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Worksheets

AACI Review 2021

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Kehr's sign?

a)

referred pain from the liver

b)

referred pain from the stomach

c)

referred pain from the lungs

d)

referred pain from the spleen

2.

How many chambers does the heart have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

3.

Unoxygenated blood enters the heart on the right side from the superior and inferior vena cava

a)

true

b)

false

4.

What blood vessel sends blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

a)

aorta

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

right pulmonary artery

d)

carotid artery

5.

Treatment for heatstroke consists of all of the following actions

a)

stop activity

b)

loosen clothing

c)

move to a cooler location

d)

activate ems

e)

all of the above

6.

When is heatstroke most likely to occur?

a)

cool day

b)

overcast day

c)

elevated temp and humidity

d)

cool temp and elevated humidity

7.

Treatment of anaphylactic shock consists of all of the following actions except

a)

open airway

b)

apply constricting band above site

c)

help in administering medication

d)

give sips of water

8.

How does the BP in an athlete with a spleen injury differ from that of an athlete in shock?

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

same

d)

BP will not change for an athlete in shock

9.

What is the first symptom of internal hemorrhage?

a)

swelling

b)

pain

c)

discoloration

d)

epistaxis

10.

What is the most important thing to do to avoid injury to the bladder?

a)

empty the bladder

b)

wear protective pads

c)

have them drink water

d)

none of the above

11.

What is hematuria?

a)

blood in the stomach

b)

blood in the urine

c)

blood in the lungs

d)

blood in the liver

12.

What is the main reason for disallowing an athlete with mono from playing contact sports?

a)

danger of rupturing the heart

b)

danger of rupturing the liver

c)

danger of rupturing the spleen

d)

danger of rupturing the intestines

13.

Which of the following is a major symptom of traumatic shock?

a)

pale skin

b)

obvious bleeding

c)

weak pulse

d)

restlessness

14.

What type of shock is also called blood poisoning

a)

neurogenic

b)

psychogenic

c)

anaphylactic

d)

septic

15.

The abdominal cavity consists of which of the following organs

a)

stomach

b)

gall bladder

c)

liver

d)

intestines

e)

all of the above

16.

The thoracic cavity consists of all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

heart

b)

lungs

c)

bladder

d)

diaphragm

17.

Collection of air in the pleural space is called:

a)

appendicitis

b)

hemothorax

c)

diverticulitis

d)

pneumothorax

18.

Coughing up blood is an indication of an injury and internal bleeding to which area?

a)

chest injury

b)

cranial injury

c)

kidney

d)

spleen

19.

Signs and symptoms of bulima include all of the following except:

a)

social isolation

b)

overestimation of body size

c)

self-induced starvation

d)

eating large amounts of food, then purging

20.

Which lipoprotein transports free cholesterol from the membranes to the liver for catabolism?

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

HDL

d)

VHDL

21.

What factors contribute to secondary ammenorhea?

a)

low % body fat

b)

stress

c)

intensive workouts

d)

all of the above are factors

22.

Tinnutus means:

a)

ringing in the ears

b)

dizziness

c)

mental confusion

d)

shortness of breath

23.

A common mechanism for anterior glenohumeral dislocation is:

a)

a posterior blow to the arm that is abducted to 90 and externally rotated

b)

a lateral blow to an arm that is abducted to 90 and internally rotated

c)

an anterior blow to an arm that is abducted to 90 and externally rotated

d)

an anterior blow to an arm that is abducted to 90 and internally rotated

e)

any blow to the arm

24.

The most common mechanism of injury for an acromioclavicular injury is:

a)

FOOSH

b)

a direct hit to the AC

c)

a clip

d)

being tackled illegally

e)

any blow to the arm

25.

What seal must be present on all football helmets?

a)

NATA

b)

NOCSAE

c)

ACSM

d)

HARP

e)

UIL

26.

What year was NATA founded?

a)

1940

b)

1950

c)

1960

d)

1970

27.

Where is the current headquarters of the NATA?

a)

Kansas City, MO

b)

San Diego, CA

c)

Dallas, TX

d)

Atlanta, GA

28.

Mouthgaurds protect:

a)

teeth

b)

gums

c)

tongue

d)

A & B only

e)

all of the above

29.

A properly fitted ear guard can prevent:

a)

tinnutus

b)

vertigo

c)

deafness

d)

ruptured ear drum

e)

auricular hematoma

30.

