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AP Unit 8 Ecology Review

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A researcher is investigating the relationship between the existing species diversity in a community and the ability of an introduced nonnative species to destabilize the community.


Which of the following graphs is most consistent with the claim that communities with high diversity are more resistant to change than are communities with low diversity?

a)
b)
c)
d)
2.

Under which of the following conditions is the observed number of beetles per culture dish the greatest?

a)

T. confusum with parasite at 500 days

b)

T. confusum without parasite at 300 days

c)

T. castaneum with parasite at 100 days

d)

T. castaneum with parasite at 600 days

3.

The data over the duration of the experiment provide the strongest support for which of the following conclusions regarding the effect of the parasite on Tribolium populations?

a)

T. confusum is adversely affected by the parasite, while T. castaneum is not.

b)

T. castaneum is adversely affected by the parasite, while T. confusum is not.

c)

Both T. confusum and T. castaneum are adversely affected by the parasite.

d)

Both T. confusum and T. castaneum show increased fitness in the presence of the parasite.

4.

In Figure I, the difference between the two curves can best be attributed to which of the following?

a)

The difference between controlled laboratory conditions and the natural environment

b)

The effect of the host on its parasite

c)

The influence of competition for limited resources

d)

The natural variation among populations

5.

If the experiment was continued for an additional 500 days, the population density of T. castaneum with the parasite would most likely stabilize at a value closest to which of the following?

a)

5 beetles/culture dish

b)

10 beetles/culture dish

c)

20 beetles/culture dish

d)

25 beetles/culture dish

6.

Beaked whales feed at various depths, but they defecate at the ocean’s surface. Nitrogen-rich whale feces deposited in surface waters supply nutrients for algae that are eaten by surfacedwelling fish. Which of the following best predicts what would happen if the whale population decreased?

a)

There would be a reduction in surface nitrogen concentration, which would cause an algal bloom.

b)

The surface fish populations would decline due to reduced populations of algae.

c)

The remaining whales would accumulate mutations at a faster rate.

d)

The remaining whales would be forced to forage in the deepest parts of the ocean.

7.

In the Arctic Ocean, the predominant primary producers are phytoplankton. Phytoplankton are consumed by zooplankton, which in turn are eaten by codfish. In years when there is more open water (less ice coverage), there are more zooplankton and fish than in years with less open water (more ice coverage). Based on the graph above, the difference is most likely because

a)

when there is less open water, light is blocked from the zooplankton, so they cannot produce as much food for the fish

b)

when there is more open water, the temperature is warmer, so the zooplankton and fish populations increase in size

c)

the ice blocks the light, so in years with more ice coverage, there is less photosynthesis by the phytoplankton

d)

the ice increases the light available for photosynthesis, so primary production increases and zooplankton populations increase in size

8.

In Figure I, the difference between the two curves can best be attributed to which of the following?

a)

The difference between controlled laboratory conditions and the natural environment

b)

The effect of the host on its parasite

c)

The influence of competition for limited resources

d)

The natural variation among populations

9.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed between two organisms fighting for a mating partner?

a)

intersexual selection

b)

intrasexual selection

c)

agonistic behavior

d)

aggressive behavior

10.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed between one organism choosing a mate?

a)

intersexual selection

b)

intrasexual selection

c)

agonistic behavior

d)

aggressive behavior

11.

Which of the following describes the behavior of a flock of geese following the mother in a straight line?

a)

maternal connection

b)

imprinting

c)

innate behavior

d)

conditioning

12.

Which of the following describes an example of classical conditioning?

a)

A dog determines when they scratch at the bag of food, the bag will open and some pieces fall out.

b)

A cat determines if they ring a bell their owner will feed them

c)

A rat determines that when the lights turn on a person walks into the room so they run when the lights turn on

d)

A horse determines when they don't jump high enough their rider whips them harder

13.

Which of the following types of signals would be used for two organisms mating by a ritualistic dance?

a)

chemical

b)

visual

c)

auditory

d)

tactile

14.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed when a stickleback fish sees the color red and begins to attack?

a)

aggressive behavior

b)

forging behavior

c)

altruistic behavior

d)

innate behavior

15.

