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Honors Biology Midterm Review

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A possible explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
2.

What is an observation?

a)

A scientific statement based on ideas

b)

Using your senses to notice what is going on around you

c)

To be unaware of your surroundings

d)

The question that you want an answer to.

3.
This variable in an experiment is the one being changed by the scientist. 
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
data
d)
control group
4.
Dependent variable means
a)
the scientist controls what to test
b)
educated guess
c)
ask a question
d)
what is being measured
5.
If you increase the amount of spinach you eat, then you will increase the iron in your blood. 
What's the dependent variable?
a)
increase the amount of iron in your blood
b)
spinach you eat
6.
Will a construction paper air plane fly faster than an airplane made from notebook paper? Choose the best hypothesis.
a)
If I make a paper airplane from notebook paper, then it will fly faster than construction paper.
b)
Yes.
c)
No.
d)
I think the construction paper air plane will fly faster.
7.
If I listen to Mr. Castro's instructions, then I will have less accidents in the lab. What is the independent variable?
a)
Yes
b)
Maybe
c)
Listening or not listening to instructions
d)
Likelihood of having an accident in lab 
8.
Which of the following would be considered quantitative data?
a)
Color
b)
Smell
c)
6.84 cm
d)
texture
9.
What is the part of the experiment that is left alone or “natural", and is used to compare back to?
a)
Independent Variable
b)
Dependent Variable
c)
Control Group
d)
Experimental Group 
10.

Suppose your friends went to the beach at noon on a warm day. They saw some black and white birds. As you are talking to you friend you think "This happen during summertime". Is this an observation or an inference?

a)

observation

b)

inference

11.
One water molecule attracts other water molecules because:
a)
It is polar 
b)
It is neutral 
c)
It has no charges
d)
It is only positively charged
12.
Poly means
a)
ONE
b)
TWO 
c)
THREE
d)
MANY
13.
MONO means:
a)
ONE 
b)
TWO
c)
THREE
d)
MANY
14.
Which of these is the smallest
a)
Atom
b)
Molecule
c)
Monomer
d)
Polymer
15.
Carbohydrates are used in living systems for:
a)
Quick energy
b)
Longterm energy storage
c)
Information 
d)
Hair, skin and nails
16.
Lipids serve this purpose:
a)
Quick energy
b)
Longterm energy storage
c)
Passing information from generation to generation
d)
Enzymes
17.
An Ion is:
a)
An atom that has gained or lost an electron
b)
An atom that has lost neutrons and therefore is somewhat radioactive
c)
A special protein that speeds up chemical reactions in living cells
d)
A chemical combination of atoms that has different chemical properties than its component atoms
18.
Carbon can bond with how many other atoms?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
19.
Another name for simple sugars
a)
monosaccharide
b)
polysaccharide
20.
A protein is a made up of many
a)
Amino Acids
b)
Glucose
c)
Fatty Acid Chains
d)
Nucleotides
21.
Enzymes are:
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Proteins
22.
These molecules speed up chemical reactions like the digestion of foods.
a)
Hormones
b)
Waxes
c)
Enzymes
d)
Carbs
23.
the starting materials in a chemical reaction
a)
Products
b)
Reactants
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
24.
a substance that is formed as the result of a chemical reaction
a)
Product 
b)
Reactant
c)
Starters
d)
Enders
25.
bond in which one or more electrons from one atom are removed and attached to another atom, resulting in positive and negative ions which attract each other
a)
Covalent Bond
b)
Ionic Bond
c)
Reaction Bond
d)
Null Bond
26.
a chemical reaction that releases energy by light or heat
a)
Endothermic Reaction
b)
Exothermic Reaction
c)
Diffusion
d)
Fission
27.
a process or reaction in which the system absorbs energy from its surroundings; usually, but not always, in the form of heat
a)
Endothermic Reaction
b)
Exothermic Reaction
c)
Diffusion
d)
Fission
28.

Why do elements bond?

a)

To be friends

b)

To create a new element

c)

To become stable

d)

To get bigger

29.

