Free Printable End of Year Exam

1.

Which best describes an Observation?

a)

A person researching a topic on Google

b)

A person using their senses to collect information

c)

A person taking photos of a car

d)

A person answering multiple questions from a survey

2.

Which best describes a Hypothesis?

a)

Asking a question based on an experiment

b)

Using senses to collect information

c)

Proposing an answer based on a scientific question that may be tested

d)

A guess

3.

What is the definition of Independent Variable?

a)

The variable in an experiment that is changed

b)

The variable in an experiment that is measured

c)

The variable(s) in an experiment that stays the same

4.

What is the definition of Dependent Variable?

a)

The variable in an experiment that is changed

b)

The variable in an experiment that is measured

c)

The variable(s) in an experiment that stays the same

5.

What is the definition of Control Variable?

a)

The variable in an experiment that is changed

b)

The variable in an experiment that is measured

c)

The variable(s) in an experiment that stays the same

6.

After Kobe's retirement, he became very interested in flowers. Kobe wanted to plant a garden of flowers in the backyard, but he wasn't sure which ones he wanted. He decided before committing to the garden he would do an experiment to see which flowers would grow the tallest. Under the same conditions, he grew roses, daisies, orchids, sunflowers, and tulips.

Which is the independent variable?

a)

The type of flower

b)

The location (backyard)

c)

The height of the flowers

d)

The amount of water given to the flowers

7.

After Kobe's retirement, he became very interested in flowers. Kobe wanted to plant a garden of flowers in the backyard, but he wasn't sure which ones he wanted. He decided before committing to the garden he would do an experiment to see which flowers would grow the tallest. Under the same conditions, he grew roses, daisies, orchids, sunflowers, and tulips.

Which is the dependent variable?

a)

The type of flower

b)

The location (backyard)

c)

The height of the flowers

d)

The amount of water given to the flowers

8.

After Kobe's retirement, he became very interested in flowers. Kobe wanted to plant a garden of flowers in the backyard, but he wasn't sure which ones he wanted. He decided before committing to the garden he would do an experiment to see which flowers would grow the tallest. Under the same conditions, he grew roses, daisies, orchids, sunflowers, and tulips.

Which is NOT a control variable?

a)

The type of flower

b)

The amount of sunlight

c)

The amount of water

d)

The type of soil

9.

After Kobe's retirement, he became very interested in flowers. Kobe wanted to plant a garden of flowers in the backyard, but he wasn't sure which ones he wanted. He decided before committing to the garden he would do an experiment to see which flowers would grow the tallest. Under the same conditions, he grew roses, daisies, orchids, sunflowers, and tulips.

Which graph would be best to use for Kobe's experiment?

a)

Scatter plot

b)

Pie chart

c)

Bar graph

10.

Which is the correct conversion of

(2.3 x 10²) + (2.3 x 10^-2)

to decimal form?

a)

2.3 + 23

b)

2.3 + 2.3

c)

230 + 2.3

d)

230 + .23

11.

What is the sum of

(2.3 x 10²) + (2.3 x 10^-2)

in decimal form?

a)

25.3

b)

4.6

c)

232.3

d)

230.23

12.

What is the sum of

(2.3 x 10²) + (2.3 x 10^-2)

in standard form?

a)

2.53 x 10¹

b)

4.6 x 10⁰

c)

2.323 x 10²

d)

2.3023 x 10²

13.

What is the function of the Nucleus?

a)

To make ATP

b)

To make proteins

c)

To provide protection to the structure of the cell

d)

To store the cell's genetic material

14.

What is function of the Nucleolus?

a)

To make ATP

b)

To make proteins

c)

To make ribosomes

d)

To make lipids

15.

What is the function of the Mitochondria?

a)

To make ATP

b)

To make proteins

c)

To make ribsomes

d)

To make lipids

16.

What is the function of ribosomes?

a)

To make ATP

b)

To make proteins

c)

To make lipids

d)

To receive proteins, package them, and send them to different parts of the cell

17.

What is the function of the rough ER?

a)

To fold proteins and transport them

b)

To provide structural support to the cell

c)

To store the cell's genetic material

d)

To detoxify the cell and make lipids

18.

What is function of the Smooth ER?

a)

To fold protein and transport them

b)

To detoxify the cell and make lipids

c)

To store water and other forms of molecules for the cell

d)

To convert light energy into chemical energy (glucose)

19.

