Worksheets2nd Semester EXAM
Total questions: 143
Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
How many haploid cells come out from meisois
a)
4
b)
3 and a half
c)
2
d)
1 equally the same cell
2.
Define haploid
a)
All genetic information
b)
Half genetic information
c)
Small cells
d)
Big cells
3.
What is crossing over?
a)
exchange of tetrads in chromosomes
b)
chromosomes leave the cell
c)
chromosomes crossover a bridge
d)
the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
4.
What happens during Metaphase 1
a)
the chromotids line up purposely on the right side of the cell
b)
The replicated chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell randomly
c)
The cells splits up into 4 cells
d)
Prophase 1
5.
How does meiosis increase genetic diversity?
a)
individual assortment
b)
crossing over
c)
genetic information in cells after meiosis is a random
d)
all of the above
6.
Which of the following IS NOT a genetic mutation.
a)
Insertion
b)
deletion
c)
adaptation
d)
frame shift
7.
What is a mutation?
a)
A continuity in the sequence of DNA
b)
A change in DNA sequence.
c)
A good or bad change in the sequence of DNA
d)
B and C
8.
Are all mutations Bad?
a)
Yes, all mutations are harmful.
b)
No, All Mutations are helpful.
c)
No, mutations can be both helpful or harmful
d)
Yes
9.
Which is worse a FRAMESHIFT mutation or a POINT mutation?
a)
Frameshift
b)
deletion is the worst
c)
Point
d)
none of the answer choices are correct
10.
Which of the following is frame shift mutation.
a)
The entire strand of DNA shifts down one.
b)
One allele is changed
c)
three alleles are changed
d)
The DNA is shifted into a separated organelle.
11.
Why is a frame-shift mutation the worst mutation?
a)
It changes one point in a mutation.
b)
It does not change anything.
c)
It changes the whole sequence/ order of DNA.
d)
None of the Above
12.
What is a point mutation?
a)
A Mutation that changes only one point.
b)
A mutation that effects deletes an entire strand of DNA .
c)
A mutation that gives you more IQ points.
d)
A a mutation that adds an extra point to a DNA set.
13.
What is a silent mutation?
a)
When a mutation does not have a visible effect on the phenotype of an organism.
b)
neutral mutation
c)
when it silently deletes a codon
d)
what scientists call a mutation that is only present and animals that don't speak
14.
Which of the following would effect the most DNA sets?
a)
Point Mutation
b)
Substitution Mutation
c)
Inversion Mutation
d)
Deletion Mutation
15.
Why are all mutations not considered serious?
a)
Some just change single points.
b)
Some do not affect the whole DNA sequence.
c)
Some mutations are not even noticed.
d)
All of the Above.
16.
How many sets does Substitution effect
a)
1
b)
2
c)
5
d)
6
17.
What is the difference between codominance and incomplete dominance?
a)
One has both alleles that are seen and one is a mix between the two.
b)
They both only show one
c)
Both show mixtures of alleles
d)
They show none
18.
What is the definition of Codominance?
a)
When both alleles are expressed equally, and they are shown in a heterozygous phenotype
b)
When one is expressed over the other
c)
When they mix together to form a striped pattern
d)
Where one comes from mom and one come from dad
19.
How are traits showed in co-dominance
a)
Each allele is shown or expemplified
b)
Both alleles are not shown
c)
only one allele is shown
d)
All alleles from each parent are shown
20.
Why are sex-linked traits more common in males?
a)
Females have 2 X's while male gets only 1 X.
b)
The X chromosome doesn't have as much information as the Y chromosome
c)
Sex-linked traits are more common in females
d)
Only males can ever have these traits because they are only ever found on the Y chromosome
21.
How many cells result from mitosis
a)
0
b)
2
c)
4
d)
8
22.
Define incomplete dominance
a)
When an organism displays a trait that's in-between their alleles
b)
When an organism displays 2 dominant traits equally
c)
When there are no dominant alleles so no trait is shown
d)
When there is one recessive allele and one dominant allele but the recessive allele is displayed
23.
Define sex-linked traits
a)
Traits that only males can have
b)
Traits that only females can have
c)
Traits whose alleles are found on the X and Y chromosomes
d)
Traits that are displayed when an organism has 2 X chromosomes and a Y chromosome
24.
