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Chapter 10 DNA Study Guide

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

True or False: Whole blood collected for DNA typing purposes MUST be placed in a vacuum containing the preservative ethylene glycol.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

True or False: Luminol can be used at crime scenes to detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

True or False: Buccal cells are obtained from the mouth and inside of the cheek.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

True or False: The molecular structure of DNA was deduced by Francis Crick and Roslin Franklin with the help of James Watson's x-rays.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

True or False: In an RNA strand uracil replaces adenine.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

True or False: CODIS is a national system of shared databases of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime scene evidence.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

True or False: During gel electrophoresis the DNA is cut into fragments.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

True or False: Gene splicing is a laboratory procedure that has made possible the synthesis of insulin through the development of bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

True or False: Restriction enzymes limit the amount of protein produced in a cell.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

True or False: Recombinant DNA technology is useful in producing insulin and growth hormone.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA?

a)

cytosine

b)

uracil

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

12.

Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA?

a)

C-T

b)

T-A

c)

A-U

d)

G-A

13.

The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to:

a)

synthesize protein.

b)

hydrolyze polymerase.

c)

analyze the sequence of bases.

d)

copy DNA.

14.

Which statement about tandem repeats is NOT true?

a)

They are of no forensic interest.

b)

Their origin is a mystery.

c)

It is thought that they may act as spacers between the coded regions of DNA.

d)

More than 30% of the human genome is composed of these repeating units.

15.

The uniqueness of mtDNA in a family is _____, compared to nDNA.

a)

lower

b)

higher

c)

cannot be determined

16.

How should blood-containing clothes from a victim be packaged?

a)

in an airtight clear plastic container

b)

in a metal container

c)

in breathable paper after blood has dried

d)

in breathable paper while blood is still wet

17.

Which component of DNA forms the backbone of the molecule?

a)

phosphate group

b)

sugar

c)

nitrogenous base

d)

Both phosphate group and sugar

18.

PCR is a technique that:

a)

provides a statistical analysis of the sequence of the nitrogenous-base pairings.

b)

virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis.

c)

can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA.

d)

all of these

19.

STRs normally consist of repeating sequences of:

a)

3-7 bases.

b)

18-20 bases.

c)

13-17 bases.

d)

1-2 bases.

20.

Depending on the circumstances which unique characteristic of mitochondrial DNA and/or the analysis of it can be considered an advantage or a disadvantage?

a)

mtDNA analysis is more sensitive than nuclear DNA analysis.

b)

mtDNA is not found in the nucleus of the cell but in the mitochondria.

c)

All individuals of the same maternal lineage will be indistinguishable by mtDNA analysis.

d)

Because each human cell contains hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, then there are hundreds to thousands of copies of mtDNA.

21.

The technology of DNA typing had its beginnings in 1985 with the work of:

a)

John Butler.

b)

Alec Jefferys.

c)

James Watson.

d)

Henry Lee.

22.

DNA is a(n):

a)

polymer.

b)

enzyme.

c)

starch.

d)

protein.

23.

Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphorous containing group

d)

double helix

24.

Information from the Human Genome Project will:

a)

reveal the location of a gene on a particular chromosome.

b)

be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic diseases.

c)

aid in understanding the underlying causes of cancer.

d)

all of these

25.

The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism's:

a)

environment.

b)

decisions.

c)

nitrogenous bases.

d)

amino acids.

26.

Which of the following proteins is mutated to cause the disease sickle cell anemia?

a)

albumin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

gamma globulin

d)

macroglobulin

27.

In DNA replication, polymerases:

a)

enable the strands to unwind from the helix.

b)

help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence.

c)

separate the strands of the double helix.

d)

B and C only

28.

When using a three-probe system of DNA typing, what is the maximum number of bands a typical DNA pattern will show?

a)

3

b)

16

c)

6

d)

9

29.

Which of the following is in the correct sequence?

a)

addition of radioactive probe ---> gel electrophoresis ---> hybridization ---> Southern blotting ---> addition of restriction enzymes ---> visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film

b)

addition of radioactive probe ---> Southern blotting ---> gel electrophoresis ---> hybridization ---> visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film

c)

extraction of DNA from cells ---> hybridization ---> Southern blotting ---> gel electrophoresis ---> visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film

d)

extraction of DNA from cells ---> gel electrophoresis ---> Southern blotting ---> hybridization ---> visualization of DNA fragments on x-ray film

30.

Radioactive probes are used:

a)

to visualize RFLPs.

b)

as molecular scissors.

c)

to hold DNA in helical shape.

d)

as primers for DNA polymerase.

31.

The rate at which large DNA fragments move through the electrophoretic gel is _____ the rate at which small DNA fragments move through the same apparatus.

a)

greater than

b)

the same as

c)

less than

32.