Which of the following describes covalent bonds?

a)

Bonds form because of opposite charges

b)

electrons are shared to fill outer electron shells

c)

Electrons are transferred between atoms

d)

Covalent bonds are magical

30.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
31.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
32.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
33.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
34.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
35.
Why does water move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water is pushed by solutes
b)
Capillary action pulls the water molecules like a chain
c)
Water is pulled by gravity
d)
Water’s cohesion causes it to “pull” towards the leaves
36.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
37.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
38.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
39.
This is the cell's "control center."
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cell Wall
40.
This structure is a storage area for the cell.
a)
Lysosome
b)
Vacuole
c)
Ribosome
d)
Golgi Body
41.
Plant and animal cells both have vacuoles?
a)
True
b)
False
42.
I am located in the nucleus – I’m the genetic material of a cell
a)
cytoplasm
b)
membrane
c)
chromosomes/DNA
d)
vacuole
43.
I am found in plant cells. I am rigid, strong & stiff. I give support to the plant cell.  I give the cell it's box shape
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
chlorophyll
d)
mitochondria
44.

Bacteria cell, more “simple” and smaller than other cells,

with no nucleus and no membrane-bound organelles, but still containing DNA.

a)

Eukaryotic Cell

b)

Prokaryotic Cell

c)

Virus

d)

Plant Cell

45.

Animal, Plant, Fungi, or Protista cell,

with a definite nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.

a)

Eukaryotic Cell

b)

Prokaryotic Cell

c)

Virus

d)

Spirochete

46.

A green organelle found in autotrophs (mostly plants and algae) that converts light energy into chemical energy (photosynthesis).

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Vacucole

47.

An organelle containing enzymes that “digest” macromolecules.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Vacuole

48.

An organelle that is the site of cellular respiration.

The powerhouse of the cell:

most cellular energy (ATP) is produced here. Found in the cells of

autotrophs and heterotrophs.

a)

Lysosome

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

49.
___________ form the two layers of the cell membrane. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
50.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
51.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
52.
Most of the cell membrane is made of...
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
53.
What do the brown structures represent?
a)
Phospholipids
b)
Glycoproteins
c)
Channel Proteins 
d)
Cyctoskeleton Filaments
54.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
55.

What is the definition of OSMOSIS?

a)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

b)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

c)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

56.

What is the definition of ACTIVE TRANSPORT?

a)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

b)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

c)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

57.

Why would the cell need energy to move molecules across the membrane?

a)

the molecule is going against the concentration gradient

b)

the molecule is to large to pass through the membrane

c)

the lipid membrane requires energy anytime something is moving across the membrane

58.

In passive diffusion, substances always move...

a)

from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

b)

from an area with more of the molecules to an area with fewer of the molecules

c)

from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration

d)

from an area with fewer of the molecules to an area with more of the molecules

59.

What is the definition of FACILITATED DIFFUSION?

a)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

b)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

c)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

d)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

60.
Compare the concentrations of the sugar in the cell and the solution.  Which is HYPOTONIC?
a)
Cell
b)
Solution
61.
Which form of transport is being shown in the diagram.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
62.

Which CELL contains MORE particles than are found in the surrounding solution?

a)

Left

b)

Center

c)

Right

63.

What are the reactants in Photosynthesis?

a)

Sun, CO2, glucose

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

sun, carbon dioxide, water

d)

water, glucose

64.

What is a product of photosynthesis AND a reactant for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

Doctor Pepper

65.

What process describes how plants use air, water, and energy from the Sun to make their own food?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

photosynthesis

d)

weathering

66.

Photosynthesis is used to produce food for plants in the form of glucose. In the process, oxygen is released. As shown in the diagram, plants require water and carbon dioxide (from the air). What else is required for photosynthesis and what role does it play?

a)

Light is required to provide energy for photosynthesis.

b)

ATP is required as an energy source for photosynthesis.

c)

Glucose is required as an energy source for photosynthesis

d)

Oxygen is required to split water molecules in photosynthesis.