What is the function of the chloroplast?

a)

To store water and other forms of molecules for the cell

b)

To convert light energy into chemical energy (glucose)

c)

To provide additional protection to the cell. Only found in plant cells.

d)

To make proteins

20.

Which is correct about Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells ?

a)

Both cells have a nucleus

b)

Both cells have membrane-bound organelles

c)

Both cells have a cell membrane

d)

Prokaryotic cells are more complex than Eukaryotic cells

21.

Which is a correct similarity between animal cells and plant cells?

a)

both cells have chloroplasts

b)

both cells have a large central vacuole

c)

both cells have mitochondria

d)

both cells have a cell wall

22.

Adenosine Triphosphate is an important molecule our cells use to properly function. What is the purpose of ATP?

a)

Energy for the cell

b)

Break down foreign material

c)

Heal damaged organelles

d)

Transports molecules

23.

The cell membrane is primarily (mostly) made out of which structure?

a)

Protein

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Water

24.

What is the purpose for channel proteins in the cell membrane?

a)

Add structural support

b)

Allowing molecules in and out of the cell

c)

Maintain fluidity

d)

Build muscle

25.

What does selectively permeability mean in relation to the cell membrane?

a)

Only specific molecules can enter and leave the cell

b)

Cell membrane selects which organelle it interacts with

c)

Only specific cells have a cell membrane

d)

Cell membrane can be damaged only by specific molecules

26.

Which of the following is NOT part of the modern cell theory?

a)

Cells are the smallest living unit

b)

Cells divide at different rates

c)

Cells are in all living things

d)

Cells come from preexisting cells

27.

How are passive transport and active transport different?

a)

Passive transport uses energy and active does not

b)

Passive transport uses oxygen and active does not

c)

Active energy uses energy and passive does not

d)

Active energy uses proteins and passive does not

28.

True or False: Facilitated diffusion is a type of active transport

a)

True

b)

False

29.

True or False: Carbon Dioxide (CO2) moves via passive transport

a)

True

b)

False

30.

True or False: Osmosis is the diffusion of water.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

True or False: Osmosis is a type of active transport.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

What does it mean to move with the concentration gradient?

a)

Moving from high concentration of molecules to low concentration

b)

Moving from low concentration of molecules to high concentration

c)

Moving with the use of energy

d)

Moving with the use of proteins

33.

What is the definition of hypertonic?

a)

High concentration of solutes

b)

Low concentration of solutes

c)

Equal concentration of solutes

34.

What is definition of hypotonic?

a)

High concentration of solutes

b)

Low concentration of solutes

c)

Equal concentration of solutes

35.

What is the definition of isotonic?

a)

High concentration of solutes

b)

Low concentration of solutes

c)

Equal concentration of solutes

36.

If a cell was submerged (dipped) in a hypertonic solution, the cell would ________

a)

get bigger

b)

shrink

c)

stay the same

37.

If a cell was submerged (dipped) in a hypotonic solution, the cell would ______

a)

get bigger

b)

shrink

c)

stay the same

38.

True or False: The egg grew larger when it was submerged in syrup because the syrup was hypotonic to the egg.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which of the following does NOT occur in Interphase?

a)

Cells divide

b)

Cell growth

c)

DNA is copied

d)

Normal cell function

40.

Which best describes the events in Prophase?

a)

Chromosomes condense

b)

Chromosomes align at the equator

c)

Chromatids break away from each other

d)

Cell begins to pinch into two cells

41.

Which best describes the events in Anaphase?

a)

Chromosomes condense

b)

Chromosomes align at the equator

c)

Chromatids break away from each other

d)

Cells begin to pinch into two cells

42.

Which best describes the events in Metaphase?

a)

Cells divide into two cells

b)

Chromosomes align at the equator

c)

Chromatids break away from each other

d)

Cells begin to pinch into two cells

43.

Which best describes the events in Telophase?

a)

Cells completely divides into two cells

b)

Chromosomes align at the equator

c)

Chromatids break away from each other

d)

Cell begins to pinch into two cells

44.

Based on the image, which phase of Mitosis is the cell in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

45.