Which of the following describes why ants scatter when you break their trail?

a)

ants are attached to the ant in front of them

b)

ants are following a chemical trail, so they lose the trail

c)

ants are following a path and will not scatter if you break the trail

d)

ants are attached to the substrate and will not scatter if you break the trail

16.

Which of the following describes the behavior of an ectotherm?

a)

The ectotherm is unable to regulate its body temperature so it will consume more food in cooler environments

b)

The ectotherm is unable to regulate its body temperature so it will move to bask in the sun in cooler environments

c)

The ectotherm is able to regulate its body temperature so it will consume less food in warmer environments

d)

The ectotherm is able to regulate its body temperature so it will hide in the shadows in warmer environments

17.

Which of the following describes the type of signal of the Belding squirrel that made the alarm call regarding the predator?

a)

chemical

b)

tactile

c)

visual

d)

auditory

18.

Which of the following describes the result of a bird that has been cross fostered?

a)

The fostered bird will be able to mate with its own species and will create viable offspring with the foster species

b)

The fostered bird will be unable to mate with its own species and will create viable offspring with the foster species

c)

The fostered bird will be able to mate with its own species and will not create viable offspring with the foster species

d)

The fostered bird will be unable to mate with its own species and will not create viable offspring with the foster species

19.

Which of the following describes the growth rate as N approproaches K?

a)

growth rate increases

b)

growth rate decreases

c)

growth rate is 0

d)

growth rate has no change

20.

Which of the following must be true for the growth rate to equal zero?

a)

birth rate > death rate

b)

birth rate < death rate

c)

birth rate = death rate

d)

2x birth rate = 1/2 death rate

21.

Which of the following describes the distribution of organisms around the watering hole in the Savanna?

a)

clumped distribution

b)

uniform distribution

c)

random distribution

d)

territorial distribution

22.

Which of the following describes the result of a negative r value?

a)

The population size will double.

b)

The population size with half.

c)

The population size will increase.

d)

The population size will decrease.

23.

Which of the following describes a J shaped curve?

a)

high competition

b)

high predation

c)

access to mates

d)

unfavorable habitat

24.

Which type of survivorship describes elephants with high parental care, low death rate of young, and long life spans?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

does not apply

25.

Which of the following describes how disease regulates population?

a)

disease is a density independent factor

b)

disease is a density dependent factor

c)

disease selects for favorable individuals

d)

disease removes unfavorable individuals

26.

A population of fish is growing exponentially. The growth rate of the population is 2.0 and the current population size is 2,500 individuals. How many mice are added to the population each year?

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

2500

d)

5000

27.

You conduct a mark and recapture experiment. You initially capture 20 cats and mark them. After a month, you collect 30 cats and 10 are already marked. What is the estimation for the population?

a)

45

b)

60

c)

75

d)

90

28.

Which of the following describes the population size as the competition of resources increases?

a)

increase of both populations

b)

decrease of both populations

c)

stays the same for both populations

d)

one population increases and the other decreases

29.

Which of the following describes the interaction of a flea and a dog where the flea feeds on the dog and the dog gets infections and irritation from the flea?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

30.

Which of the following describes the interaction of the protozoa in a termite's GI tract where the protozoa digests the cellulose for the termite and the termite gains essential nutrients?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

31.

Cuckoo birds lay their eggs in the nest of warblers. The warblers raise the cuckoo young and the cuckoo chicks provide an odor that deters predators. Which of the following describes the relationship in the absence of predators?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

32.

Cuckoo birds lay their eggs in the nest of warblers. The warblers raise the cuckoo young and the cuckoo chicks provide an odor that deters predators. Which of the following describes the relationship in the presence of predators?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

33.

Which of the following describes what happens when two species compete for the same niche?

a)

both organisms survive and gain appropriate resources

b)

the organism that is more fit obtains less of the resources

c)

the organism that is less fit obtains more of the resources

d)

one of the organisms is excluded due to the absence of resources

34.

Which of the following describes a method NOT used by prey to avoid predation?

a)

Alarm calls

b)

Hiding

c)

Fleeing

d)

Fighting

35.

