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POTU - S1 Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 4hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do waves carry and transfer?

a)

Nothing

b)

Only Sound

c)

Only sunlight

d)

Energy

2.

The highest part of the wave is called the _______________.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Trough

d)

Crest

3.

_________________________ is the distance between a point on one wave and the identical point of the next wave.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Crest

d)

Wavelength

4.

Which wave has the greatest wavelength?

a)

Red Wave

b)

Orange Wave

c)

Green Wave

d)

Purple Wave

5.

The bottom of a wave is

a)

trough

b)

crest

c)

wavelength

d)

crust

6.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

UV rays

c)

Infrared

d)

the color blue

7.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Violet

8.

Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a)

Infrared

b)

The color Indigo

c)

gamma rays

d)

TV

9.

Which of the following has the least amount of energy?

a)

UV rays

b)

The color yellow

c)

infrared

d)

Gamma rays

10.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
11.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
12.

Which wave has high enough energy to cause damage to skin and sometimes cancer?

a)

Microwaves

b)

Visible Light

c)

Infrared Rays

d)

Ultraviolet Rays

13.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves is given off as heat and is used in toasters and grills?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Microwaves

c)

Infrared Waves

d)

X-Rays

14.

What type of electromagnetic wave is represented by the illustration?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

X-Rays

c)

Visible Light

d)

Radio Waves

15.

What types of waves are used in communication signals such as cellular phones?

a)

Radio Waves

b)

X-Rays

c)

Microwaves

d)

Visible Light

16.
What is the speed of a 20 Hz with a 4m wavelength?
a)
0.2 m/s
b)
5 m/s
c)
80 m/s
d)
320 m/s
17.
A wave has wavelength of 10 m and a speed of 340 m/s. What is the frequency of the wave?
a)
34 m/s
b)
3400 Hz
c)
3400 m/s
d)
34 Hz
18.
 A wave has frequency of 5 Hz and a speed of 25 m/s. What is the wavelength of the wave?
a)
25 m
b)
125 m
c)
5 m
d)
25 m/s
19.

This device is a

a)

telescope

b)

spectroscope

c)

microscope

d)

prism

20.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

21.

The unknown emissions spectra belongs to the element

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Helium

22.

Which type of spectra produces, or emits, light of specific frequencies and has bright lines on a dark background?

a)

Absorption spectra

b)

Emission spectra

c)

Continuous spectra

23.

Which type of spectra measures the light that a gas absorbs and produces dark lines?

a)

Absorption spectra

b)

Emission spectra

c)

Continuous spectra

24.
What kind of spectrum is this?
a)
absorption spectrum
b)
continuous spectrum
c)
emission spectrum
25.
Which property of a star is the brightness of a star at a standard distance?
a)
Apparent (magnitude) brightness
b)
Absolute (magnitude) brightness
c)
Luminosity
d)
Size of the star
26.
The brightness of a star as seen from Earth is its 
a)
apparent brightness.
b)
absolute brightness.
c)
parallax.
d)
reflective brightness.
27.
A very bright star can seem to be dimmer because it is 
a)
further away
b)
cooler in temperature
c)
very close
d)
batteries are dying
28.
The color of a star depends on its
a)
size
b)
temperature
c)
shape
d)
magnitude
29.

In comparison to other stars in the sky, the Sun appears brighter because it is _____ than other stars.

a)

Bigger

b)

Smaller

c)

Closer

d)

Further

30.

As the _________ of a star increases, luminosity (brightness) increases.

a)

size

b)

distance

c)

age

d)

composition

31.

Which star is the least bright?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

32.

Which star appears the least bright from Earth?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

C

d)

D

33.

The star 'Capella' has an apparent magnitude of 0.08 and an absolute magnitude of -0.48. Is it closer than or further than 32.6 light years away?

a)

closer than

b)

further than

c)

exactly 32.6 light years away

34.

Put the stars in order from COOLEST to HOTTEST.

a)
Blue, White, Yellow, Orange, Red
b)
Red, Orange, Yellow, White, Blue
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Blue, White
d)
Red, Yellow, Orange, White, Blue
35.

Which object (based on apparent magnitude) is the brightest:

a)

Full Moon (-12.6)

b)

Venus (-4.4)

c)

Sirius (-1.4)

d)

Pluto (+15.1)

36.

Two stars have the same apparent magnitude as seen from Earth’s surface. Star A is 33 ly away. Star B is 346 ly away. Which of the following claims is supported by the evidence?

a)

Star B is larger than Star A

b)

Star B is more luminous than Star A

c)

The stars have the same absolute magnitude

d)

Star A has a smaller absolute magnitude

37.
90% of stars are in which part of their life cycle, as shown on the HR diagram?
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Supergiant
c)
White Dwarf
d)
Nebula
38.