True or False: One of the purposes for Mitosis is to repair our old or damaged cells.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

True or False: Skin cells and liver cells differ in the amount of time they spend in Gap 1.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

True or False: Scientists are able to use stem cells to make any type of cell (e.g. skin, liver, or stomach)

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The cell spends more time in Interphase or Mitosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

49.

Which stage is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Gap 1

c)

Synthesis

d)

Gap 2

50.

What role do spindle fibers play in the cell?

a)

Help duplicate DNA

b)

Help protect the cell

c)

Maintains the structure of the cell

d)

Help move chromosomes

51.

True or False: Cancer cells differ from healthy cells because they continue to divide without stopping

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Why do people who undergo chemotherapy lose their hair?

a)

Chemotherapy destroys all cells in the body and hair is a type of cell

b)

Chemotherapy increases the aging process causing us to lose hair

c)

Chemotherapy targets fast-growing cells and hair is fast growing

d)

Chemotherapy targets cancer cells and hair is similar to cancer cells

53.

True or False: Gametes are somatic cells

a)

True

b)

False

54.

True or False: The process of Mitosis involves making gametes

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Which of the following is NOT true about meiosis?

a)

Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells

b)

Meiosis involves two cell divisions

c)

Meiosis cells are haploid

d)

Meiosis cells make somatic cells

56.

What are homologous chromosomes?

a)

Chromosomes that are damaged

b)

Chromosomes of different size but have the same genes

c)

Chromosomes of the same size but code different genes

d)

Chromosomes of the same size and code the same genes

57.

True or False: Chromatids are broken away from each other during Anaphase I in meiosis

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What are autosomes?

a)

All chromosomes in the body

b)

Chromosomes that determine the gender of an organism

c)

Chromosomes other than sex chromosomes

d)

Chromosomes in somatic cells

59.

How many chromosomes are there in human somatic cells?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

24

d)

48

60.

How many chromosomes are there in human gametes?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

24

d)

48

61.

If a person's sex chromosomes are XX, they are __________

a)

Male

b)

Female

62.

What is nondisjunction?

a)

Chromosomes that don't separate properly

b)

Chromosomes with missing genes

c)

Chromosomes that are not duplicated in S phase

d)

Uncontrolled cell growth

63.

Why is crossing-over important in meiosis?

a)

It helps us heal and grow

b)

It creates genetic diversity

c)

It allows for our cells to be the same

d)

To prevent mutations

64.

Which best describes a gene?

a)

Mating between two organisms

b)

Having matching alleles (letters) for a specific trait

c)

The study of inheritance

d)

A unit of heredity that is transferred from parent to offspring

65.

Which best describes a phenotype?

a)

The combination of alleles for a particular gene

b)

The whole set of genes in an organism

c)

The set of observable traits of an organism

d)

Mating between two organisms

66.

Which best describes the term genome?

a)

The whole set of genes in an organism

b)

The combination of alleles for a particular gene

c)

A unit of heredity that is transferred from parent to offspring

d)

Having different alleles (letters) for a specific trait

67.

Which best describes the term homozygous?

a)

Having matching alleles (letters) for a specific trait

b)

Having different alleles (letters) for a specific trait

c)

Trait that is expressed whether the genotype has the same or different alleles (letters)

d)

Trait is expressed when the genotype has two exact copies of the same allele (letter)

68.

Which best describes the term heteroygous?

a)

Having matching alleles (letters) for a specific trait

b)

Having different alleles (letters) for a specific trait

c)

Trait that is expressed whether the genotype has the same or different alleles (letters)

d)

Trait is expressed when the genotype has two exact copies of the same allele (letter)

69.

Which best describes the term dominant?

a)

Having matching alleles (letters) for a specific trait

b)

Having different alleles (letters) for a specific trait

c)

Trait that is expressed whether the genotype has the same or different alleles (letters)

d)

Trait is expressed when the genotype has two exact copies of the same allele (letter)

70.

Which best describes the term recessive?

a)

Having matching alleles (letters) for a specific trait

b)

Having different alleles (letters) for a specific trait

c)

Trait that is expressed whether the genotype has the same or different alleles (letters)

d)

Trait is expressed when the genotype has two exact copies of the same allele (letter)

71.

______ are thread-like structures that contains genes. Found in the nucleus of the cell.

a)

Chromosome

b)

RNA

c)

Protein

d)

Pedigree

72.

A diagram used to predict the phenotype and genotype ratios of offspring is

a)

Pedigree

b)

Math

c)

Punnett Square

d)

Genome

73.

