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Genetics Final Exam Review

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
2.

STRUCTURE: One difference between RNA and DNA is -

a)

RNA has thymine where DNA has ademine

b)

DNA is single stranded where RNA is double stranded

c)

DNA is made in the nucleus where RNA is made in the ribosomes

d)

RNA is single stranded where DNA is double stranded

3.

STRUCTURE: What Nitrogenous Base does RNA contain that DNA does not?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Love

4.

STRUCTURE: In the DNA double helix, the bases (AtoT and CtoG) are held together by:

a)

polar bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

5.

TRANSLATION:

This is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

a ribosome

6.

HISTORY: Discovered Bacterial Transformation

a)

Fredrick Griffeth

b)

Erwin Chargaff

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Martha Chase

7.

HISTORY: Performed an experiment with Bacteriophage viruses that proved DNA was the genetic material

a)

Maurice Wilkens and Rosalind Franklin

b)

James Watson and Francis Crick

c)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

d)

Peanut butter and Jelly

8.
Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
a)
addition of poly-A tail
b)
addition of 5' cap
c)
removal of introns
d)
removal of exons
9.
The synthesis of a new strand of DNA ...
a)
starts at an operator sequence.
b)
involves DNA ligase.
c)
is always in fragments.
d)
occurs from the 5' end to the 3' end.
10.
A codon is to mRNA as an anti-codon is to ...
a)
DNA
b)
an amino acid
c)
rRNA
d)
tRNA
11.

What is added to the 3' end of an mRNA transcript?

a)

a modified guanine nucleotide

b)

a series of adenine nucleotides

c)

intron

d)

exon

12.

A single gene has 3 or more alternative forms. These are called

a)

heterozygotes

b)

multiple alleles

c)

epistatic

d)

polygenic

13.

Law of independent assortment states:

a)

the two alleles for each trait separate during meiosis

b)

the two alleles for each trait separate during mitosis

c)

a random distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

d)

a ordered distribution of alleles occur during gamete formation

14.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
15.

A cell has a diploid number of 12. How many chromosomes in a gamete

a)

24

b)

12

c)

6

d)

varies

16.

what is the order of the cell cycle

a)

G1, S, G2, interphase, M phase, cytokinesis, mitosis

b)

G1, G2, S, mitosis, cytokinesis

c)

G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis

d)

S, G1, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis

17.
Linked genes tend to be inherited together, like freckles and red hair, because they - - - 
a)
compliment each other well
b)
are on chromosomes close together
c)
are on the same chromosome 
d)
tend to be adaptations best suited for the environments of the organism
18.
The reason some linked genes may get separated during gamete formation is - - - 
a)
genes aren't on the same chromosome
b)
genes don't compliment each other well
c)
a crossing over event shuffles the genes
d)
an environmental impact forces the genes to shuffle
19.
The Wolffian duct develops into the ______ system.
a)
male
b)
female
20.
The SRY gene codes primarily for...
a)
female traits
b)
male traits
c)
autosomal traits in both sexes
d)
sex linked traits in both sexes
21.

What occurs when a single gene affects more than one trait?

a)

codominant

b)

pleiotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

22.

What occurs when one gene masks the effects another gene?

a)

codominant

b)

pleiotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

23.
Testing the amniotic fluid for birth defects.
a)
Chorionic Villi Sampling 
b)
Ultrasound
c)
Amniocentesis
d)
Embryo Test
24.
Which is not a hallmark of Cancer?
a)
Resisting cell death
b)
Inducing angiogenesis
c)
Inhibiting growth promoters
d)
Enabling immortality
25.
The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is 
a)
to produce growth signals
b)
to code for proteins that inhibit, or slow, cell division
c)
to cause the cell to move faster through the cell cycle
d)
to attack cancer cells in the body
26.

Oncogenes

a)

are mutated forms of tumor suppressor genes

b)

are mutated forms of genes that code for proteins that normally assist in apoptosis

c)

are mutated genes the inhibit the cell cycle

d)

are mutated genes that code for proteins which activate cell division too often or at the improper time

27.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
28.

In the Sanger sequencing method, what causes the termination of each chain of DNA?

a)

The incorporation of a deoxynucleotide

b)

When the DNA polymerase encounters a stop codon

c)

The incorporation of a dideoxynucleotide

d)

Denaturation of the double strand

29.

A student researcher overexpresses an exogenous protein in cell culture and wants to determine if that protein, is in fact, overexpressed. What technique would best demonstrate that this protein is expressed in these cells?

a)

Northern blot

b)

Southern blot

c)

Western blot

d)

Eastern blot

30.
What does "pluripotent" mean?
a)
able to divide and make all different types of cells
b)
not able to divide
c)
can only divide and make one cell type 
d)
if it divides, it will make a cancerous tumor
31.

CRISPR can edit DNA. What organisms naturally has CRISPR?

a)

Viruses

b)

Humans

c)

Plants

d)

Bacteria

32.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a type of ________ system found in bacteria.

a)

digestive

b)

endocrine

c)

circulatory

d)

immune

33.

The recognition sites for restriction enzymes are :

a)

a).Tautomer

b)

b). Pallindrome

c)

c).Metamere

d)

d).Acronym

34.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
35.

These chemical tags inactivate or silence a gene.

a)

acetyl groups

b)

methyl groups

c)

histones

d)

genes

36.

1. What does acetyl do for gene expression

a)

constricts the nucleosome and allows for the gene to be read

b)

constricts the nucleosome and inhibits the gene to be read

c)

opens the nucleosome and inhibits the gene to be read

d)

opens the nucleosome and allows the gene to be read

37.

MicroRNAs have the power to

a)

bind to mRNA and stop translation.

b)

bind to mRNA and degrade it.

c)

silence a gene from being expressed.

d)

stop the protein from being created.

38.

Transcriptionally active chromatin is called

a)

Euchromatin

b)

Heterochromatin

c)

Chromatonema

39.

Xist is

a)

a protein

b)

a protein coding gene

c)

functional RNA

d)

none of the above

40.

The role Xist playes in X inactivation is to

a)

inactivate the X chromosome

b)

activate the X chromosome

41.

All of the following are uses of RNAi except

a)

sequence specific gene silencing

b)

used to research the function of genes

c)

therapeutic approach for diseases like paralysis and nerve diseases

d)

therapeutic approach to treat undesirable activity of a gene

42.

Chromosomal disorder where a male has an extra X chromosome(3.2.2)

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Turners

c)

Jacobs

d)

Klinefelter's

43.

(a)   is when a dominant allele is not completely expressed hence a third phenotype is expressed when an organism is heterozygous.

44.
A mutation leading to an early 'stop' codon is a ...
a)
frameshift mutation
b)
silent mutation
c)
missense mutation
d)
nonsense mutation
45.

HISTORY: Discovered that A and T bond together and C and G bond together...

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Fredrick Griffeth

d)

Erwin Chargaff

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