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WorksheetsAUBF FINAL EXAM
Total questions: 116
Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is:
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
Hydrogen
The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:
1.005
1.010
1.015
1.020
What are the variables included in the Cockgroft and Gault formula for creatinine clearance?
1. Age 3. Urine creatinine
2. Sex 4. Body weight
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3
1, 2 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
The average total volume of urine produced by a normal adult every 24 hours is about
750 mL
1200 mL
2000 mL
2400 mL
An abnormal decrease in urine production is called:
Anuria
Oliguria
Polyuria
Dysuria
Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine could indicate the presence of:
Protein
Sugar
WBCs
Any of these
Which of these plasma substances is NOT normally filtered through the glomerulus in significant amounts
Protein
Glucose
Creatinine
Urea
Which term is defined as a urine volume in excess of 2000 mL excreted over a 24-hour period?
Anuria
Oliguria
Polyuria
Hypersthenuria
Which of the following will contribute to a specimen’s specific gravity if it is present in a person’s urine
50-100 RBC/hpf
85 mg/dL glucose
3+ amorphous phosphates
Moderate bacteria
Why is the first-voided morning urine specimen the most desirable specimen for routine urinalysis?
Most dilute specimen of the day
Less contamination by microorganisms
It can detect orthostatic proteinuria
Most concentrated specimen of the day
Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
Yeast cells
Uroerythrin
WBCs
Amorphous phosphates
A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could indicate:
Methionine malabsorption
Trimethylaminuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosyluria
A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require:
Collection of a fresh specimen
Centrifugation
Dilution for specific gravity
Testing under a hood
A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050 and a:
2+ protein
2+ glucose
Radiographic dye infusion
First morning specimen
A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam when shaken can be suspected of containing:
Carrots
Hemoglobin
Rhubarb
Bilirubin
A patient with a 1+ protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen also has a 1+ protein. This patient is
Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
Positive for Bence Jones proteinuria
Negative for clinical proteinuria
Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abnominal pain is frequently performed to check for
Bilirubinuria
Proteinuria
Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
Reagent strip – specific gravity readings are affected by:
Glucose
Radiographic dye
Alkaline urine
All of the given choices
The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is:
Bilirubin
Leukocyte esterase
pH
Glucose
The enzyme dipstick test for glucose has a sensitivity of:
10 mg/dL
50 mg/dL
100 mg/dL
200 mg/dL
Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose?
Any reducing substance can give a false positive reaction w/ copper reduction test for glucose
The copper reduction method is specific for glucose
Glucose cannot appear in the urine in the absence of elevated plasma glucose
Glucose cannot appear in the urine in the absence of elevated plasma glucose
Which of the reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?
p-Dinitrobenzene
p-Aminosalicylate
p-Dichloroaniline
p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
All of the statements below regarding urine bilirubin tests are true EXCEPT
A positive test indicates either liver or hepatobiliary disease
The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
High levels of ascorbate usually do not interfere
Standing urine may become falsely negative due to bacterial hydrolysis
A positive test for blood in urine can occur in the following EXCEPT:
Extravascular hemolytic anemia
Crush injury
Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system
Renal calculi
Which of the following is the major organic substance found in urine?
Sodium
Glucose
Chloride
Urea
A reagent test strip impregnated with an aromatic amine such as p-arsanilic acid or sulfanilamide may be used to detect which analyte?
Bilirubin
Blood
Nitrite
Urobilinogen
What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided urine specimen?
3.5-8.0
3.5-9.0
4.0-8.5
4.5-8.0
False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:
Bananas
Tomatoes
Pineapples
All of the given choices
Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Hartnup disease
Alkaptonuria
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndrome are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:
Tryptophan
Purines
Mucopolysaccharides
Porphyrins
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency is associated with which of the following?