Gregor Mendel, known as the "Father of Genetics" studied genes and heredity using what?

a)

DNA

b)

Peas

c)

Green Beans

d)

Mice

74.

Punnett squares help with what?

a)

Figuring out who the father is

b)

Predicting the phenotype and genotype ratio of offspring

c)

Predict the total amount of genes in an organism

75.

If you cross Aa and Aa, how many aa offspring would you get?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

76.

If you cross AA and Aa, how many heterozygous genotypes would you get?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

77.

All are examples of phenotypes except

a)

Number of chromosomes an organism has

b)

Hair color of an organism

c)

Number of fingers of an organism

d)

Height of an organism

78.

Which of following is a homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

79.

Which best matches the following genotype: AA

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous recessive

80.

In a cross between Aa and Aa, what is the probability of showing the recessive phenotype?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

81.

In a cross between Aa and aa, what is probability of being homozygous dominant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

82.

What is the similarity between heterozygous and homozygous dominant?

a)

Both have recessive alleles

b)

Neither have dominant alleles

c)

When crossed, thy make a 50% ratio between dominant and recessive phenotypes

d)

None of above

83.

Pedigrees allow scientists

a)

to see if there are extra chromosomes

b)

to see which genes are mutated

c)

to see inhertiance patterns of a trait in a family

d)

to see and predict the ratio of genotypes and phenotypes of a trait

84.

You cross X^AX^a and X^AY. What is the probability of getting a male with a sex-linked recessive disorder?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

85.

The genotype for a sex-linked homozygous recessive female is

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

X^AX^A

d)

X^aX^a

e)

X^aY

86.

True or False: Males can be carriers of autosomal recessive traits

a)

True

b)

False

87.

If chromosome pair 23 is labeled XY, that means the individual is

a)

Normal

b)

Sick

c)

Female

d)

Male

88.

In a pedigree for an autosomal recessive disorder, the genotype for a shaded square or circle is

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

X^aX^a

89.

Cross a carrier female and a normal male. What are the odds of getting a normal female? (X-linked trait)

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

90.

True or False: Females can pass on the Y chromosome

a)

True

b)

False

91.

True or False: Males can be carriers for sex-linked traits

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Cross homozygous recessive with a heterozygous genotype. What are the odds of a carrier? (Autosomal trait)

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

93.

True or False: As long as there is 1 dominant allele for a gene, the recessive disorder will NOT show.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

In a pedigree, if an individual's genotype is aa (shaded in), and their parents are not shaded in, parent 1 and parent 2 have to be which genotype?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

95.

Which enzyme breaks down hydrogen bonds to separate DNA's double stranded structure?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

SSB Proteins

96.

What is the purpose of DNA ligase?

a)

To add new nucleotides to the lagging strand

b)

To add new nucleotides to the leading strand

c)

Attach phosphodiester bonds to the Okazaki fragments

d)

Remove RNA primers

97.

DNA Polymerase adds new nucleotides based off of the DNA template strand. In which direction does DNA Polymerase read the template strand?

a)

5'-3'

b)

3'-5'

c)

Left

d)

Right

98.

Which is the correct DNA base-pairing rule?

a)

A-T , C-G

b)

C-A , T-G

c)

A-G , T-C

d)

A-U, C-G

99.

Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

a)

the leading strand toward the replication fork

b)

the lagging strand toward the replication fork

c)

both strands in both directions

d)

the leading strand away from the replication fork

e)

the lagging strand away from the replication fork

100.

Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to

a)

a promoter

b)

an initiator

c)

a transcriptor

d)

a codon

101.

In eukaryotes, the "start" codon also specifies the amino acid ________

a)

phenylalanine

b)

valine

c)

aspartate

d)

methionine

102.

In eukaryotes, _______ is a stop codon.

a)

UGA

b)

UUU

c)

AUA

d)

AGA

103.

In transcription, the nucleotide sequence CAT in DNA would specify _______ in mRNA.

a)

TAC

b)

GAU

c)

CAT

d)

GUA

104.

The genetic code that consists of groups of three nucleotides is called

a)

codons

b)

introns

c)

anticodons

d)

triplets

105.

The function of tRNA is to

a)

provide a site for polypeptide synthesis

b)

transport amino acids to the ribosome

c)

translate DNA

d)

transcribe DNA

106.

