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Worksheets

NC EOC Review

Total questions: 203

Worksheet time: 3hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
This type of cell is found in males and is responsible for reproduction.
a)
sperm cell
b)
egg cell
c)
muscle cell
d)
nerve cell
2.
In which case would a cell most likely shrink?
a)
when placed in a solution containing a high salt concentration
b)
when placed in a isotonic solution
c)
when placed in a solution containing a low pH
d)
when placed in a solution containing distilled water
3.
_______ regulates what enters and leaves a cell.  
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm
4.
What is Osmosis?
a)
The process of using energy to transport molecules across the plasma membrane.
b)
The process of using large proteins to transport molecules across the plasma membrane.
c)
A molecule that can be dissolved.
d)
The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane.
5.
What type of transport is facilitated diffusion?
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Endocytosis
6.
How is homeostasis important to the survival of organisms?
a)
Homeostasis makes organisms grow bigger and taller.
b)
Homeostasis helps organisms locate food.
c)
Homeostasis allows organisms to regulate their temperature.
d)
Homeostasis makes all organisms hibernate.
7.
Which is NOT an example of cell differentiation?
a)
Bone marrow cells are used to repair damage to heart tissues
b)
A fertilized egg to cell developed into an embryo
c)
A leaf cell divides as a plant leaf grows
d)
Stem cells from bone marrow develop into blood cells
8.
This type of cell sends messages throughout the body in the form of electrical impulse.
a)
nerve cell
b)
sperm cell
c)
muscle cell
d)
skin cell
9.
This type of cell carries oxygen throughout the body.
a)
egg cell
b)
nerve cell
c)
sperm cell
d)
red blood cell
10.
This type of cell is found in females and is needed for reproduction.
a)
egg cell
b)
sperm cell
c)
bone cell
d)
nerve cell
11.
Which is true about Adult Stem Cells.
a)
They no longer do mitosis, their cell type is set and can not change
b)
They are limited to the type of  cell they can become.
c)
They can become any cell type in the body
d)
They are found in embryos
12.
Which is true about Embryonic Stem Cells.
a)
They no longer do mitosis, their cell type is set and can not change
b)
They are limited to the type of cell they can become
c)
They can become any cell type in the body
d)
They are found in adults
13.
Difficulty regulating insulin can lead to which disease?
a)
Heart Disease
b)
Alzheimer's Disease
c)
Diabetes
d)
Kidney Disease
14.
Which type of cell is bigger?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic 
15.
Which type of cell is this one?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
16.
Which type of cell is this one?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
17.
Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
c)
attached to the cell wall
d)
attached to the ribosome
18.
One example of a prokaryote is a...
a)
fungus
b)
bacteria
c)
animal
d)
plant
19.
Process in which cells become specialized in structure and function
a)
Replication
b)
Mitosis
c)
Meiosis
d)
Differentiation
20.
Unspecialized or undifferentiated cell that can give rise to one or more types of specialized cells are called
a)
Protists
b)
Body cells
c)
Stem Cell
d)
Plant cell
21.
Enzymes are composed of which macromolecule.
a)
lipids
b)
protein
22.
Some bacteria live in hot springs. Their cells contain enzymes that function best at temperatures of 70 °C or higher. At the temperature of 50 °C, how will the enzymes in these bacterial cells most likely be affected?
Enzymes work best at an optimal temperature.
a)
The enzymes will lose their bond structure and fall apart
b)
The enzymes will not increase the rate of reactions as much as they would at 70 °C. 
23.
What is the relationship between enzymes and activation energy? 
a)
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it decreases the activation energy of the reaction.
b)
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it does not affect the activation energy of the reaction.
24.
Meat tenderizer contains an enzyme that breaks down meat. If meat is coated with tenderizer and then placed in a refrigerator, how would the enzyme be affected? Temperature can effect how an enzyme works
a)
It would break down the meat more slowly
b)
It would change the shape of the meat.
25.
If the enzyme has a pH ranging from 7 to 9 what effect would a pH of 3 have on the enzyme?
Enzymes work best at an optimal temperature and pH
a)
make it inactive
b)
no change
26.
The graph shows how the activity of an enzyme changes over a range of pH values. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
pepsin works best at a pH near 2
b)
pepsin works best at a pH of 9
27.
The diagram below illustrates a biochemical process that occurs in organisms. What is another name for the substance labeled "catalyst"? 
a)
Enzyme
b)
Antibody
28.
The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements? 
a)
The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action
b)
Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.
29.
Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular reactions? 
Enzymes speed up reactions
a)
The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are missing.
b)
The reactions take up too much space in the cell if the enzymes are missing.
30.
Enzymes interact with the substrate at the 
a)
active site
b)
product
31.
Enzymes can break down the substrate starch into new
a)
products
b)
enzymes
32.
Enzymes are specific and often are compared to the interaction between a -
a)
lock and key 
b)
lock and chanin
33.
Enzyme -_______________ the activation energy required for a reaction.
a)
lower, decrease
b)
raise, increase
34.
What is the optimal temperature for the enzyme reaction shown? ____'c
a)
10
b)
20
c)
40
d)
60
35.
The following enzyme has been altered by a change in pH or temperature and is said to be -
a)
denatured
b)
eradicated
36.