Which phenotype could be incomplete dominance?
a)
rr
b)
Rr
c)
rw
d)
RW
25.
What is the result of Incomplete dominance? Using Black and White*
a)
Striped black and white zebra
b)
Grey bunny
c)
black and white polka dot cat
d)
speckled chicken
26.
Since Nucleic acid is a polymer, what is the monomer?
a)
proteins
b)
amino acids
c)
nucleotide
d)
nitrogen bases and sugar
27.
What is the difference between a monomer and a polymer
a)
A monomer is bigger than a polymer
b)
A polymer is made up of monomers.
c)
Polymers do not have 5 carbon sugars
d)
There is no way to compare them
28.
What bonds hold together nucleotides?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
covalent bonds
c)
carbon bonds
d)
oxygen bonds
29.
Are hydrogen bonds strong?
a)
No
b)
sometimes
c)
Yes
d)
only when conencted to a phosphate
30.
A nucleotide consists of
a)
none of these choices
b)
only sugar and base
c)
sugar, phosphate, and base
d)
only sugar and phosphate
31.
The function of protein is....
a)
to tell you what to eat in the morning.
b)
to build muscle and make your bones stronger
c)
to determine traits.
d)
to help in reproduction.
32.
What is the significance of the sugar phosphate back bone in DNA?
a)
It is a double helix structure
b)
The sugar phosphate back bone is anti parellel
c)
There is no significance
d)
Both A and B
33.
What makes up proteins?
a)
Amino acids
b)
nucleic acids
c)
sugar
d)
carbon
34.
What are poly peptide bonds?
a)
They connect amino acids
b)
They connect nitrogenous bases
c)
They hold together sugar phosphate backbones
d)
They tell neuclaic acids where to go
35.
What do proteins do?
a)
they dont do anything
b)
make you strong
c)
restore muscles
d)
Determine Traits
36.
What type of bonds hold together amino acids?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
covalent bonds
c)
peptide bonds
d)
acid bonds
37.
Peptide bonds connect...
a)
tRNA
b)
Amino Acids
c)
Phosphates
d)
Nitrogen Bases
38.
Why are sex linked diseases more prevalent in males?
a)
Males have two X chromosomes, so they are more likely to get the disease
b)
Males only have one X chromosome, so one recessive trait will pass down the disease
c)
Males have only Y chromosomes, so they automatically inherit diseases easier
d)
Males inherit less diseases than Females
39.
A family has been struggling with family members developing colon cancer. A pedigree shows that 85% of the males carry the allele and were diagnosed. The other 15% of males have not been tested. What type of pedigree is this?
a)
Dominant Pedigree
b)
Recessive Pedigree
c)
sex-linked pedigree
d)
n/a
40.
What is a dominant pedigrees?
a)
Dominant pedigrees have traits passed down if one parent has the trait
b)
Dominant pedigrees have traits passed down ONLY if both parents have the trait
c)
Dominant pedigrees have traits passed down rarely
d)
Dominant pedigree has the trait passed only if no parents are dominant
41.
How does information get out of the nucleus?
a)
DNA->RNA->Protein->Traits
b)
RNA->Protein->Traits->DNA
c)
Traits->DNA->Protein->RNA
d)
Protein->Traits->RNA->DNA
42.
What is it called when RNA is created?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Crossing over
d)
Biomass
43.
Where is DNA located in a eukaryotic cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Ribosome
d)
cell wall
44.
What does translation start as and end as?
a)
Starts as amino acids, end as ribosome
b)
Starts as RNA, ends as a protein
c)
Starts as mRNA, ends as amino acid
d)
Starts as DNA, ends as RNA
45.
What is the purpose of Protein Synthesis?
a)
Take information from DNA to RNA so it can make protein
b)
Take information from RNA to DNA to make amino acids
c)
Takes information from the ribosome to DNA
d)
To make DNA
46.
True or False:Trancsription is when DNA is used as a template to produce a single stranded mRNA molecule.
a)
true
b)
False, transcription takes RNA and makes DNA.
c)
False, translation take DNA and makes RNA.
d)
False, neither transcription or translation makes DNA into RNA.
47.
What happens during TRANSCRPITION?
a)
DNA is divided, read into RNA, and pieced back together
b)
mRNA is read by tRNA into amino acids
c)
DNA is etched into the cell membrane
d)
DNA moves outside the nucleus to a ribosome to be read
48.