The chin strap of a football helmet:

a)

facilitates dental occlusion

b)

helps keep the helmet in proper position during contact

c)

keeps the athlete quiet

d)

A & B only

e)

all of the above

31.

The neoprene sleeve:

a)

compresses soft tissue

b)

gives mild support to all tissues

c)

can act as a functional brace

d)

A & B only

e)

All of the above

32.

The lace-up ankle brace functions mainly as:

a)

preventative brace

b)

functional brace

c)

rehabilitative brace

d)

protective brace

e)

it is not considered a brace

33.

What ions retains water in the body?

a)

potassium

b)

sodium

c)

calcium

d)

magnesium

34.

Painful menstruation, which may be caused by hormonal imbalances or ischemia of the pelvic organs is called:

a)

ammenorrhea

b)

olgiomennorrhea

c)

menorrhagia

d)

dysmenorhea

35.

Absence of the menstrual period is called

a)

polymenorrhea

b)

amenorrhea

c)

dysmenorrhea

d)

none of the above

36.

Reye's syndrome is associated with children and teenagers who appear to be recovering from the chicken pox or influenza and are given ____________ to help decrease their pain and fever

a)

acetaminophen

b)

ibuprofen

c)

Motrin

d)

salicylates

37.

This injury is also known as a pump bump and is caused from constant pressure and rubbing from the heel of a shoe

a)

achilles tendinitis

b)

retrocalcaneal bursitis

c)

high ankle sprain

d)

plantar fasciitis

38.

This injury often occurs due to stepping in a hole or twisting the foot. A pop is felt, along with a sharp pain on the lateral aspect of the foot and typically an inability to bear weight. Treatment includes casting for 6-8 weeks or placing a screw

a)

Jones fx

b)

March fx

c)

Bennett's fx

d)

Colles fx

39.

Which of the following muscles is located in the anterior compartment of the lower leg?

a)

Anterior tibialis

b)

Peroneus (Fibularis) longus

c)

Posterior Tibialis

d)

Extensor digitorum

e)

A & D

40.

What is the correct number of bones in each region of the foot?

a)

7 tarsal, 12 metatarsal, 5 phalange

b)

5 tarsal, 7 metatarsal, 14 phalange

c)

7 tarsal, 5 metatarsal, 10 phalange

d)

7 tarsal, 5 metatarsal, 14 phalange

41.

An athlete with Pes Cavus has a flat arch

a)

true

b)

false

42.

The single most common injury in athletics is?

a)

inversion ankle sprain

b)

eversion ankle sprain

c)

contusion

d)

myositis ossificans

43.

The ankle joint is known as:

a)

subtalar jt

b)

patellofemoral jt

c)

tibiofibular jt

d)

talocrural jt

44.

What is the EAP?

a)

Emergency Action Procedures

b)

Emergency Assist Plan

c)

Emergency Action Plan

d)

Employee Assistance Program

45.

The process of looking for life-threatening injuries is known as what?

a)

primary survey

b)

secondary survey

c)

tertiary survey

d)

none of the above

46.

When you come on the scene of an accident or injury, what is the first thing that should be established?

a)

You have gloves on

b)

the scene is safe

c)

ABC's

d)

secondary survey

47.

The AVPU scale is used to determine a victim's level of consciousness. Which of the following is not a true part of AVPU

a)

Alert and aware

b)

Responsive to visual stimuli

c)

Responsive to painful stimuli

d)

Unresponsive

48.

You find an athlete facedown, and unresponsive. They are not breathing. Due to the position found, you believe they could have a head or neck injury. The appropriate way to open their airway here is the head tilt, chin lift method.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the appropriate CPR ratio for an adult who is unresponsive?

a)

30:2

b)

20:1

c)

15:2

d)

10:5

50.

The newest BLS standards state that the appropriate depth for chest compressions is:

a)

1"

b)

1.5"

c)

2"

d)

2.5"

51.

What is the appropriate rate of compressions for CPR?

a)

50/min

b)

75/min

c)

100/min

d)

120/min

52.

The CPR ratio is the same for babies, children, and adults

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Extensive internal or external bleeding is known as:

a)

hematoma

b)

hemorrhage

c)

bleeding

d)

contusion

54.

Which of the following would be the FIRST thing you do for a victim who is bleeding externally?

a)

direct pressure

b)

elevation

c)

pressure points

d)

tourniquet

55.

If I go to palpate an athlete's injury, what am I doing?

a)

feeling for swelling

b)

feeling for deformity

c)

feeling for areas that might be different

d)

all of the above

56.