Enzymes lower activation energy required.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Select all the statement/terms that are associated with enzymes.

a)

Protein

b)

Catalyst

c)

Lower Activation Energy

d)

Specific- Lock and Key

38.

Most enzymes end in the suffix- Ex: Amylase

a)

-ase

b)

-ise

39.

Enzymes work best at a certain temperature and pH.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Enzymes are PROTEINS.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids

42.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a a result of cellular respiration

43.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

44.

These diagrams show a variety of cells from the same organism. How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

b)

Mutations in the cells' nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

45.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells.

b)

It regulates body temperature.

c)

It maintains water balance.

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells.

46.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

47.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products.

48.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity.

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water.

49.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

50.

How mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

both have two cell divisions

b)

both require DNA replication

c)

both produce gametes

d)

both involve crossing over

51.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose --> oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen ---> carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water ---> carbon dioxide + glucose

52.

"The modification of characteristics in an organism through the manipulation of genes," describes which term?

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Gel electrophoresis

d)

Cloning

53.

When fragments of DNA are connected from different sources, this creates:

a)

A plasmid

b)

A clone

c)

Recombinant DNA

d)

Fragmented DNA

54.

Bacterial DNA that is often circular or in the shape of a ring is called a:

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Fragment

d)

Recombinant DNA

55.

An alternative to genetic engineering is carefully choosing the parent organisms and breeding them to arrive at desired traits in the offspring. This is called:

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

Bacterial Transformation

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

56.

Organisms that have had DNA from other organisms inserted into their DNA to produce certain traits are called:

a)

Plasmids

b)

Clones

c)

Transgenic organisms

d)

Recombinant organisms

57.

Which of the following is a medical application of genetic engineering?

a)

Inserting human DNA into bacterial DNA for insulin production

b)

Manipulating of DNA to produce glowing monkeys

c)

Engineering crops for greater nutritional content

d)

Modifying genes to achieve a desirable phenotype

58.

Which of the following means of genetic engineering would have the greatest impact on world hunger?

a)

Inserting human DNA into bacterial DNA for insulin production

b)

Manipulating DNA in trees to require less water

c)

Engineering crops for greater nutritional content

d)

Modifying genes to achieve a desirable phenotype

59.

Inserting human DNA into a bacterial plasmid to create insulin-producing bacteria is an example of:

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial Transformation

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

60.

Crops are often genetically engineered for certain traits such as:

a)

Longer shelf life

b)

Better appearance

c)

Increased crop yield

d)

Shorter growing season

e)

Insect resistance

61.

Crops are often genetically engineered for improved traits. Such crops and organisms are called:

a)

Genetically modified organisms

b)

Clones

c)

Transformed

d)

Nutritionally improved

62.

What was the purpose of the Human Genome Project?

a)

To develop the first human clones

b)

To map out the entire human genome

c)

To create new antibiotics

d)

To improve stem cell research

63.

The engineering of organisms that are genetically identical is known as:

a)

Cloning

b)

Bacterial transformation

c)

Selective breeding

d)

Gene therapy

64.

Using genetic engineering to treat or cure diseases is called:

a)

Bacterial transformation

b)

Selective breeding

c)

Gene therapy

d)

Alternative medicine

65.

Despite the successful cloning of human embryos, much of this research has been halted due to:

a)

National laws prohibiting human cloning

b)

Insufficient funding

c)

Lack of experimental research

d)

Ethical concerns

66.

Crops may be genetically modified for pesticide resistance. Which of the following practices is then unnecessary?

a)

Spraying with pesticides

b)

Irrigating crops

c)

Rotating crops

d)

Harvesting

67.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting with this enzyme?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

68.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The activation energy increases.