Together with proteins, rRNA

a)

provides a site for polypeptide synthesis

b)

transports amino acids to the ribosome

c)

transcribes DNA

d)

translates DNA

107.

In mRNA the "start" sequence is

a)

UAA

b)

UAG

c)

UGA

d)

AUG

108.

In the process of translation,

a)

a strand of mRNA is formed with nucleotide sequences complementary to those of DNA

b)

nucleotide sequences of tRNA are established

c)

an amino acid chain is formed in response to the rRNA nucleotide sequence

d)

an amino acid chain is formed as dictated by the nucleotide sequence in mRNA

109.

If the DNA sequence is GGG, the amino acid it would code for is

a)

Guanine

b)

Glycerin

c)

Proline

d)

Arginine

110.

A molecule of tRNA with the anticodon AAA will transport the amino acid _______

a)

Phenylalanine (Phe)

b)

Lysine (Lys)

c)

Proline (Pro)

d)

Glycine (Gly)

111.

In the process of transcription,

a)

the base sequence of DNA is copied into tRNA

b)

a polypeptide is formed as specified by the genes in a chromosome

c)

a strand of mRNA is formed with base sequences complementary to those of DNA

d)

DNA is copied by RNA polymerase

112.

Identify the polypeptide that would be produced as a result of transcribing and translating the following DNA sequence:

3' - T A C A C C A A G T C T A C T - 5'

a)

Met - Arg - Phe - Trp - Stop

b)

Met - Arg - Leu - Gly - Stop

c)

Met - Trp - Lys - Ser - Stop

d)

Met - Trp - Phe - Arg - Stop

e)

Met - Gly - Leu - Arg - Stop

113.

Who is the father of evolution?

a)

Darwin

b)

Mendel

c)

Newton

d)

Einstein

114.

What is another name for natural selection?

a)

survival of the smartest

b)

survival of the fastest

c)

survival of the biggest

d)

survival of the fittest

115.

What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?

a)

homologous

b)

vestigial

c)

variation

d)

adaptation

116.

When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called

a)

evolution

b)

extinction

c)

adaptation

d)

natural selection

117.

What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?

a)

DNA studies

b)

embryology

c)

extinction

d)

fossil record

118.

What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?

a)

species

b)

organism

c)

embryology

d)

vestigial

119.

What is this an example of?

a)

vestigial structures

b)

embryology

c)

homologous structures

d)

fossil record

120.

Which layer is the oldest?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

121.

Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________

a)

increase in number

b)

become extinct

122.

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Adaptation

d)

Natural Selection

123.

Two organisms that are closely related would have

a)

very similar DNA sequence

b)

exactly the same DNA sequences

c)

no proteins in common

d)

completely different DNA sequence

124.

A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.

a)

Ancestor

b)

Skeleton

c)

Fossil

d)

Imprints

125.

Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry

a)

vestigial structures

b)

homologous structures

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

fossil

126.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a)

the wings of a red-tailed hawk

b)

the hind limbs of a house cat

c)

the fins of sharks

d)

the tailbone of a human

127.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.

128.

The gradual change in species over time is...

a)

Evolution

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Adaptation

d)

Natural Selection

129.

What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

Their feathers

b)

Genotypes

c)

Their beaks

d)

Their body sizes

130.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To look different from other species.

b)

To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.

c)

To protect itself against predators.

d)

To protect itself against prey.

131.

Which of the following pieces of evolution evidence deals with aged and identified fossils?

a)

fossil record

b)

comparative embryology

c)

comparative biochemistry

d)

comparative anatomy

132.

Which of the following pieces of evolution evidence deals with structures common in embryos that form differently or for different purposes in adult form?

a)

fossil record

b)

comparing embryology

c)

comparing biochemistry

d)

comparing anatomy

133.

Which word is defined as a reduced form of a functional structure in 1 organism that shows up as fully functional in another?

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

analogous structure

d)

DNA

134.

How would you describe this evolution?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Structural adaption

d)

Functional adaption

135.

The temperature is increasing in the Arctic region. If there are three types of polar bears (thick coats, medium coats, thin coats), which type would be most negatively affected by the change in the environment.

a)

Thick coats

b)

Medium coats

c)

Thin coats

d)

None of them

End of Year Exam

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 4hrs 52mins

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