In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit the:

a)

DNA to be extracted from the nucleus of the cell.

b)

hybridization to take place.

c)

double-stranded molecules to separate completely.

d)

DNA to coil very tightly in the helical shape.

33.

Each cycle of the DNA Thermal Cycler takes approximately:

a)

two minutes.

b)

four hours.

c)

30 seconds.

d)

two hours.

34.

What is the advantage of working with short DNA fragments?

a)

They are more stable and less likely to break apart.

b)

Their quantity can be greatly amplified by PCR technology.

c)

They are less subject to degradation due to adverse environmental conditions.

d)

all of these

35.

STR analysis has replaced RFLP DNA typing because it:

a)

can be implemented using the PCR.

b)

is less subject to sample degradation.

c)

reduces time to obtain results from a sample.

d)

all of these

36.

Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits:

a)

gender.

b)

age.

c)

blood type.

d)

ethnicity.

37.

As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology CANNOT provide information helpful in:

a)

settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity.

b)

matching a suspect to biological evidence found at a crime scene.

c)

ruling out a suspect.

d)

determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect.

38.

Using the low copy number DNA protocol, analysis are able to examine samples containing as few as _____ cells.

a)

800

b)

18

c)

180

d)

2000

39.

_____ region(s) of mitochondrial DNA have been found to be highly variable in the human population for forensic determinations.

a)

three

b)

two

c)

four

d)

one

40.

A typical STR DNA type emanating from a single individual shows a _____ band pattern.

a)

zero

b)

three

c)

one

d)

two

41.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A technique that simultaneously detects more than one DNA marker in a single analysis is called _____.

a)

amino acids

b)

chromosome

c)

multiplexing

d)

sequencing

42.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The building blocks of proteins are known as _____.

a)

amino acids

b)

chromosome

c)

multiplexing

d)

sequencing

43.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The specific pairing of base A with T and base C with G in double stranded DNA is known as _____.

a)

amino acids

b)

complementary base pairing

c)

buccal cells

d)

sequencing

44.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A procedure used to determine the order of the base pairs that constitute DNA is called _____.

a)

amino acids

b)

complementary base pairing

c)

buccal cells

d)

sequencing

45.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: Cells from the inner cheek lining are called _____.

a)

epithelial cells

b)

complementary base pairing

c)

buccal cells

d)

sequencing

46.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A threadlike structure in the cell nucleus, along which the genes are located is known as a(n) _____.

a)

epithelial cells

b)

amino acid

c)

buccal cells

d)

chromosome

47.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The outer layer of skin cells are known as _____.

a)

epithelial cells

b)

amino acid

c)

buccal cells

d)

chromosome

48.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: An unstained object adjacent to an area on which biological material has been deposited is known as a(n) _____.

a)

primer

b)

substrate control

c)

amelogenin gene

d)

Y-STR

49.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The synthesis of new DNA from existing DNA is called _____.

a)

electrophoresis

b)

substrate control

c)

amelogenin gene

d)

replication

50.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: Short tandem repeats located on the human Y chromosome known as _____.

a)

short tandem repeats (STRs)

b)

Y-STRs

c)

amelogenin gene

d)

restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

51.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A genetic locus useful for determining gender is a gene known as _____.

a)

short tandem repeats (STRs)

b)

Y-STRs

c)

amelogenin gene

d)

restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

52.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The process of joining two complementary strands of DNA to form a double-stranded molecule is called _____.

a)

replication

b)

primer

c)

human genome

d)

hybridization

53.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: Different fragment lengths of base pairs that result from cutting a DNA molecule with restriction enzymes are known as _____.

a)

Y-STRs

b)

restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

c)

human genome

d)

short tandem repeats (STRs)

54.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A technique for separating molecules through their migration on a support medium while under the influence of electrical potential is called _____.

a)

electrophoresis

b)

hybridization

c)

replication

d)

substrate control

55.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A region of DNA molecule that contains short segments of three to seven repeating base pairs is known as a(n) _____.

a)

short tandem repeats (STRs)

b)

hybridization

c)

restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

d)

Y-STRs

56.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: A short strand of DNA used to target a region of DNA for replication by PCR is called a(n) _____.

a)

amelogenin gene

b)

human genome

c)

primer

d)

Y-STRs

57.

Match the definition with its vocabulary word: The order of bases on all 23 pairs of human chromosomes is called the _____.

a)

amelogenin gene

b)

human genome

c)

primer

d)

Y-STRs

58.

Give the complimentary base pair of the following nucleotide sequence:

A-A-A-G-C-C-C-T-T-A

4 lines
59.

Give the complimentary base pair of the following nucleotide sequence:

G-A-T-G-C-U-C-U-T-A

4 lines
60.

Give the complimentary base pair of the following nucleotide sequence:

G-A-G-G-C-A-C-T-T-T

4 lines