Which of the following describes why a member of a population would decrease their fitness (alarm call to predator)?

a)

altruistic behavior

b)

cooperative behavior

c)

aggressive behavior

d)

flamboyant behavior

36.

Which of the following describes commensalism?

a)

+/+

b)

+/-

c)

+/0

d)

-/0

37.

Which of the following describes an adaptation of predators to catch and consume prey?

a)

Patience

b)

Sharp Claws & Teeth

c)

Slow Movements

d)

Fight or Flight Response

38.

Which of the following describes the result if two organisms that are undergoing obligate mutualism are separated?

a)

Both organisms thrive

b)

Both organisms die without the interaction of each other

c)

The stronger organism will die without the interaction of the weaker organism

d)

The weaker organism will thrive without the interaction of the stronger organism

39.

Which of the following best describes altruistic behaviors?

a)

a defensive behavior in which organisms huddle all together

b)

a selfless behavior to save the population but risk yourself

c)

a protective behavior describing how organisms migrate

d)

a reproductive behavior for attracting a mate through a ritual

40.

A fruit fly vibrates its wings to serenade a potential mate. Which of the following describes the type of behavior?

a)

audible

b)

tactile

c)

electrical

d)

chemical

41.

A cheetah urinates on a tree. Which of the following types of signals is the cheetah using?

a)

visual

b)

audible

c)

tactile

d)

chemical

42.

A cheetah urinates on a tree. Which of the following describes the purpose of this signal?

a)

indicate dominance

b)

establish territory

c)

find food

d)

ensure reproductive success

43.

Which of the following best describes the body temperature regulation for an alligator?

a)

ectotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism

b)

ectotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors

c)

endotherm that maintains body temperature through metabolism

d)

endotherm that maintains body temperature through behaviors

44.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between metabolic rate per unit body mass and the size of multicellular organisms?

a)

the smaller the organism, the higher the metabolic rate

b)

the larger the organism, the higher the metabolic rate

c)

the higher the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate

d)

the lower the surface area to volume ratio of the cells, the higher the metabolic rate

45.

Which of the following best describes the changes to the trophic structure with a decrease in plant population?

a)

increase in primary and secondary consumers

b)

decrease in primary and secondary consumers

c)

decrease in secondary consumer, increase in primary consumer

d)

increase in secondary consumer, decrease in primary consumer

46.

Which of the following describes the energy resource used by chemosynthetic organisms?

a)

small inorganic molecules preset in their environment

b)

organic molecules broken down by the mitochondria

c)

photons absorbed by chlorophyll in the chloroplast

d)

air movement turns hairs on organismal surface

47.

Which of the following is a material that heterotrophs are unable to metabolize?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

nucleic acids

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

48.

In a population of 100 individuals, 20 individuals are born and there are 5 deaths. What is the r value?


Recall: r = per capita growth rate of population

a)

.05

b)

.15

c)

.20

d)

.25

49.

If the population size is 100 individuals and there is a r value of 0.3, what is dN/dt?


Recall: dN/dt = rN

a)

10

b)

15

c)

30

d)

60

50.

As the population size approaches carrying capacity, dN/dt...

a)

increases steadily

b)

increases slowly

c)

decreases slowly

d)

decreases steadily

51.

Which of the following describes the relationship of the mistletoe that gains resources and harms the mesquite tree that it grows on?

a)

parasitism

b)

commensalism

c)

mutualism

d)

predator/prey

52.

Which of the following describes the disadvantage of little species diversity in a community?

a)

less likely to have immigration

b)

more likely to be consumed by predators

c)

more likely to have mutations

d)

less resilient to changes in the environment

53.

Which of the following is an organism that is disproportionate relative to their abundance and when removed from the ecosystem causes it to collapse?

a)

dominant species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

primary consumer

54.

A group of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following describes HOW the bacteria became resistant?

a)

the bacterial population got changed by the antibiotic in the environment

b)

the bacterial population had random mutations making them favorable in the presence of the antibiotic

c)

the bacterial population consumed the antibiotic providing a food source

d)

the bacterial population uses the antibiotic for reproduction

55.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for exponential growth of an invasive species?

a)

outcompete other organisms

b)

free of predators

c)

free of competition

d)

free of prey

56.
Which of the fallowing has only abiotic factors?
a)
Sunlight, algae, and temperature
b)
Guppy, crab, oxygen
c)
Sunlight, soil, and weather
d)
Algae, temperature, and dog
57.