What is the location of translation?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Cell wall
d)
Cell membrane
49.
Where is Transcription located?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
Membrane
d)
Mitochondria
50.
What happens in TRANSLATION?
a)
DNA is divided, read into RNA, and pieced back together
b)
DNA is translated into another language
c)
The ribosome absorbs the RNA into energy
d)
mRNA travles into a ribosome and is read by tRNA into amino acids
51.
Why do we need DNA,RNA and Proteins?
a)
For Making DNA
b)
For Going Through Mitosis
c)
For Determining Bacteria
d)
For Determining Traits
52.
What is the order of protein synthesis?
a)
RNA,Protein,DNA,Amino Acid
b)
DNA,RNA,Amino Acid,Protein
c)
DNA,RNA,Protein,Amino Acid
d)
RNA,DNA,Amino Acid,Protein
53.
What does transcription start as and end as?
a)
Starts as DNA, ends as mRNA
b)
Starts as RNA, ends as DNA
c)
Starts as RNA, ends as mRNA
d)
Starts as mRNA, ends as protein
54.
What is the difference between transcription an translation?
a)
Where the processes occur.
b)
Transcription produces mRNA and Translation produces amino acids.
c)
There is no difference.
d)
Both A and B.
55.
When do you stop reading the RNA?
a)
When you run out of RNA to read
b)
When you get a certain amount off proteins
c)
When you get to the stop codon
d)
When you feel like it
56.
What is a gene?
a)
Physical traits
b)
Part of your DNA passed down from a parent
c)
You get 23 from your mom and 23 from your dad
d)
Complementary base pairs
57.
What is homozygous dominant
a)
2 of the Dominant traits that were passed on by the parents
b)
One recessive one dominant trait passed on by the parents
c)
2 recessive traits passed on by the parents
d)
Offspring that are the stronger sibling
58.
What is the best answer for the difference between dominant and recessive?
a)
Dominant express over recessive
b)
Dominant doesn't show over recessive
c)
Dominant express gene over recessive, but recessive is only express with another recessive
d)
Recessive shows when it has a dominant
59.
What do we use punnet squares for?
a)
to determine the possible alleles for an organisms offspring
b)
to determine the mutations that could happen
c)
both a and d
d)
To check all the possible outcomes of an offspring that have been transferred by the mom and dad
60.
What is heterozygous
a)
One dominant allele and recessive allele
b)
two recessive alleles
c)
two dominant alleles
d)
all of the above
61.
Example of Homozygous: Dominant is black feathers and recessive is white feathers.
a)
two white chickens and the baby has white feathers
b)
one chicken has black feathers and the other white feathers, so the baby chicken has grey feathers
c)
one chicken has grey feathers and the other black feathers, the baby chicken has white feathers
d)
each chicken has black feathers and the baby has red feathers
62.
Define Heterozygous
a)
has the same alleles (AA)
b)
only has recessive alleles (aa)
c)
has dominant alleles (AA)
d)
has different alleles (Aa)
63.
what difference between asexual and sexual?
a)
asexual creates identical organisms
b)
sexual creates different organisms than the original
c)
sexual increases diversity
d)
all of the above
64.
Which one is a example of Asexual
a)
Bacteria
b)
Ants
c)
Humans
d)
rocks
65.
What is binary fission?
a)
asexual reproduction by a separation of the body into two new bodies
b)
the mating of sperm and eggs
c)
asexual reproduction by the coming together of bodies
d)
all of the above
66.
Which type of reproduction does bacteria have
a)
asexual
b)
sexual
c)
bacteria can do both types of reproduction
d)
none of the above
67.
What are the benefits of sexual reproduction?
a)
You only need one mate.
b)
You can reproduce faster.
c)
No genetic variation.
d)
There is genetic variation.
68.
which answer BEST decribes an advantage to sexual reproduction
a)
genetic diversity
b)
risk of disease is lessened
c)
can adapt/change
d)
all of the above
69.
what is an advantage of asexual reproduction
a)
genetic diversity
b)
decrease in population
c)
increase in population
d)
none of the above
70.
Why would creatures reproduce asexually?
a)
Increases genetic variation.
b)
They want to look alike.
c)
To reproduce at faster rates.
d)
To become bigger.