Which of the following illnesses is not one of the 3 most significant bloodborne pathogens?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

HIV

57.

Which major organ is infected in Hepatitis infections

a)

lungs

b)

liver

c)

stomach

d)

heart

58.

Which of the following BBP infections is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the US AND is the leading cause of liver transplants?

a)

Hepatitis A

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Hepatitis C

d)

HIV

59.

HIV is considered to be a worldwide pandemic with over 36 million people infected worldwide. What region of the world is most heavily afflicted?

a)

India

b)

South America

c)

Southeast Asia

d)

Sub-Saharan Africa

60.

A person with HIV that goes untreated can eventually develop Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome- AIDS, which can kill you within 2 years after symptoms develop. HIV destroys which system in the body.

a)

immune system

b)

cardiovascular system

c)

nervous system

d)

gastrointestinal system

61.

This is an incomplete fracture that occurs in the soft, growing bones of adolescents

a)

avulsion fx

b)

stress fx

c)

salter-harris fx

d)

greenstick fx

62.

This specific fracture type affects the growth plates of long bones and occurs only in adolescents

a)

Salter-Harris fx

b)

Avulsion fx

c)

Transverse fx

d)

Oblique fx

63.

This fracture type occurs at a 90 degree angle to the long axis of the bone and usually results from a direct blow to the bone

a)

Oblique fx

b)

Spiral fx

c)

Transverse fx

d)

Avulsion fx

64.

Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by the bite of which type of insect?

a)

spider

b)

deer tick

c)

mosquito

d)

ant

65.

One of the early signs of a Lyme disease infection is a "bullseye" rash

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Upper respiratory infections involve all of the following structures except:

a)

ears

b)

sinuses

c)

throat

d)

lungs

67.

Infectious mononucleosis is caused by which virus?

a)

Epstein-barr

b)

rotovirus

c)

cytomegaly virus

d)

norovirus

68.

Which internal organ is typically enlarged with a case of mononucleosis?

a)

Liver

b)

Stomach

c)

Kidneys

d)

Spleen

69.

The most common form of seizures seen in athletes is:

a)

Absence seizures

b)

Tonic-Clonic seizures

c)

Complex partial seizures

d)

Myoclonic seizures

70.

What internal organ is diseased if the athlete presents with jaundice?

a)

Spleen

b)

Lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver

71.

An excessively high level of blood sugar

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Hypothermia

72.

Discomfort and uneasiness caused by illness:

a)

mononucleosis

b)

hypotension

c)

hyposglycemia

d)

malaise

73.

Which term is best defined by the following: a loss of balance in an individual that may be associated with dizziness.

a)

Vertigo

b)

Malaise

c)

Endurance

d)

Tinnutus

74.

Failure to act like a normal person would in your circumstance, failure to provide reasonable care

a)

negligence

b)

standard of reasonable care breach

c)

malpractice

d)

Good Samaritan violation

75.

This standard states that you will use common sense in any situation

a)

Standard of reasonable care

b)

Negligence

c)

Assumption of risk

d)

none of the above

76.

This type of muscle soreness is most severe 24-48 hours after the workout

a)

Acute Onset Muscle Soreness

b)

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness

77.

Which one of these is NOT a sign or symptom of inflammation?

a)

redness

b)

warmth

c)

tingling

d)

pain

78.

Which of the 3 phases of the Healing process comes first?

a)

Inflammatory Response Phase

b)

Fibroblastic Repair Phase

c)

Maturation-Remodeling Phase

d)

none of the above

79.

The maturation-remodeling phase can take up to how long to complete?

a)

3 weeks

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

several years

80.

This mechanical force of injury involves two tissues being crushed together

a)

Compression

b)

Torsion

c)

Shearing

d)

Force

81.

Which acronym is correct regarding the signs and symptoms of a stroke?

a)

QUICK

b)

HALT

c)

FAST

d)

FACE

82.

This class of medications reduces the amount of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. Maalox and Tums are two common examples

a)

anticholinergics

b)

antihistamines

c)

antidepressants

d)

antacids

83.

Rubor, Tumor, Dolor, Calor and Laeso Functio are the Latin terms for the 5 signs of inflammation

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The shoulder is which type of joint?

a)

Hinge

b)

Pivot

c)

Ball-and-socket

d)

none of these

85.

The scapulothoracic joint is the shoulder's only point of attachment to the axial skeleton

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Normal shoulder flexion is how many degrees?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

150

d)

180

87.