Which of the following are the brightest?

a)

red supergiants

b)

yellow main sequence

c)

red dwarfs

d)

white dwarfs

39.

Which of the following stars is the hottest?

a)

Bellatrix

b)

Deneb

c)

Polaris

d)

Barnard's Star

40.

Which of the following stars is the brightest?

a)

Bellatrix

b)

Deneb

c)

Polaris

d)

Barnard's Star

41.

Which of the following are generally the hottest?

a)

Supergiants

b)

Red Giants

c)

Yellow Main Sequence Stars

d)

White Drarfs

42.

Where are the coolest stars on an HR Diagram found?

a)

top

b)

bottom

c)

left

d)

right

43.
In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?
a)
Stars get larger
b)
Stars get colder
c)
Stars get hotter
d)
Stars get brighter
44.
Which star group does our Sun belong to?
a)
White Dwarfs
b)
Supergiants
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Giants
45.
What determines the color of a star? 
a)
It's size
b)
It's temperature
c)
It's composition
d)
They are all the same color 
46.
Look at the H-R diagram. Which star is
sort of cool, dim (not too much light), and red?
a)
Betelguse
b)
Sirius B
c)
Procyon B
d)
Barnard's star
47.
Which star has the lowest temperature?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
48.

What is magnitude?

a)

degree of compactness of a star.

b)

degree of temperature of a star.

c)

the age of a star.

d)

degree of brightness of a star.

49.

Which star is brighter than the sun?

a)

Sirius B

b)

Procyon B

c)

Van Maanan's Star

d)

Aldebaran

50.

Which star is considered a main sequence star?

a)

Vega

b)

Betelgeuse

c)

Pollux

d)

Van Maanan's Star

51.

Which star is considered a supergiant?

a)

Sirius B

b)

Sun

c)

Betelgeuse

d)

Van Maanan's Star

52.

Which star shown below is brightest?

a)

a magnitude -1 star

b)

a magnitude 1 star

c)

a magnitude 2 star

d)

a magnitude 3 star

53.

What small, hot, faint objects are found at B?

a)

neutron stars

b)

black holes

c)

white dwarfs

d)

brown dwarfs

54.

What objects are found at C?

a)

Blue giants

b)

Red giants

c)

White dwarfs

d)

Main sequence stars

55.

With greater distance, the parallax angle

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

doesn't change

56.
The core of a Red Giant collapses and becomes a ___________________.
a)
White Dwarf
b)
Blue Supergiant
c)
Red Supergiant
d)
Black Hole
57.
Our sun is currently in what star stage?
a)
Protostar
b)
Nebula
c)
Main Sequence
d)
Red Giant
58.
______ is a force that causes dust particles to stick together in a nebula.
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
gravity
c)
hydrogen
d)
friction
59.
A gigantic explosion that causes the death of a large star is called
a)
pulsar
b)
red giant 
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
60.

This is an image of the first stage in the formation of a star, also known as a ....

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Planetary Nebula

c)

Supernova

d)

Nebula

61.

The stage after the main sequence star:

a)

red giant

b)

nebula

c)

white dwarf

d)

black dwarf

62.

When nebula is big and hot enough is collapses on itself and ...................... is made

a)

white dwarf

b)

supernova

c)

protostar

d)

planetary nebula

63.

Black hole ends life of the biggest stars in the universe

a)

true

b)

false

64.

Neutron stars are very small and extremely dense

a)

true

b)

false

65.

Supernova happens after

a)

super red giant

b)

nebula

c)

protostar

d)

white dwarf

66.

All stars begin their life as a

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Nebula

c)

Protostar

d)

Black Dwarf

67.

A ________ is an object so dense with so much gravity that even light cannot escape.

a)

neutron star

b)

white dwarf

c)

black hole

d)

black dwarf

68.

The super red giant ends its life as a massive explosion called

a)

supernova

b)

planetary nebula

c)

constellation

d)

black dwarf

69.

Our sun is in this stage of its life

a)

nebula

b)

red giant

c)

black hole

d)

main sequence star

70.

Our sun will end its life as a black hole

a)

true

b)

false

71.

All stars begin their life as a white dwarf

a)

true

b)

false

72.

Our sun will end its life as a black dwarf

a)

true

b)

false

73.

How many stars are there in our solar system

a)

1

b)

1 billion

c)

1 million

d)

100

74.

Only the biggest stars in the universe can become black holes at the end of their life.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

The life cycles of stars are determined by their:

a)

mass (size)

b)

color

c)

distance from Earth

d)

how bright they are

76.

Stars are made of mostly which two gases?

a)

Hydrogen and Helium

b)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen and Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen and Carbon

77.