Which of the following is a biotic factor?

a)

mushroom

b)

air

c)

temperature

d)

rain

58.
What does an herbivore eat?
a)
meat
b)
plants
c)
insects
d)
fish
59.
__________ is an organism that only eats meat for energy.
a)
Omnivore
b)
Borivore
c)
Herbivore
d)
Carnivore
60.
__________ is an organism that eats BOTH plants and animals for energy.
a)
Omnivore
b)
Darnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Herbiovre
61.
What energy role describes an organism that cannot make its own food and therefore gets energy by eating other organisms?
a)
consumer
b)
producer
c)
autotroph
d)
sunlight
62.
These organisms break down decaying biotic wastes and then return the materials to the ecosystem.
a)
decomposers
b)
scavengers
c)
carnivores
d)
producers
63.
All the different populations that live together in an area make up a(n)
a)
community.
b)
ecosystem.
c)
organism.
d)
species.
64.
the entire Earth 
a)
biosphere 
b)
community 
c)
ecosystem 
65.

All of the plants, rocks, air, sunlight, water, animals, in a particular area is called a(n) _________.

a)
ecosystem 
b)
population 
c)
community 
66.
Which is the correct order of ecological levels from basic to complex?
a)
Individual, population, ecosystem, biosphere, community
b)
individual, community, ecosystem, population, biosphere
c)
Individual,population, community, ecosystem, biosphere
d)
Ecosystem, biosphere,community, population, individual
67.

What type of distribution pattern is evenly spaced apart from one another?

a)

Uniform

b)

Clumped

c)

Random

d)

Uneven

68.

This is the most commonly seen distribution pattern. Example: wolves. This is usually because there are resources found in particular areas and the organisms need more space to survive.

a)

Random

b)

Uniform

c)

Clumped

d)

Ueven

69.

What does the yellow line represent?

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

none of the above

70.

This graph has an S shape. What type of growth does this represent?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

71.

This graph is a J shape. What type of growth does this represent?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

72.

Which of the following would not be an example of a density dependent limiting factor?

a)

fire

b)

disease

c)

lack of food

d)

space

73.

Which of the following would not be an example of a density independent factor?

a)

predation

b)

tornado

c)

hurricane

d)

fire

74.

The largest number of individuals that an area can support.

a)

carrying limit

b)

carrying capacity

c)

limiting factor

d)

density ratio

75.
What type of growth curve is pictured?
a)
exponential 
b)
logistic
c)
predator-prey
d)
invasive
76.
A hawk uses the crown of an oak tree to nest
a)
predation
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
d)
competition
77.
A honeybee and wildflower
a)
predation
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
d)
competition
78.
Dolphin uses echo-location to capture fish
a)
predation
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
d)
competition
79.
Younger trees reaching for limited sunlight in a rain forest canopy 
a)
predation
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
d)
competition
80.
Species with a _____ reproductive pattern are prone to extinction due to lower reproductive rates. 
a)
r-selected
b)
irruptive
c)
irregular
d)
K-selected
81.
A pioneer species opportunistically springs up after a forest fire, demonstrating a ___ reproductive pattern.
a)
r-selected
b)
cyclical
c)
irregular
d)
K-selected
82.
A human & a Tape Worm: The tape worm gets a place to live in the intestines of the human and food from the human. The human loses weight and nutrients from the tape worm.
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
83.

What percent of energy at each trophic level moves to the next trophic level?

a)

10%

b)

1%

c)

100%

d)

90%

84.