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes.

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms.

d)

The bonds between substrates are broken.

69.

A contractile vacuole helps protists eliminate excess liquid. This is a "pumping" process which reduces pressure inside the cell and prevents the cell from bursting. What is most likely the source of energy for this process?

a)

DNA

b)

lipids

c)

ATP

d)

ribosomes

70.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane-bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

71.

Which of these cells in the human body is specialized to transport oxygen throughout the body?

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

two cells eight chromosomes each

c)

four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

four cells with eight chromosomes each

73.

This diagram shows a Paramecium, a unicellular protist. When a chemical is added to the pond water in which the Paramecium lives, the Paramecium stops moving. Which structure is most likely affected?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

74.

During translation, what does the tRNA deliver to the ribosomes?

a)

amino acids

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

proteins

75.

Which will most likely cause an increase in the frequency of genetic mutations in humans?

a)

increased exposure to mold spores in the air

b)

increased exposure to rising levels of atmospheric CO2

c)

increased exposure to bacteria in drinking water

d)

increased exposure to X-rays

76.

Identical twin girls are separated at birth and cared for by two different families. After twenty years, the twins have different heights and weights. What is most likely the cause of these differences?

a)

One twin had a genetic condition that prevented her from growing tall.

b)

The DNA of one twin was different from the DNA of the other twin.

c)

Each twin was provided a different diet and physical activities.

d)

The proteins made by one twin were different that the proteins made by the other twin.

77.

Which molecules are joined together to make proteins?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

amino acids

d)

acetic acids

78.
___ are made up of ____  _____ and function in building and repairing cells, give you your characteristics; form bone and muscle, & transport materials.
a)
Proteins, amino acids
b)
Lipids, fatty acids
c)
Carbohydrates, simple sugars
d)
Nucleic Acids, nitrogen bases
79.
A(n)  _______ shows interconnected food chains.
a)
energy pyramid
b)
tropic level
c)
food web
d)
feeding diagram
80.
In a trophic level, ____ always have the most energy and the most biomass.  ____ level consumers always have the least energy.  Decomposers are located on the ____ of the trophic level diagram.
a)
producers, top, side
b)
top level consumers, primary, bottom
c)
producers, primary consumers, side
d)
top level consumers, producers, bottom
81.
A(n) ___ chain shows the flow of ___.  It always starts with the ____ and ends with the ____.  Examples of decomposers are _____ and fungi.
a)
food, energy, prey,  predator, bacteria
b)
food, energy, producers, decomposer, bacteria
c)
energy,food, prey, predator decomposers, protists
d)
energy, food, producers, decomposer, bacteria
82.
Only ___ of energy is given to the next trophic level.  ___ is eliminated as waste heat.
a)
10%, 90%
b)
90%, 10%
c)
25%, 75%
d)
75%, 25%
83.
Autotrophs use ____ to produce _____.
a)
O2, glucose
b)
CO2, glucose
c)
O2, deoxyribose
d)
CO2, deoxyribose
84.
________ releases CO2 into the atmosphere.
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
c)
Anaerobic Respiration
d)
Fermentation
85.
The two reactants for cellular respiration are ____ and ____ which produces ____, water, and ATP (energy).
a)
carbon dioxide, glucose, oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide, water, oxygen
c)
oxygen, glucose, carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen, water, carbon dioxide
86.
The process of breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen is called _____ respiration. this takes places in the _____ and produces more ATP than ______.
a)
aerobic, mitochondria, anaerobic 
b)
anaerobic, cytoplasm, aerobic
c)
aerobic, cytoplasm, anaerobic
d)
anaerobic, mitochnodria, aerobic
87.
____ is a process that brings CO2 back to land from the atmosphere.  If a plant is submerged in water, what type of gas bubbles are given off?______
a)
Photosynthesis, CO2
b)
Photosynthesis, O2
c)
Cellular Respiration, O2
d)
Cellular Respiration, CO2
88.

What lab technique separates DNA molecules by size in order to analyze DNA?

a)

Gel Electrophoresis

b)

Fingerprinting

c)

Cloning

d)

DNA Extraction

89.

DNA fingerprinting may be used to do which of the following?

a)

Identify gender

b)

Identify criminals

c)

Identify parents and offspring

d)

Identify genetic disorders

90.

The process of collecting DNA from the nucleus of a cell is called:

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

DNA extraction

d)

Transformation

91.