67.
What part of the leaf allows Carbon dioxide in and oxygen out of the leaf?
a)
xylem
b)
phloem
c)
cuticle
d)
stomata
68.
Which of the following is like a "fully charged battery" of energy?
a)
ATP
b)
ADP
c)
AMP 
d)
NADP+
69.
According to this absorption spectrum, what color is not used by the chlorophyll pigments?
a)
green
b)
blue
c)
yellow
d)
red
70.
Where do the light reactions happen?
a)
mitochondria membrane
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
stroma
d)
central vacuole
71.
What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?
a)
To provide the energy for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
72.

The Calvin Cycle occurs in the

a)

Thylakoid

b)

Grana

c)

Inner membrane of chloroplast

d)

Stroma

73.
The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cycle starts and ends with, is called _____________.
a)
PGA
b)
G3P
c)
RuBP
d)
RuDp
74.
The enzyme responsible for Carbon Fixation in C3 Photosynthesis is
a)
RuBisCo
b)
PEP Carboxylase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
Pyruvate DeHydrogenase
75.
The molecule that comes out of the Calvin Cycle to produce glucose, and polymers like cellulose is:
a)
RuBP
b)
GP3
c)
3-PG
d)
G3P
76.

The term aerobic means

a)

wine-making

b)

with carbon dioxide

c)

without carbon dioxide

d)

with oxygen

e)

without oxygen

77.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ?
a)
energy
b)
oxygen
c)
sugar
d)
protein
78.
What main food group do we get most of our energy from?
a)
proteins
b)
carbs
c)
meats
d)
nucleic acids
79.
The splitting of the glucose molecule is called?
a)
synthesis
b)
denaturalization
c)
glycolysis
d)
dissolving
80.
To get the most ATP molecules for energy in cellular respiration, you have to have lots of ?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
81.
The waste gas given off by cellular respiration is?
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen
d)
methane
82.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
83.

ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by

a)

H+ movement

b)

electron movement

c)

NADH movement

d)

FADH2 movement

84.
What cells in the body may undergo lactic acid fermentation during exercise? 
a)
Muscle cells
b)
Fat cells
c)
Liver cells
d)
Skin cells
85.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
86.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
87.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
88.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
89.

What are the "X" shaped things in the drawing.

a)

PMATs

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Telophase

90.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

91.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
92.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
93.
A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber by the
a)
nucleolus
b)
deep furrow
c)
centromere
d)
centriole
94.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
95.
the two halves of the doubled chromosome structure 
a)
centromeres
b)
sister chromatids
c)
spindle
d)
tissues
96.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
97.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
98.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
99.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
100.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
101.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
102.

A 2n cell of a bat has 44 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will you find in one of his gametes

a)

23

b)

22

c)

44

d)

88

103.
What phase is  shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
104.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
105.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
106.

Contains GENETIC MATERIAL- DNA/RNA

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Both bacteria & virus

d)

Neither bacteria nor virus

107.

Made of a prokaryotic cell

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

108.

Needs a HOST to reproduce and spread in

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

109.

Which IS a LIVING organism?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

110.

Primary functions of DNA are (mark all that apply)

a)

Transmit information on heredity from one generation to the next

b)

Control cellular respiration

c)

Regulate homeostasis

d)

Provide a blueprint for making proteins

111.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, protein and Guanine

c)

A phosphate, Adenine, and nitrogenous base

d)

A protein, Adenine and nitrogenous base

112.

Which of the following is a base pair?

a)

Adenine - Cytosine

b)

Cytosine - Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose - Cytosine

d)

Cytosine - Guanine

113.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
114.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) 
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
115.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
116.
Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
117.
If a strand reads:
3' A A A T T T C 5'
The matching strand would read...
a)
5' T T T A A A G 3'
b)
3' T T T A A A G 5'
c)
5' A A A T T T C 3'
d)
3' U U U A A A G 5'
118.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
119.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
120.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion

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