71.
Why do cells go through the cell cycle?
a)
To repair old damaged cells and replicate cells.
b)
To make new organs that has never existed before.
c)
To make more proteins to display more traits.
d)
To produce sex cells.
72.
What occurs in synthesis?
a)
DNA is replicated
b)
Splits into 2
c)
Growth Occurs
d)
Cells Mutate
73.
Why do cells go through cell cycle
a)
Make sex cells
b)
Make a baby
c)
regenerate
d)
Make new cells
74.
What occurs in Gap 0?
a)
The cell splits into daughter cells
b)
Undersized cells grow until they are large enough to continue the cell cycle.
c)
The cell rests and does its job.
d)
The cell enters "overtime".
75.
Where are the cells the smallest in the Cell Cycle?
a)
Synthesis
b)
G2
c)
G1
d)
Mitosis
76.
What types of cells go through mitosis?
a)
sperm
b)
egg
c)
all cells but sex cells
d)
all cells go through cell cycle
77.
What is the order of stages of the Cell Cycle?
a)
Interphase, G1, S, G2, Mitosis, Cytokenesis
b)
Cytokenesis, Mitosis, G2, S, G1, Interphase
c)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokenesis
d)
S, G1, G2, Mitosis, Cytokenesis, Interphase
78.
What is the order Mitosis Phases?
a)
PMAT
b)
TAMP
c)
PATM
d)
PTAM
79.
Phase that splits cell
a)
Prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
telophase
d)
mitosis
80.
What happens to chromosomes during metaphase?
a)
they are jumbled
b)
they split apart
c)
they divide
d)
they line up
81.
Which cells enter Mitosis?
a)
Somatic cells
b)
Gamete cells
c)
Lung cells
d)
Left finger cells
82.
Which is the correct format of Binomial Nomenclature?
a)
Panthera tigris
b)
Panthera Tigris
c)
tigris Panthera
d)
Tigris Panthera
83.
Why do living organisms need to be put into classification?
a)
because they look alike
b)
because they need to find mates to breed with.
c)
because it shows the relationships and simulates of animals. of
d)
because they evolve.
84.
What Is the order of the taxons?
a)
domain,kingdom,phylum,class,order,family,genus,species
b)
kingdom,domain,phylum,class,order,family,genus,species
c)
domain,kingdom,phylum,class,order,family,genus,snake
d)
domain,king,phylum,camp,order,family,genus,species
85.
What is the most specific taxa on this list?
a)
Phylum
b)
Order
c)
Genus
d)
Archaebacteria
86.
Who is responsible for the classification and what language did he use?
a)
Linnaeus-Latin
b)
Aristotle-Greek
c)
Einstein- German
d)
Diogenes- Greek
87.
Which taxon is the broadest?
a)
family
b)
domain
c)
kingdom
d)
species
88.
What is Taxonomy
a)
classification or organization of living things
b)
2 names to identify an organism
c)
first word must be capitalized, second not capitalized
d)
Photosynthesis
89.
What is the most general taxon listed?
a)
Class
b)
Family
c)
Kingdom
d)
Genus
90.
Which is more closely related to Homo Sapiens?
a)
Homo neanderthalensis
b)
Pan troglodytes
c)
Gorilla Gorilla
d)
Canis lupus familiaris
91.
Which is the most specific?
a)
homo
b)
sapien
c)
Animalia
d)
Mammalia
92.
What is the correct order in which scientists name a species?
a)
Genus-Species
b)
Family-Species
c)
Class-Order
d)
Species-Genus
93.
Select the two kingdoms that prokaryotic organisms are classified into:
a)
Archaebacteria and animalia
b)
Eubacteria and archaebacteria
c)
Plantae and Protista
d)
Archaebacteria and protista
94.
Why do all vertebrate embryos look similar at the beginning of development?
a)
We all share a common ancestor
b)
They all look similar.
c)
They all start as the same species but then develop their specific traits over time.
d)
All creatures are the same.
95.
What kind of structure is the human tail bone, that doesn't serve any purpose anymore?
a)
Irregular Structure
b)
Homologous Structure
c)
Analogous Structure
d)
Vestigial Structure
96.