Once DNA has been extracted from the nucleus of a cell, it is exposed to ______ ______ that act like biochemical scissors to cut the DNA.

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

gel agarose

c)

clotting factors

d)

electric shock

92.

What is the role of restriction enzymes?

a)

To cut the DNA into fragments

b)

To dye the DNA

c)

To move the DNA fragments throughout the gel

d)

To remove DNA from the nucleus

93.

The pieces of DNA that are seen in the DNA fingerprint are called:

a)

Genes

b)

Granules

c)

Fragments

d)

Composites

94.

Gel electrophoresis separates fragments of DNA by:

a)

Size/weight

b)

Genes

c)

Base pairs

d)

Electromagnetic charge

95.

In a DNA fingerprint, lighter-weight fragments can be found at the:

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

c)

Middle

d)

Front

96.

Which suspect left the blood stain?

a)

Bob

b)

Sue

c)

John

d)

Lisa

97.

Which suspect's DNA fingerprint matches that of the felon?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

None

98.

Which suspect matches that of the crime scene DNA?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

99.

Which suspect matches the crime scene?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Neither

100.

Which man is the father of Mary's child?

a)

Bob

b)

Larry

101.

Which male is the father of the child?

a)

Male 1

b)

Male 2

102.

Which man is the actual father of the child?

a)

"Dad" 1

b)

"Dad" 2

c)

"Dad" 3

103.

Like RNA, DNA is a type of:

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

104.

The subunit of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA are called:

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Sugars

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

105.

The subunits of nucleic acids, such as DNA, are nucleotides. What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Sugar group

c)

Hydrogen group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

106.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Double-helix Nucleic Acid

b)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

c)

Dehydrogenic Acid

d)

Denitrogenous Acid

107.

What type of sugar group does DNA have?

a)

Ribose

b)

Glucose

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Lactose

108.

DNA has nitrogenous bases that come in pairs. What is this called?

a)

Complementary Base Pairing

b)

Convergent Pairing

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

DNA Replication

109.

How many possible bases are found in DNA?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

110.

Select the 2 correct DNA base pairs.

a)

Adenine and Thymine

b)

Adenine and Cytosine

c)

Cytosine and Guanine

d)

Cytosine and Thymine

111.

DNA is said to be in the shape of a:

a)

Single helix

b)

Double helix

c)

Plasmid

d)

Complementary base pairs

112.

Which 2 parts of a nucleotide form the sides or "backbone" of the DNA ladder?

a)

Nitrogenous Base

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Deoxyribose sugar

d)

Ribose sugar

113.

The nitrogenous bases of DNA nucleotides form the middle "rungs" of the DNA ladder. What type of bond holds these bases together?

a)

Strong covalent bonds

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Weak hydrogen bonds

d)

Strong phosphorous bonds

114.

Every set of 3 bases or letters in DNA and RNA are called a:

a)

Codon

b)

Triplet

c)

Chart

d)

Amino acid

115.

Select the correct complementary DNA strand for the following sequence: TAC-GCT

a)

ATG-CGA

b)

AUG-CGA

c)

TAC-GCT

d)

GTC-ATC

116.

A segment of DNA is called a:

a)

Allele

b)

Gene

c)

Codon

d)

Trait

117.

What aspect of DNA determines the proteins that are produced?

a)

The arrangement of nitrogenous bases

b)

The double helix shape

c)

The alternating sugar-phosphate backbone

d)

The complementary nature

118.

What process is shown in this image?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Independent Assortment

119.

Where in the cell does DNA replication occur?

a)

RIbosomes

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Nucleolus

120.

Why do cells replicate their DNA?

a)

To express genes

b)

To code for proteins

c)

To make more DNA for new cells

d)

To repair damaged DNA

121.

When do cells replicate their DNA?

a)

During the S phase of Interphase before cell division

b)

During cytokinesis following cell division

c)

During cell division or mitosis

d)

During the G1 phase of Interphase before cell division

122.

During DNA replication, the DNA is first unzipped by an enzyme called:

a)

Lactose

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Catalase

123.

During DNA replication, an enzyme called ________ is responsible for attaching new nitrogenous bases to each unzipped strand of the DNA.

a)

Helicase

b)

Lactose

c)

Catalase

d)

DNA Polymerase

124.

In DNA replication, the DNA is first unzipped and then new nitrogenous bases are added to each of the original strands. This is called a _______ because half of the original DNA is preserved in each new strand.

a)

Semi-conservative process

b)

Dispersive process

c)

Conservative process

125.