Stars give off heat and light in a process called ___________.

a)

nuclear fusion

b)

supernova

c)

luminosity

d)

spectroscopy

78.

In the process of nuclear fusion, hydrogen atoms combine to form ___________ atoms.

a)

helium

b)

carbon

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

79.
How many stars are in a galaxy.
a)
millions or billions
b)
thousands
c)
hundreds
d)
Ten
80.
The most abundant type of galaxy in the universe is an...
a)
Spiral Galaxy
b)
Elliptical Galaxy
c)
Irregular Galaxy
81.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Irrational
82.
The type of galaxy that is composed of the older stars and low-mass stars.
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Constellation
83.
Which of the following is NOT true about the Big Bang Theory?
a)
It is the scientific explanation of how life began on Earth and evolved over time.
b)
It is the scientific explanation for the origin of the universe.
c)
It states that the universe expanded from a single point and is still expanding today.
d)
It states that the universe used to be much hotter and smaller.
84.
Which of the following is evidence of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
Cavemen heard a loud bang at the beginning of time.
b)
The universe isn't moving
c)
The universe is expanding
d)
The universe is getting smaller
85.
How did scientists realize that dark matter should exist?
a)
Normal matter wouldn't have enough gravity to form galaxies.
b)
By looking at the sky with a superhigh resolution telescope
c)
They got messages from creatures living in dark matter.
d)
By crashing a spacecraft into a large region of dark matter.
86.
What brightens and fades in a regular pattern? 
a)
The sun 
b)
A Cepheid variable 
c)
A shiny rock 
d)
Light year 
87.
Galaxies that are redshifted are:
a)
actually blue.
b)
really far away.
c)
invisible.
d)
moving away from us.
88.
Which is NOT a type of galaxy?
a)
Elliptical
b)
Spiral
c)
Oblong
d)
Irregular
89.

The parallax of a star is observed because

a)

all stars have the same apparent brightness.

b)

parallax increases with distance.

c)

stars do not move.

d)

the observer moves.

90.

The unknown force or energy which tends to accelerate the expansion of the universe is called ___

a)

the faint force

b)

dark energy

c)

the shadow force

d)

black energy

91.

The Universe is expanding, and that expansion is ___

a)

getting faster every day

b)

getting slower every day

c)

randomly changing

d)

constant

92.

According to the Big Bang, about how old is the universe?

a)

Like, 3 or 4 weeks?

b)

175 million years old

c)

14 billion years old

d)

37 trillion years old

93.

What makes "dark matter" dark?

a)

It cannot be directly observed

b)

It listens to a lot of emo music and finds edgy memes on iFunny.

c)

The light that comes off from dark matter is very dim

d)

The light that comes off from dark matter is super old

94.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Irregular

b)

E0

c)

Sb

d)

SBc

95.

What kind of matter makes up you and me and all we can see?

a)

Special Matter

b)

Normal Matter

c)

Dark Matter

d)

Light Matter

96.

Hubble used collective learning in order to determine that the Universe was expanding. Which of the following scientists provided Hubble with the evidence he needed to figure out if certain stars (Cepheid variable stars) were moving away from us?

a)

Nicolas Copernicus

b)

Ptolemy

c)

Henrietta Leavitt

d)

Isaac Newton

97.

What is the main difference between E0 and E7 galaxies?

a)

E0 galaxies have bars in the center; E7 galaxies do not.

b)

E0 galaxies are elliptical in appearance, while E7 galaxies are round.

c)

E7 galaxies are elliptical in appearance, while E0 galaxies are round.

d)

E0 galaxies have tightly wrapped spiral arms; E7 galaxies have loosely wrapped spiral arms

98.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Spiral

b)

Elliptical

c)

Irregular

d)

Barred Spiral

99.

What is the creature's final displacement?

a)

23 m

b)

9 m

c)

-9 m

d)

-23 m

100.

At what position did the creature change direction?

a)

-7 m

b)

9 m

c)

2 m

d)

16 m

101.

If you draw a straight line on a map to see how far you are from where you started, you just found your ______.

a)

Distance

b)

Displacement

c)

Position

d)

Time

102.

What is the creature's starting position?

a)

6 m

b)

-3 m

c)

1 m

d)

3 m

103.

What distance did the creature travel?

a)

7 m

b)

3 m

c)

-3 m

d)

-7 m

104.

Distance

a)

Total length of the path travelled

b)

How far an object is from its starting point

c)

Location of an object relative to a defined zero point

105.

Displacement

a)

Total length of the path travelled

b)

How far an object is from its starting point

c)

Location of an object relative to a defined zero point

106.