What is a vestigial structure?
a)
A structure that is an necessity for an organism's everyday life.
b)
A structure that an organism shares with an ancestor, but that is useless
c)
A structure that many organisms share due to a common ancestor.
d)
A mutated structure that appears in organisms randomly.
97.
what is true about homologous structures?
a)
same structure, different function
b)
Same function, different structure
c)
Similar structures prove common ancestory
d)
Both A and C
98.
What is a transitional species?
a)
A species that can transition from male to female at any time when needed
b)
A species that is intermediate between two species
c)
A species that can be both alive and dead at the same time
d)
A species bred by two completely different ones
99.
If 2 animals have similar parts but different functions, which structure is this?
a)
Homologous Structure
b)
Analogous Structure
c)
Vestigial Structure
d)
Transitional Species
100.
What decreases genetic diversity?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Genetic Drift
c)
Non-random dating
d)
All of the above
101.
What is a half-life?
a)
The time it takes for the radioactive material to decay to 0%
b)
The amount of time needed for half of a radioactive material to decay
c)
The time it takes to create a stable isotope
d)
When the radioactive material has lived half of its life
102.
What is the difference between analogous and homologous structures?
a)
Analogous is when they are different structures but the same function while Homologous is the opposite of that.
b)
homologous is when they are different structures but the same function while Analogous is the opposite of that.
c)
They are the same thing just different terminology.
d)
They are completely different and it is vestigial and analogous that are the similar structures.
103.
How do the number of chromosomes in gamete cells compared to somatic cells?
a)
chromosomes in gamete cells: 46 & chromosomes in somatic cells: 23
b)
Both cells have 46 chromosomes
c)
chromosomes in gamete cells: 23 & chromosomes in somatic cells: 46
d)
Both have 23 chromosomes
104.
In Meiosis, what type of cells are involved?
a)
body/somatic cells
b)
gametes/sex cells
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above
105.
How many and what type of daughter cells does meiosis produce?
a)
4 daughter cells that are haploid
b)
2 daughter cells that are diploid
c)
4 daughter cells that are diploid
d)
2 daughter cells that are haploid
106.
What is the difference between Mitosis and Meoisis
a)
The end result of the cells in Meiosis are haploid cells
b)
Meiosis has two phases of each stage
c)
all of the above
d)
Meiosis occurs in only sex cells
107.
Define meiosis
a)
The process in which 1 cell splits into two identical daughter cells
b)
The process in which 2 cells combine into one larger cell
c)
The process in which 1 cell splits into 4 identical daughter cells
d)
The process in which 1 cell splits into 4 cells with half of the genetic information
108.
What is interphase?
a)
Where the cells shrinks and rests
b)
Where the cells grow, does cell job, and prepares for division
c)
Where cells replicate, grows, and preform cell jobs
d)
Where cells mutate, replicate, and divide
109.
When does crossing over occur?
a)
Prophase 1
b)
Anaphase 1
c)
Telephase 1
d)
None of the above
110.
What stage/process allows for more genetic variation?
a)
Chromosomes crossover
b)
independent assortment
c)
Randon Mom and Dad
d)
All of the above
111.
How many cells result from meiosis vs mitosis?
a)
meiosis: 4 haploid cells & mitosis: 2 diploid cells
b)
meiosis: 4 diploid cells & mitosis: 2 haploid
c)
meiosis: 2 haploid & mitosis: 4 diploid
d)
meiosis 2 diploid & mitosis: 4 haploid
112.
At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other?
a)
Metaphase 2
b)
Metaphase 1
c)
Anaphase 2
d)
Anaphase 1
113.
What is the difference in structure of RNA and DNA
a)
Number of strands
b)
Nitrogenous bases
c)
Type of sugar
d)
All of the above
114.
What nitrogenous base does RNA have that DNA doesn't
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Adenine
d)
Toricine
115.
How many strands do DNA and RNA have?
a)
DNA: 6, RNA:3
b)
DNA: 1, RNA:2
c)
DNA: 2, RNA: 1
d)
DNA: 1, RNA:3
116.
Which bases match up with eachother in DNA?
a)
Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
b)
Thymine and Guanine, Cytosine and Adenine
c)
Adenine and Uracil, Cytosine and Thymine
d)
Uracil and Adenine, Thymine and Guanine
117.