What is an invasive species?

a)

An organism that is new to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

b)

An organism that is native to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

c)

An organism that is new to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

d)

An organism that is native to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

85.
The direction of the flow of energy in a food web is represented by ___.
a)
Light bulbs
b)
Dotted Lines
c)
Arrows
d)
Bubbles
86.
What does every food chain start with?
a)
producers
b)
sun
c)
consumer
d)
decomposers
87.
Energy increases as you move up the food pyramid (from bottom to top).
a)
True 
b)
False
88.
A connection of food chains with many food energy paths in an ecosystem is a ____________
a)
ecosystem
b)
food web
c)
environment
89.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
90.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
91.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
92.
In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
93.
An animal that is able to maintain a relatively constant body temperature regardless of the environment.
a)
Endothermic
b)
Ectothermic
c)
Hypothermic
d)
Hydrothermic
94.
An animal whose body temperature is dependent on the environment.
a)
endothermic
b)
ectothermic
c)
hyperthermic
d)
thermal energy
95.
An organism`s role in its community is its __________, and where it lives is its _________.
a)
habitat; niche
b)
role in community; niche
c)
niche; role in the community
d)
niche; habitat
96.
What does biodiversity mean?
a)
Only one species in an area.
b)
The different amount of species in an area
c)
All abiotic life
d)
Nitrogen fixation
97.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

98.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

99.

Described species with even amounts of birth and death rates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

100.
Why is only 10% of the energy passed along to the next trophic level?
a)
90% is lost through heat, reproduction, and movement
b)
90% is gained
c)
90% is lost in light energy
d)
because only 10% is lost
101.
A herd of zebras would be considered a
a)
community
b)
species
c)
ecosystem
d)
population
102.
A species that exerts a large, positive impaction on its ecosystem is known as a:
a)
Keystone species
b)
Invasive species
c)
Indicator species
d)
Poached species
103.

What type of distribution pattern is shown in the image?

a)

Uniform

b)

Clumped

c)

Random

d)

Uneven

104.

This biome has the most species diversity

a)

Taiga

b)

Grassland

c)

Desert

d)

Tropical Rainforest

105.

Which biome has the least biodiversity?

a)

Tropical rainforest

b)

Temperate Deciduous Forest

c)

Desert

d)

Savannah

106.

Why does increasing producers increase the populations of all trophic levels?

a)

Producers increase the size of a habitat

b)

Producers help keep predator populations in check

c)

With more energy available the carrying capacity increases

d)

Producers do not have a large impact on population sizes

107.

What is phototropism?

a)

When a plant loses it's leaves in the fall

b)

It is what causes a plants stems to grow upwards

c)

When a plant grows towards light

d)

A plants response to touch

108.

How do cooperative behaviors increase fitness?

a)

They ensure every organism in a colony survives

b)

They make sure that every member of a colony gets along

c)

They increase the fitness of the population, though may harm the individual

d)

They allow each organism to obtain the most resources possible

109.

What causes trophic cascades?

a)

Increasing the number of producers

b)

Pollution

c)

The removal of a keystone species

d)

Introducing a new species to an ecosystem

110.

What types of organisms are producers?

a)

autotrophs

b)

apex predators

c)

heterotrophs

d)

keystone species

111.

Where are autotrophs found in food chains/webs

a)

In the middle

b)

At every level

c)

At the first level

d)

At the top

112.

What are limiting factors?

a)

The maximum number of organisms an area can sustain

b)

Scarce resources that limit the size of a population

c)

Conditions that limit how much energy flows to the next trophic level

d)

How diverse the populations of a community are

113.

If the producer level of an ecosystem has 750,000 J of energy, how much energy would be passed on to the secondary consumers?

a)

75,000 J

b)

7,500 J

c)

750 J

d)

75 J

114.

What type of graph represents exponential population growth?

a)

A fluctuating graph

b)

W - shaped curve

c)

S-shaped curve

d)

J - shaped curve

115.

What does carrying capacity mean?

a)

The amount of abiotic factors present in the environment

b)

The total number of species living in an ecosystem

c)

The number of offspring one mother can have in a year

d)

The number of organisms an ecosystem can sustain

116.

Frogs lay ~4000 eggs at a time. Based on this frogs would be classified as -

a)

R-strategists

b)

K-strategists

117.

Which of the following would be a density independent limiting factor?

a)

A virus spreading through a population

b)

A forest fire burning down a forest

c)

Birds competing for a limited amount of seeds

d)

A new predator moving to an area

118.

Which of the following would be a density-dependent limiting factor?

a)

Two wolf packs having overlapping territories

b)

Pollution

c)

A flood

d)

Deforestation

119.