With shoulder injuries, the painful arc is what?

a)

50-90 degrees

b)

70-120 degrees

c)

100-150 degree

d)

120-180 degrees

88.

Which group of muscles originate on the axial skeleton and attach to the humerus?

a)

Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major

b)

Deltoid, teres major, corocobrachialis, rotator cuff

c)

Levator scapulae, trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior, serratus posterior

d)

none of the above

89.

Which of the muscles originating on the axial skeleton produces shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Coracobrachialis

d)

Latissimus dorsi

90.

Which of the following major muscles that moves the shoulder has 3 parts, and produces flexion, abduction and extension

a)

Rotator Cuff

b)

Deltoid

c)

Serratus Anterior

d)

Rhomboids

91.

Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the rotator cuff

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Teres major

d)

Subscapularis

92.

Which muscle of the rotator cuff produces internal rotation

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Teres Minor

d)

Subscapularis

93.

Which of the following muscles is responsible for scapular retraction?

a)

trapezius

b)

levator scapulae

c)

latissumus dorsi

d)

rhomboids

94.

What does the Apprehension test look for?

a)

Glenohumeral instability

b)

AC Sprain

c)

Rotator Cuff tear

d)

Subacromial impingement

95.

The Neer test looks for which shoulder pathology?

a)

Rotator Cuff tear

b)

Subacromial impingement

c)

Labral tear

d)

AC joint sprain

96.

Which muscle of the rotator cuff is most commonly strained?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Teres Minor

d)

Subscapularis

97.

Shoulder separation; involves the acromioclavicualr and coracoclavicular ligaments

a)

Acromioclavicular sprain

b)

Clavicular fracture

c)

Anterior shoulder dislocation

d)

Impingement syndrome

98.

The most frequently broken bone in children; usually the result from a fall on the lateral aspect of the shoulder or FOOSH

a)

Acromioclavicular sprain

b)

Clavicular fracture

c)

Anterior shoulder dislocation

d)

Impingement syndrome

99.

More common in the elderly; caused by FOOSH

a)

Acromioclavicular sprain

b)

Clavicular fracture

c)

Humeral fracture

d)

Impingement syndrome

100.

When the head of humerus moves anteriorly out of the joint socket; caused by a forced abduction and external rotation

a)

Shoulder subluxation

b)

Shoulder impingement

c)

Humeral fracture

d)

Shoulder dislocation

101.

Wear and tear of the rotator cuff (RTC) tendons and inflammation of the subacromial bursa.

a)

Shoulder subluxation

b)

Shoulder impingement

c)

Frozen shoulder

d)

Shoulder dislocation

102.

Inflammation of the shoulder joint capsule which leads to loss of shoulder range of motion.

a)

Shoulder subluxation

b)

Shoulder impingement

c)

Frozen shoulder

d)

Shoulder dislocation

103.

nerve that runs along "thumb side"

(a)  

104.

Empty can test is for evaluation of

a)

bicep

b)

acromion process

c)

supraspinatus muscle

d)

brachioradialis

105.

artery that goes under clavicle

a)

subclavicular

b)

hypoclavicular

c)

axillary

d)

brachial

106.

This movement is

a)

flexion

b)

extension

c)

lateral

d)

adduction

107.

Artery used for blood pressure

a)

brachial

b)

radial

c)

ulna

d)

none of these

108.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of a clavicle fracture?

a)

Athlete supporting the arm with head tilted to injured side

b)

Deformity

c)

Swelling

d)

Numbness of the arm

109.

Which of the following muscles do “ceiling punches?”

a)

Serratus anterior

b)

Coracobrachialis

c)

Levator scapulae

d)

Latissimus dorsi

110.

The humerus articulates with the

a)

Coracoid process

b)

Greater tubercle

c)

Glenoid fossa

d)

Bicipital groove

111.

Thoracic outlet syndrome is caused by compression of

a)

The subdeltoid bursa

b)

The brachial plexus, subclavian artery and vein

c)

The supraspinatus tendon

d)

The biceps tendon

112.

What does the suffix 'ology' mean?

a)

The study of

b)

A specialist doctor

c)

A disease

d)

Inflammation

113.

Which prefix means 'fast'?

a)

Hyper

b)

Hypo

c)

Tachy

d)

Brady

114.

Which word means 'too slow heart'?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Arthritis

115.

What does the root word OSTEO mean?

a)

Brain

b)

Bones

c)

Muscles

d)

Joints