conception
131.

The letters in the diagram indicate structures present in a human male.

What change would occur immediately if both

structures labeled B were damaged or blocked?

a)

Structure A would decrease in size.

b)

The blood supply to structure E would decrease.

c)

Gametes (sperm) would no longer be transported to

structure C to exit the body

d)

Structure D would be able to deliver more

gametes.

132.

What is the gland that produces a fluid that aids sperm longevity. It lies beneath the bladder and surrounds the urethra.

a)

vas deferens

b)

prostate gland

c)

erectile tissue

d)

testicles

133.

What are the two small glands at the ends of each vas deferens that secrete an alkaline fluid rich in fructose (sugar nutrient) that serves as a source of energy for sperm?

a)

vas deferns

b)

seminal vesicles

c)

erectile tissue

d)

bladder

134.

Natural Passive Immunity comes from...

a)

Mother's breast milk.

b)

Antibodies from other sources injected into the human bloodstream.

135.
Why is alcohol so harmful to a fetus?
a)

It damages the placenta while the brain is developing leading to future developmental problems.

b)

It tastes real bad and the baby doesn't like how it taste.

c)

It does not cause any risk to the fetal development of the baby

d)
Because the fetus is under 21
136.
What happens when a fertilized egg splits into two?
a)
Fraternal twins
b)
Identical twins
c)
Nothing, you just have one baby. 
d)
Triplets
137.

This tiny organism spends its day reproducing rapidly (about once every 20 minutes), often inside the bodies of other organisms. Its genetic material is not contained inside a nucleus.

a)

Eubacteria

b)

Protista

c)

Fungi

d)

Plantae

138.

This organism spends its day in hot gases and molten rock deep within the earth. This type of tiny organism existed billions of years ago.

a)

Fungi

b)

Eubacteria

c)

Archaebacteria

d)

Animalia

139.

This organism spends its day taking in carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen through its stomata. It never eats but can grow many meters tall.

a)

Fungi

b)

Plantae

c)

Protista

d)

Animalia

140.

What is the difference between a fungus and a plant?

a)

Fungi are autotrophic and the plants are heterotrophic

b)

Fungi are heterotrophic and the plants are autotrophic

c)

Plants can move but fungi cannot move

d)

Plants are multicellular and animals are unicellular

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