DNA is found in what cell structure?

a)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Nucleolus

126.

What is cell transport?

a)

Cells moving throughout the body.

b)

The movement of materials in and out of cells.

c)

Deterioration of cells over time

d)

Cell differentiation or specialization

127.

What term means a state of stability or equilibrium?

a)

Taxis

b)

Cell Transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Homeostasis

128.

Which cell structure is responsible for maintaining homeostasis by allowing materials in and out of the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Cell Wall

129.

What are the 2 types of cell transport?

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

130.

Passive transport moves materials along the concentration gradient from:

a)

High to low concentration

b)

Low to high concentration

131.

What are the 2 types of passive transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active Transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Homeostasis

132.

Diffusion that is aided by proteins in the cell membrane is called:

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active Transport

c)

Diffusion

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

133.

Diffusion is the movement of:

a)

Water

b)

Gas

c)

Solids

d)

Any particles

134.

Osmosis is specifically the diffusion of:

a)

Water

b)

Gas

c)

Solids

d)

Any particles

135.

If a cell shrinks in a solution, the solution is said to be:

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

136.

If there are more solutes inside a cell in a solution, the solution is said to be:

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

137.

Beaker B demonstrates a ______________ solution.

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

138.

Beaker A represents a ______________ solution.

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

139.

In beaker C, water will _______ the cell.

a)

Enter

b)

Exit

c)

Both exit and enter

140.

By what adaptive structure does a paramecium regulate its water intake?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Contractile vacuole

141.

Active transport requires the most direct use of:

a)

ATP

b)

Proteins

c)

Water

d)

Glucose

142.

In active transport, materials are moved from:

a)

High to low concentration

b)

Low to high concentration

143.

Why is maintaining homeostasis important?

a)

The survival of the cell, and therefore the organism, depends on it.

b)

To ensure the cell can make enough energy

c)

To prevent nutrients from entering the cell

d)

The cell cannot withstand stable environments.

144.

What pH values are acidic?

a)

0-6

b)

7

c)

8-14

d)

14+

145.

What pH values are basic?

a)

0-6

b)

7

c)

8-14

d)

14+

146.

What is a pH buffer?

a)

Substances produced by the cell that make solutions more acidic

b)

Substances produced by the cell that make solutions more basic

c)

Substances produced by the cell to resist changes in pH

d)

Substances produced by the cell to prevent contact with other cells.

147.

The cell membrane is comprised of what two structures?

a)

Phospholipids

b)

Starches

c)

Cellulose

d)

Proteins

148.

The plasma membrane has a double layer of:

a)

Proteins

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Cellulose

d)

Starches

149.

Organic compounds are those that contain the element:

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Helium

150.

Polymers are complex molecules made up of subunits called:

a)

Monomers

b)

Moles

c)

Motion

d)

Molecules

151.

In addition to carbon, organic compounds tend to also contain the element ___________ as a "filler molecule."

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Helium

d)

Hydrogen

152.

Which of the following is NOT a type of organic compound?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

e)

Amino Acids

153.

What is the building block of a carbohydrate?

a)

Sugar

b)

Glycerol & 3 Fatty Acid Chains

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

154.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates?

a)

Fast energy

b)

Long-term energy storage

c)

Store genetic information

d)

Body insulation

155.

Simple sugars or carbohydrates are called monosaccharides, while complex carbs are known as:

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Amino acids

c)

Polysaccharides

d)

Glucose

156.

Which of the following is NOT a complex carbohydrate?

a)

Glucose

b)

Cellulose

c)

Starch

d)

Glycogen

157.

Which of the following foods is NOT an example of a carbohydrate?

a)

Bread

b)

Pasta

c)

Steak

d)

Candy

e)

Soda

158.

Which of the following complex carbohydrates is a primary component of a plant's cell wall?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Lipids

159.

Sugars, the building block of carbs, tend to end with the suffix:

a)

-ase

b)

-ice

c)

-tion

d)

-ose

160.

What elements are found in CARBOHYDRATES?

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP

161.

What are the building blocks or monomers of lipids?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycerol and 3 Fatty Acid Chains

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

162.

Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids?

a)

Long-term energy storage

b)

Bodily insulation and protection

c)

Components of the cell's plasma membrane

d)

Quick energy

163.

Which elements are found in LIPIDS?

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP

164.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a lipid?

a)

Butter

b)

Olive oil

c)

Candle wax

d)

Soda

e)

Phospholipids

165.