The carrying capacity for a population of lizards is 2700. If the current population is 1340 and the rmax for the population was found to be 0.83, what would the population size be after 1 year?

a)

2356

b)

2100

c)

1825

d)

1900

120.

There is a population of 75 wolves in a forest that has a carrying capacity of 120. What is the maximum population growth rate if the population grows to 92 in one year?

a)

0.833

b)

1.00

c)

0.604

d)

0.523

121.

Which of these describes a mutualistic relationship?

a)

When one organism is harmed, but the other is benefitted

b)

When one organism is unaffected, and the other is harmed

c)

When one organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

d)

When both organisms involved benefit

122.

What is a niche?

a)

A species that outcompetes others in an area

b)

The level on a food chain an organism occupies

c)

An organisms role in an ecosystem and the resources they obtain

d)

A species that disproportionately affects an ecosystem

123.

What will happen if two species occupy the same niche in an ecosystem?

a)

The ecosystem will be stressed and could collapse

b)

One species will either alter their niche or be eliminated

c)

The niche will expand to accommodate both species

d)

The species will share the niche

124.

How does competition affect population?

a)

Most populations do not have competition

b)

It maximizes the carrying capacity of an ecosystem

c)

It limits population sizes and drives natural selection

d)

It benefits both species and increases their populations

125.

How do ecosystems obtain energy in environments that have no light?

a)

Through chemosynthetic organisms

b)

Without light the organisms will need to move or they may go extinct

c)

Through photosynthetic organisms

d)

All ecosystems have some light

126.

Why are decomposers necessary in ecosystems?

a)

They recycle essential nutrients back down to producers

b)

They enrich soil with nitrogen

c)

They help keep ecosystems clean

d)

All of the above

127.

Why does high biodiversity increase ecosystem stability?

a)

Ecosystems do best when populations are as large as possible

b)

High biodiversity increases the carrying capacity of an ecosystem

c)

More diversity increases the chances that organisms can survive changes to an ecosystem

d)

Ecosystems are most stable when biodiversity is low

128.

How do invasive species impact ecosystems?

a)

The increase density dependent limiting factors

b)

They establish themselves as new keystone species in an area

c)

The open up new niches in the ecosystem

d)

They outcompete native species and overpopulate the area

129.

What are keystone species?

a)

Non-native species that have adapted to a new environment

b)

Species that have disproportionate effects on ecosystem stability

c)

The first species to return to an area after a natural disaster

d)

Organisms that can collapse an ecosystem if they overpopulate an area

130.

Which of the following describes the growth rate as N approproaches K?

a)

growth rate increases

b)

growth rate decreases

c)

growth rate is 0

d)

growth rate has no change

131.

Which of the following must be true for the growth rate to equal zero?

a)

birth rate > death rate

b)

birth rate < death rate

c)

birth rate = death rate

d)

2x birth rate = 1/2 death rate

132.

Which of the following describes the distribution of organisms around the watering hole in the Savanna?

a)

clumped distribution

b)

uniform distribution

c)

random distribution

d)

territorial distribution

133.

Which of the following describes the result of a negative r value?

a)

The population size will double.

b)

The population size with half.

c)

The population size will increase.

d)

The population size will decrease.

134.

Which of the following describes a J shaped curve?

a)

high competition

b)

high predation

c)

access to mates

d)

unfavorable habitat

135.

Which type of survivorship describes elephants with high parental care, low death rate of young, and long life spans?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

does not apply

136.

Which of the following describes how disease regulates population?

a)

disease is a density independent factor

b)

disease is a density dependent factor

c)

disease selects for favorable individuals

d)

disease removes unfavorable individuals

137.

A population of fish is growing exponentially. The growth rate of the population is 2.0 and the current population size is 2,500 individuals. How many mice are added to the population each year?

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

2500

d)

5000

138.

You conduct a mark and recapture experiment. You initially capture 20 cats and mark them. After a month, you collect 30 cats and 10 are already marked. What is the estimation for the population?

a)

45

b)

60

c)

75

d)

90

139.

Which of the following describes the population size as the competition of resources increases?

a)

increase of both populations

b)

decrease of both populations

c)

stays the same for both populations

d)

one population increases and the other decreases