Acute intermittent porphyria (AIN)
Hereditary coproporphyria (HCP)
Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)
Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
Urinary screening tests for mucopolysaccharides:
1. Acid albumin 3. Cyanide-Nitroprusside
2. CTAB 4. Nitroso-naphthol
1 and 2
2 only
1, 2 and 3
3 and 4
He discovered phenylketonuria from a mentally retarded child with a peculiar mousy odor to his urine:
Ivan Folling
Garrod
Cotugno
Frederik Dekkers
A clinically significant epithelial cell is the:
Cuboidal cell
Clue cell
Caudate cell
Squamous epithelial cell
When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?
RBCs
WBCs
Casts
Bacteria
Which of the following should be used to reduce light intensity in bright-field microscopy?
Centering screws
Aperture diaphragm
Rheostat
Condenser aperture diaphragm
The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of:
Renal calculi
Traumatic injury
Glomerular bleeding
Coagulation disorders
The primary component of urinary mucus is:
Albumin
Uromodulin
Goblet cells
Beta2-microglobulin
The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
Neutrophils
Monocyte
Renal tubular cells
Eosinophils
What is the normal value for urinary eosinophils?
>10%
<1%
>1%
<10%
A disorder characterized by the disruption of the electrical charges that produce the tightly fitting podocyte barrier resulting in massive loss of proteins and lipids:
Alport syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome
IgA nephropathy
Lipid nephrosis
Visicoureteral reflux or the reflux of urine from the bladder back into the ureters may result to:
Acute glomerulonephritis
Cystitis
Acute pyelonephritis
Acute interstitial nephritis
The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is an indication of
Acute interstitial nephritis
Chronic glomerulonephritis
Minimal change disease
Acute tubular necrosis
End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Electrolyte imbalance
Azotemia
Hypersthenuria
Isosthenuria
Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with:
Nephrotic syndrome
Acute renal failure
Chronic renal failure
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
It is described as a genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning of glomerular basement membrane:
Goodpasture syndrome
Alport syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome
Wegener’s granulomatosis
Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney?
Distal convoluted tubule
Glomerulus
Loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule
A parasite associated with a positive leukocyte esterase is:
Enterobius vermicularis
Trichomonas vaginalis
Schistosoma haematobium
Candida albicans
The hormone characteristically present in the blood of pregnant women and which, when its concentration in the blood reaches a certain point, also appears in the urine is:
Estradiol
Aldosterone
Progesterone
hCG
HCG is produced by which of the following?
Cytotrophoblast cells
Argentaffin cells
Endocervical glandular cells
Type II pneumocytes
The most common composition of renal calculi is:
Calcium oxalate
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Cystine
Uric acid
A renal calculi described as yellowish to brownish red in color with a moderately hard consistency is
Cystine
Phosphate
Calcium oxalate
Uric acid
A renal calculi described as pale and friable is
Cystine
Phosphate
Calcium oxalate
Uric acid
A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a:
Positive APT test
Negative trypsin test
Positive Clinitest
Negative occult blood test
What is the gold standard for fecal fat determination?
Van de Kamer titration
Van den Berg reaction
APT test
D-Xylose test
Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and cause does not match?
Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
Black, tarry: blood
Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
Yellow-green: barium sulfate
All of the following statements about CSF are true EXCEPT:
CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the choroid plexus
CSF circulates in the subarachnoid space and ventricles of the brain
The chemical composition of CSF is similar to plasma
Reabsorption of CSF occurs via vessels in the sagittal sinus
All of the following are indication of CSF traumatic tap EXCEPT:
Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
A clear supernatant after centrifugation
Xanthochromia
Presence of a clot in the sample
The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is
Empysema
Neutrophilia
Pleocytosis
Lymphocytosis
The limulus lysate test on CSF is a sensitive assay for:
Viral meningitis
Cryptococcal meningitis
Gram positive bacterial exotoxin
Gram negative bacterial endotoxin
A normal CSF glucose and lactate level is associated with which type of meningitis?
Viral meningitis
Bacterial meningitis
Fungal meningitis
Tubercular meningitis
The most common cause of male infertility is
Mumps
Klinefelter’s syndrome
Varicocele
Malignancy
Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?