What kind of sugar is used in DNA?
a)
Ribose sugar
b)
Deoxyribose sugar
c)
Powdered sugar
d)
Glucose
118.
What kind of sugar is used in DNA?
a)
Ribose sugar
b)
Deoxyribose sugar
c)
Powdered sugar
d)
Glucose
119.
What nitrogen base changes from DNA to RNA
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
120.
What does Anti-parallel mean?
a)
It is opposite and flipped
b)
Just on the opposite side
c)
Same side but flipped
d)
Same side and not flipped
121.
What are the four nitrogen bases in DNA?
a)
Carbon, Thymine, Phosphate, Guanine
b)
Sugar, Carbon, Adenine, Thymine
c)
Cytosine, Hydrogen, Nucleic Acids, Sugar
d)
Adenine, Guanine, Thymine, Cytosine
122.
How are the sugar-phosphate backbones arranged?
a)
5' to 3'
b)
3' to 5'
c)
4' to 2'
d)
Doesn't matter.
123.
Why is bacteria such a good organism to study.
a)
It can't die
b)
It reproduces slower
c)
It reproduces at a rapid rate
d)
It is easy to track progress
124.
How many hydrogen bonds does A-T have
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
125.
What types of sugars do DNA and RNA have
a)
Deoxyribose and ribose
b)
processed and unprocessed
c)
cane sugar and rich sugar
d)
crystalline sugar and ground sugar
126.
What can phosphate bond with?
a)
Only base subunits
b)
Base subunits and sugar subunits
c)
Only sugar subunits
d)
Phosphate
127.
What are the 2 purines and 2 pyrimidines in DNA?
a)
Adenine and Guanine, Thymine and Cytosine
b)
Guanine and Cytosine, Thymine and Adenine
c)
Guanine and Thymine, Cytosine and Adenine
d)
Cytosine and Nucleotides, Guanine and Adenine
128.
What is the difference between purines and pyrimidines?
a)
Purines have two carbon nitrogen rings and Pyrimidines have 1.
b)
Purines have one carbon nitrogen rings and Pyrimidines have two.
c)
There is no difference.
d)
What they are made up of is different.
129.
What base matches to Adenine in RNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
130.
What is not one of the 5 mechanisms of evolution
a)
Mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
Non random mating
d)
radio metricdating
131.
Which of the following is not a mechanism of evolution?
a)
Non-random mating
b)
Mutation
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Crossing Over
132.
What is NOT a mechanism of evolution
a)
natural selection
b)
mutation
c)
disease
d)
migration/gene flow
133.
Are mutations harmful or helpful?
a)
harmful
b)
helpful
c)
both A and B
d)
no affect
134.
A Species of bird has traveled to Birmingham from Canada, and they reproduce with local bird species. Which mechanism BEST fits this?
a)
Gene flow/migration
b)
Genetic recombination
c)
Both
d)
Neither of these
135.
How are evolution and diversity related
a)
things and traits change over time which creates diversity in the popluation
b)
they have no relation
c)
they both cause fossils
d)
they are the same thing
136.
A change in traits that can be good or bad to the organism is
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Non Random Mating
c)
Natural selection
d)
Mutations
137.
What is natural selection?
a)
Where animals pick their mate intentionally.
b)
Where animals move habitats.
c)
When the strongest of a species survives.
d)
When the DNA of an animal randomly changes.
138.
Why is Evolution important?
a)
It creates genetic diversity
b)
It causes adaptations for survival
c)
It gets rid of species that can't survive/too weak
d)
All of the above
139.
What is Gene flow?
a)
The movement of species to different locations.
b)
DNA continues to flow around.
c)
Where a natural disaster causes a change in the genetic variation of a species.
d)
Where animals pick their mate intentionally.
140.
What Is evolution?
a)
change in species over time
b)
change in a population over time
c)
quick change in bacteria
d)
quick change from mutations
141.
Which organism uses asexual reproduction
a)
lions
b)
dogs
c)
trees
d)
brittle star
142.
What is a benefit to sexual reproduction?
a)
genetic diversity
b)
rapid population increase
c)
no mate is necessary
d)
all of the above
143.
What is it called when the phosphate backbones are opposite from each other and flipped
a)
Dangling phosphate
b)
Opposite reaction
c)
Anti parallel
d)
parallel
100 %