Position

a)

Total length of the path travelled

b)

How far an object is from its starting point

c)

Location of an object relative to a defined zero point

107.
Object C had an initial position of 2 m and a final position of 10 m. The displacement of object C can be shown with this equation: Displacement = final position - initial position
What was the displacement of object C?
a)
+6 m
b)
+8 m
c)
-4 m
d)
-2 m
108.
What type of galaxy has no defined pattern or shape?
a)
Spiral 
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Constellation
109.
The type of galaxy that is composed of the older stars and low-mass stars.
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
d)
Constellation
110.
What is the shape of an elliptical galaxy?
a)
oval
b)
square
c)
no shape
d)
pinwheel
111.

Pick the types of galaxies

a)

square

b)

elliptical

c)

spiral

d)

fixed shape

e)

irregular

112.

Choose the image that represents the spiral galaxy

a)
b)
c)
113.
A ping-pong ball rolls forward 6 meters, and bounces backward 3 meters. It traveled a total distance of:
a)
9 meters
b)
6 meters
c)
3 meters
d)
0 meters
114.
Ivan walks 10 meters west to the water fountain, then runs 2 meters east to his class to avoid a lockout. His displacement would be:
a)
8 meters
b)
8 meters, east
c)
8 meters, west
d)
12 meters
115.

from 3rd second to 5th second, the object is

a)

moving at a constant speed

b)

speeding up

c)

not moving

d)

slowing down

116.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
117.

On a position vs. time graph, the steeper the slope _____

a)
the slower the speed
b)
the faster the speed
c)
less acceleration
d)
greater acceleration
118.

When was Marie driving the fastest?

a)

C to D

b)

D to E

c)

E to F

119.

Line A indicates that the object is

a)

Speeding up in positive direction

b)

Speeding up in negative direction

c)

moving at constant speed in negative direction

d)

moving at constant speed in positive direction

120.
240 cm = ___________ m
a)
2400
b)
24
c)
2.4
d)
0.24
121.
15.6 L = ___________ mL
a)
15,600
b)
156,000
c)
1,560,000
d)
15,600,000
122.
2804 mg = ___________ g
a)
0.2804
b)
2.804
c)
28.04
d)
280.4
123.
 68 cm = ___________ mm
a)
0.68
b)
6.8
c)
68
d)
680
124.
Evidence is ___________________
a)
A statement or conclusion that answers a question
b)
Scientific data that supports the claim
c)
A justification that connects the claim to the evidence
d)
Not vital when using an argument
125.
A claim is ______________________________.
a)
a kind of shellfish often used in chowder. 
b)
a fact.
c)
a statement or conclusion that answers the original question or problem
d)
a bad thing to make about something.
126.
Reasoning is __________________.
a)
A statement of conclusion that answers the original question/problem
b)
Scientific data that supports the claim
c)
A justification that connects the evidence to the claim
d)
Empirical Evidence
127.
According to the American Health Association, peanut butter is a great source of protein.
a)
Claim
b)
Evidence
128.
Air is matter. We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it. This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
Which sentence is the evidence?
a)
Air is matter.
b)
We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it.
c)
This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
129.
Students should not be required to do community service.
a)
Evidence statement
b)
Claim statement
c)
Reasoning statement
130.

"Rhinos have horns"

Is this a claim, evidence or reasoning?

a)

Claim

b)

Evidence

c)

Reasoning

131.
What is the speed of an object that travels 60 meters in 4 seconds?
a)
240 m/s
b)
15 m/s
c)
0.067 m/s
d)
15 mph
132.
Bill jogs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home.  He does so in 267 seconds.  What is Bill's average speed?
a)
about 3 m/s
b)
about 1.5 m/s
c)
0
d)
about 4 m/s
133.
What is this objects speed at 2 s?
a)
5 m/s
b)
5 s/m
c)
20 m/s
d)
20 s/m
134.
What is the speed of a cheetah that travels 112.0 m in 4.0 s?
a)
0.0357 m/s
b)
28.0 km/s
c)
0.036 m/s
d)
28.0 m/s
135.
How long does it take to go 340 meters if you are travelling at 23 m/s?
a)
363 s
b)
.068 s
c)
7820 s
d)
14.78 s
136.

To determine how fast an object is moving on a Position-time graph I should...

a)

Look at the vertical axis at that time

b)

Look at the steepness of the line (slope)

c)

Look at if the slope is positive or negative

d)

Look at the direction of the curvature, if any

137.

Horizontal line on a Position Time graph indicate that the object is

a)

Speeding up

b)

Slowing down

c)

at Rest

d)

moving at a constant speed

138.

What is the speed pf the object in section A?

a)

0 m/s

b)

30 m/s

c)

0.5m/s

d)

2 m/s

139.

What is happening in this graph from point B to C?

a)

The object is going down a hill.

b)

The object is returning to its starting location.

c)

The object is slowing down.

d)

The object is staying still.

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