The cell membrane may also be called a ___________ bilayer.

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Phosphorous

c)

Amino acid

d)

Disaccharide

166.

What is the building block or monomer of proteins?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycerol & 3 Fatty Acid Chains

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

167.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a protein?

a)

Steak

b)

Enzymes, hormones, and insulin

c)

Muscle

d)

Hair, skin, nails

e)

None; ALL of these are proteins.

168.

What type of bonds hold the amino acids of a protein together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Van der Waals Interactions

d)

Lewis Bonds

169.

Which elements make up proteins?

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP

170.

What is the subunit of nucleic acids?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycerol & 3 Fatty Acid Chains

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Nucleotides

171.

What is the primary function of nucleic acids?

a)

Quick energy

b)

Long-term energy storage & Insulation

c)

Structure & Speed up chemical reactions

d)

Store genetic information & direct protein synthesis

172.

What are the ONLY 2 examples of nucleic acids?

a)

DNA & RNA

b)

DNA & TNA

c)

Proteins & Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

173.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the nucleotides that make up a nucleic acid?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Sugar group

c)

Nitrogenous Base

d)

Hydrogen group

174.

What elements make up a nucleic acid?

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP

175.

The nitrogenous base adenine pairs with:

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

176.

What type of bond holds DNA bases together in the double helix structure?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Van der Waals Interactions

d)

Clark bonds

177.

Enzymes are types of which biomolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

178.

Enzymes speed up reactions and are often called:

a)

Catalysts

b)

Chargers

c)

Fats

d)

Heaters

179.

Enzymes typically end with the suffix:

a)

-ase

b)

-ise

c)

-tion

d)

-ose

180.

In reference to enzymes, shape determines:

a)

size

b)

amount

c)

function

d)

parts

181.

What do you call the place where a substrate attaches to an enzyme?

a)

Reactant

b)

Active Site

c)

Product

d)

Digestion

182.

Enzymes are reusable.

a)

True

b)

False

183.

If an enzyme changes shape, it is said to have been _____.

a)

Altered

b)

Denatured

c)

Fried

d)

Zapped

184.

What 2 things are typically the cause for enzyme denaturation?

a)

Temperature & density

b)

pH & density

c)

Mass & density

d)

Temperature & pH

185.

What do we call the least amount of energy that is required for a chemical reaction to take place?

a)

Maximal energy

b)

Threshold

c)

Activation energy

d)

Mendel's energy threshold

186.
Which best describes the first organisms to live on Earth?
a)
Prokaryotic and Anaerobic
b)
Prokaryotic & Aerobic
c)
Eukaryotic and Aerobic
d)
Eukaryotic & Anaerobic
187.
The similarities in these homologous structures imply which of the following?
a)
The organisms grow in the same type of environments
b)
The organisms evolved from a common ancestor
c)
Their bones grow at similar rates of speed
d)
The organisms have a similar life expectancy
188.
A paleontologist is comparing the fossilized remains of two primates. Both animals had a prehensile tail. What can be concluded from this evidence?
a)
They were not related.
b)
They lived on the ground.
c)
They evolved from a common ancestor.
d)
They had bipedal locomotion.
189.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
190.
The process by which populations slowly change over time is called__________
a)
selective breeding
b)
adaptation
c)
sepeciation
d)
evolution
191.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
192.
Structures that have the same function but different structures are...
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
vestigial structures
d)
embryology 
193.
What type of structures are these?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial 
c)
analogous
d)
fossil
194.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
195.
Which layer is the oldest
a)
B
b)
A
c)
E
d)
C
196.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
197.
If two organisms have similar traits of DNA they are probably
a)
share a common ancestor
b)
share a common environment
c)
share a common population
d)
speciation
198.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
199.
Which best describes these fossils?
a)
The oldest fossils can be found on the lower layers
b)
The oldest fossils can be found at the top layers
c)
The youngest fossils are always found on the bottom layers
d)
You can not tell the age of any of these fossils
200.
Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone.  Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale.  Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
201.
If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
a)
species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor
b)
species A evolved independently of species B for a long period
c)
species A is younger than species B
d)
species A is older than species B
202.
Which of the following pieces of evolution evidence contain both homologous and vestigial structures?
a)
fossil record
b)
comparing embryology
c)
comparing biochemistry
d)
comparing anatomy
203.
If I wanted to look at DNA to study evolution, I am using what evidence?
a)
comparative anatomy
b)
embryology
c)
fossil record
d)
biochemical

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