Eosin
Hematoxylin
Papanicolau
Methylene blue
Seminal fluid viscosity graded as 4 is described as:
Watery
Fair
Friable
Gel-like
Which test for FLM is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin and meconium
Amniostat-FLM
Foam stability
Lamellar body count
L/S ratio
How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and stored in the laboratory
Delivered on ice and refrigerated or frozen
Immediately centrifuged
Kept at room temperature
Protected from light
The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be detected by:
Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol
Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase
What type of tube for gastric fluid collection is inserted through the mouth
Rehfuss tube
Levine tube
Diagnex tube
None of these
A gastric disorder characterized by achlorhydria due to the presence of anti-parietal cell antibodies
Zollinger-Ellison disease
Helicobacter pylori infection
Pernicious anemia
Cystic fibrosis
All of the following may be associated with bronchial asthma EXCEPT:
Creola bodies
Curschmann’s spirals
Charcot-Leyden crystals
Pneumoliths
A sputum that is rusty-colored and filled with pus is associated with:
Congestive heart failure
Lobar pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Anthracosis
CYFRA 21-1 is a tumor marker for:
Uterine cancer
Colon cancer
Lung cancer
Breast cancer
This is a sensitive test for the detection of intra-abdominal bleeding:
Peritoneal lavage
Bronchioalveolar lavage
Thoracic lavage
Pericardial lavage
Which of the following is the preferred urine specimen for cytology studies?
Catheterized
First morning
Suprapubic aspiration
Three-glass collection
All of the following changes occur in unpreserved urine EXCEPT:
1. Decreased glucose
2. Increased pH
3. Increased ketones
4. Increased clarity
5. Incr. urobilinogen
6. Increased bacteria
3, 4 and 5
1, 2 and 6
1, 3 and 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Which of the following matches regarding specimen collection is/are incorrect?
1. Arthrocentesis – synovial fluid
2. Amniocentesis – amniotic fluid
3. Thoracentesis – Ascitic fluid
4. Pericardiocentesis – Pleural fluid
1 and 2
3 and 4
1 and 3
2 and 4
It refers to the ability of a microscopic lens to distinguish two small objects that are a specific distance apart:
Parfocal
Birefringence
Illumination
Resolution
Which type of microscopy is used to aid in identification of cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts and crystals?
Polarizing
Phase-contrast
Interference-contrast
Dark-field
Given the following, identify the preanalytical errors:
1. Patient misidentification
2. Poor handwriting
3. Reagent deterioration
4. Insufficient urine volume
5. Delayed transport of urine to lab
6. Instrument malfunction
1, 4 and 5
2, 3 and 6
1, 2 and 3
4, 5 and 6
Given the following, identify the preanalytical errors:
1. Patient misidentification
2. Poor handwriting
3. Reagent deterioration
4. Insufficient urine volume
5. Delayed transport of urine to lab
6. Instrument malfunction
1, 4 and 5
2, 3 and 6
1, 2 and 3
4, 5 and 6
Which statement regarding renal function is true?
Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries
The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH
The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only in the presence of aldosterone
The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to H2O and urea
Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?
Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens
Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed in deionized H2O
Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours
First morning voided samples are not acceptable when renal disease is suspected
A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:
Gantrisin (Pyridium)
Phenolsulfonphthalein
Rifampin
Melanin
Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?
Protein
Salt
Urea
Glucose
In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
Consistently acid
Consistently alkaline
Neutral
Variable, depending upon diet
The normal daily urine output for an adult is
approximately:
0.2–0.5 L
0.6–1.6 L
2.7–3.0 L
3.2–3.5 L
The normal renal threshold for glucose is:
70–85 mg/dL
100–115 mg/dL
130–145 mg/dL
165–180 mg/dL
Class C fires are usually caused by
Wood, paper, clothing
Chemicals
Metals
Electrical
Grease, oils and fats
The primary chemical constituents of normal
urine are:
Protein, sodium, and water
Urea, water, and protein
Urea, chloride, and water
Urea, bilirubin, and glucose
A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia,
and a high urine specific gravity is exhibiting
symptoms of what disorder?
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Urinary tract infection
Uremia
The physical characteristic of color is assessed when a routine urinalysis is performed. What substance is
normally found in urine that is principally responsible for its yellow coloration?
Bilirubin
Melanin
Carotene
Urochrome
Patients with diabetes insipidus tend to
produce urine _____________________ in volume with
_______________specific gravity.
Increased; decreased
Increased; increased
Decreased; decreased
Decreased; increased
During active transport, sodium is reabsorbed at?
PCT
DCT
DLH
ALH
CD
This colligative property was the first principle incorporated into clinical osmometers.
Freezing point
Boiling point
Vapor Pressure
Osmotic Pressure
Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?
"Glitter cells” seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease
Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection (UTI)
WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment
WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin
Which of the following statements regarding RBCs in the urinary sediment is true?
Yeast cells will lyse in dilute acetic acid but RBCs will not
RBCs are often swollen in hypertonic urine
RBCs of glomerular origin often appear dysmorphic
Yeast cells will tumble when the cover glass is touched but RBCs will not
Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?
Chronic production of alkaline urine
Polyuria
Reduced filtrate formation
Low urine SG
The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:
Bence–Jones protein
β-Microglobulin
Tamm–Horsfall protein
Arginine-rich glycoprotein
Which of the following statements regarding urinary casts is correct?
Fine granular casts are more significant than coarse granular casts
Cylindruria is always clinically significant
The appearance of cylindroids signals the onset of end-stage renal disease
Broad casts are associated with severe renal tubular obstruction
Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:
Nephrotic syndrome
Pyelonephritis
Polycystic kidney disease
Cystitis
Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Calcium oxalate
Calcium phosphate
Calcium carbonate
Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of
Alkaptone
Phenylalanine
5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
Homogentisic acid
Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract are characterized by increased excretion of urinary
Serotonin
5-Hydroxytryptophan
Homogentisic acid
5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
Which urinalysis reagent strip test will never be reported out as "negative"?
Protein
Urobilinogen
Bilirubin
Nitrite
In reporting SSA turbidity, distinct turbidity is seen with no granulation:
1+
2+
3+
4+
Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in the following urine reagent strip except?
Blood
Bilirubin
Leukocytes
pH
Ascending sequence of casts:
Waxy-hyaline-coarsely granular-finely granular-cellular
Coarsely granular-finely granular-hyaline-waxy-cellular
Hyaline-cellular-coarsely granular-finely granular-waxy
Cellular-hyaline-finely granular-coarsely granular-waxy
Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?
sodium nitroprusside
acetoacetic acid
acetone
beta-hydroxybutyric acid
A reagent strip area impregnated with stabilized, diazotized 2, 4 dichloroaniline will yield a positive reaction with:
bilirubin
hemoglobin
ketones
urobilinogen
Lactose intolerance caused by the lack of sufficient lactase primarily presents with
steatorrhea
osmotic diarrhea
secretory diarrhea
intestinal hypermotility
Which of the following components is not normally present in synovial fluid?
Fibrinogen
Neutrophils
Protein
Uric acid
Which of the following is not a function of the amniotic fluid surrounding a developing fetus?
Amniotic fluid provides protection of the fetus.
Amniotic fluid enables fetal movement.
Amniotic fluid is a medium for oxygen exchange.
Amniotic fluid is a source of water and solute exchange.
A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III indicates that the fetus is experiencing
no hemolysis
mild hemolysis
moderate hemolysis
severe hemolysis
Which of the following conditions enhances the formation of serous fluid in a body cavity?
Increased lymphatic absorption
Increased capillary permeability
Increased plasma oncotic pressure
Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate
Color and clarity
Leukocyte and differential counts
Total protein and specific gravity measurements
Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio
Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:
Peritonitis
Lavage
Ascites
Cirrhosis
