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Cardiac anatomy and physiology

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

cardio is also known as

a)

heart

b)

blood vessels

2.

vascular is also known as

a)

blood vessels

b)

heart

3.

purpose of the cardiovascular system

a)

deliver oxygen and nutrients to the cells.

b)

deliver chemical messages

c)

transport waste products

d)

deliver blood vessels to the lungs

4.

which layer of the serous pericardium ines the inside of the fibrous pericardium?

a)

Parietal layer

b)

visceral layer

5.

which layer of the serous pericardium attaches to the large vessels that enter and exit the heart and covers the outer surface of the heart muscle?

a)

Visceral layer

b)

Parietal layer

6.

what are the 3 layers to the wall of the heart?

a)

Endocardium

b)

Myocardium

c)

Epicardium

d)

ediocardium

7.

what type of cardiac cell does generate and conduct electrical impulses?

a)

myocardial cell

b)

pacemaker cell

8.

which layer is continous with the innermost layer of the arteries, veins, and capillaries of the body?

a)

endocardium

b)

myocardium

c)

epiocardium

9.

what type of cardiac cell contracts when electrically stimulated and does not generate electrical impulses?

a)

Myocardial cells

b)

pacemaker cells

10.

what is the myocardium responsible for?

a)

Middle layer of thick cardiac muscle fibers responsible for the pumping action of the heart.

b)

Outer layer of thick cardiac muscle fibers responsible for the pumping action of the heart.

c)

inner layer of thick cardiac muscle fibers responsible for the pumping action of the heart.

11.

what layer of the layer of the heart wall is the outermost layer?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

12.

what does the epicardium layer contain?

a)

blood capillaries

b)

lymph capillaries

c)

nerve fibers

d)

fat

e)

muscle

13.

which function of the heart receives incoming blood & act as temporary storage before emptying into the ventricles?

a)

function of the atria

b)

function of the ventricles

14.

which function of the heart receives blood from atria & pump it out?

a)

function of the atria

b)

function of the ventricles

15.

what is the most common symptom of Acute Coronary Syndromes?

a)

Angina

b)

Coughing

c)

Headache

d)

swelling

16.

what syndrome can cause myocardial ischemia or permanent damage to heart?

a)

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

b)

Down Syndrome

17.

What are some modifiable risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease?

a)

smoking

b)

diabetes

c)

obesity

d)

cocaine use

e)

Age

18.

What are some non-modifiable risk factors for Coronary Artery Disease?

a)

Age

b)

Male

c)

Family history

d)

Ethnicity

19.

how is angina described?

a)

squeezing or tightening felt in the chest (pain)

b)

warming of the chest

20.

where does angina often begin in?

a)

left chest and radiates to arm

b)

right chest and radiates to arm

21.

what does ischemia mean?

a)

damage

b)

death of tissue

c)

healthy

22.

what does infarction mean?

a)

damage

b)

death of tissue

c)

healthy

23.

is systole contracted or relaxed? (0.28 sec.)

a)

contracted

b)

relaxed

24.

is diastole contracted or relaxed? (0.52 sec)

a)

contracted

b)

relaxed

25.

what is the right side of the hearts job?

a)

pump unoxygenated blood from the body to and through the lungs to the left side of the heart

b)

to receive oxygenated blood from lungs and pump it to the rest of the body

26.

what is the right side of the heart referred to as?

a)

pulmonary circulation

b)

systemic circulation

27.

what is the left side of the hearts job?

a)

to pump unoxygenated blood from the body to and through the lungs to the left side of the heart.

b)

to receive oxygenated blood from lungs and pump it to rest of body.

28.

what is the left side of the heart referred to as?

a)

Pulmonary Circulation.

b)

Systemic Circulation.

29.

definition of parasympathetic

a)

digesting food

b)

fight or flight response

30.

definition of sympathetic

a)

digesting food

b)

fight or flight response

31.

what electrolytes affect cardiac functions?

a)

Sodium (Na)

b)

Potassium (K)

c)

Calcium (Ca)

d)

Chloride (Cl)

32.

what does electrolytes affect?

a)

rhythm

b)

rate

c)

force of contraction

d)

flow

33.

normal heart rate -

a)

60-100 bpm

b)

50-100 bpm

c)

30-50 bpm

d)

40-50 bpm

34.

normal BP-

a)

120/80

b)

130/70

c)

120/70

d)

140/80

35.

normal cardiac output-

a)

5 L/min

b)

2 L/min

c)

3 L/ min

36.

how is cardiac output calculated?

a)

stroke volume x heart rate

b)

blood pressure x heart rate

c)

blood pressure x stroke volume

d)

stroke volume x blood pressure

37.

Normal Ejection fraction-

a)

60-65%

b)

55-60%

c)

40-60%

d)

60-100%

38.

what is ejection fraction used to measure?

a)

ventricular function

b)

atria function

39.

what is another name for preload?

a)

end-diastolic volume

b)

end-systolic volume

c)

open-diastolic volume

40.

define preload

a)

volume of blood received by the heart

b)

pressure or resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood

41.

define afterload

a)

pressure or resistance the heart had to overcome to eject blood

b)

volume of blood recieved by the heart

42.

what type of heart failure is right sided?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Cor Pulmonale

43.

what type of heart failure is left sided?

a)

Cor Pulmonale

b)

Congestive Heart Failure

44.

-Condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet metabolic needs of the body.

a)

heart failure

b)

blood pressure

c)

afterload

45.

what disease is the leading cause of premature, permanent disability among working adults?

a)

Coronary heart disease

b)

congestive heart failure

c)

pneumonia

46.

-disease of the coronary arteries and their resulting complications, such as angina pectoris or acute myocardial infarction.

a)

Coronary heart disease(CHD)

b)

Coronary Artery disease

47.

-affects the arteries that supply the heart muscle with blood.

a)

Coronary Artery disease

b)

Coronary heart disease(CHD)

48.

non modifiable (fixed) risk factors of cardiovascular disease

a)

Heredity

b)

race

c)

gender

d)

age

e)

stress

49.

modifiable risk factors of cardiovascular disease

a)

high blood pressure

b)

tobacco use

c)

diabetes

d)

obesity

e)

physical inactivity

50.

contributing factors to cardiovascular disease

a)

stress

b)

inflammatory markers

c)

psychosocial factors

d)

alcohol intake

e)

age

51.

what lipoproteins if they are not removed from the blood by the liver, cholesterol and fat can build up in arteries and contribute to atherosclerosis.

a)

low density lipoprotein (bad cholesterol)

b)

High-density lipoproteins (good cholesterol)

52.

what lipoprotein help remove cholesterol from the blood, preventing a build up of cholesterol in the arterial walls?

a)

Low-density lipoproteins (bad cholesterol)

b)

High-density lipoproteins (good cholesterol)

53.

- the absence of cardiac mechanical activity, confirmed by the absence of a detectable pulse, unresponsiveness, and apnea or agonal respirations.

a)

Cardiopulmonary (Cardiac) arrest

b)

Sudden cardiac death

54.

- an unexpected death due to a cardiac cause that occurs immediately or within one hour of the onset of symptoms.

a)

Cardiopulmonary (Cardiac) arrest

b)

Sudden cardiac death(

55.

when is the risk of sudden cardiac death increased?

a)

early morning

b)

Mondays

c)

winter months

d)

summer

56.

possible cardiac arrest causes

a)

Coronary artery disease (most common)

b)

cardiac dysrhythmias

c)

acute myocardial infarction

d)

prolonged QT interval

e)

congenital heart disease

57.

possible non-cardiac cause

a)

pulmonary embolism

b)

choking

c)

drug ingestion

d)

substance abuse

e)

stroke

58.

what is the chain of survival?

a)

early access

b)

early CPR

c)

early defibrillation

d)

early ACLS

e)

early intubation

59.

what are some shockable rhythms/ life threatening?

a)

ventricular tachycardia (vtach)

b)

ventricular fibrillation (vfib)

c)

asystole

d)

pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

60.

nonshockable rhythms

a)

ventricular tachycardia

b)

ventricular fibrillation

c)

asystole

d)

pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

61.

what phase of CPR is also called electrical phase, extends life 5 minutes after arrest, prompts defibrillation, then CPR?

a)

phase 1

b)

phase 2

c)

phase 3

62.

what phase of CPR is also called circulatory phase or the hemodynamic phase, 5-15 minutes after arrest, and CPR is very important?

a)

phase 1

b)

phase 2

c)

phase 3

63.

what phase of CPR is also called metabolic phase, extends beyond 15 minutes of arrest, effectiveness of immediate defibrillation and CPR followed by defibrillation?

a)

phase 1

b)

phase 2

c)

phase 3

64.

what is your first impression when assessing your patient?

a)

Appearance

b)

breathing

c)

circulation

d)

defibrillation

65.

what is the primary survey steps during the patient assessment?

a)

responsiveness

b)

airway

c)

breathing

d)

circulation

e)

defibrillation

66.

when assessing the airway/breathing what sounds might you hear?

a)

snoring

b)

gurgling

c)

stridor

d)

food

67.

Adequate breathing

a)

12-20 bpm

b)

regular rhythm

c)

breath sounds are present/no usage of accessory muscles

d)

skin looks pink, warm,dry

e)

irregular rhythm

68.

inadequate breathing

a)

respiratory rate is outside of normal range

b)

irregular rhythm

c)

breath sound are diminished/ increased work of breathing

d)

skin looks pale, cyanotic, cool, clammy

e)

regular rhythm

69.

steps when assessing airway/breathing

a)

open the airway

b)

asses breathing

c)

rescue breaths

d)

CPR

70.

when do you check a carotid pulse on the side nearest to you?

a)

a unresponsive patient

b)

a responsive patient

c)

a angry patient

71.

if a pulse is present what should you look for?

a)

rate

b)

rhythm

c)

quality

d)

move to secondary survey

e)

start CPR

72.

when should you start CPR until an AED is available?

a)

when a pulse is present

b)

when no pulse is present

73.

how many compressions should be done within a minute?

a)

100

b)

50

c)

60

d)

20

74.

what is the compression to ventilation ratio for CPR?

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

30:5

75.

Secondary survey (ABCD)

a)

Advanced airway

b)

breathing

c)

circulation

d)

differential diagnosis

e)

Defibrillation

76.

Secondary survey (EF)

a)

evaluate interventions

b)

eliminate mucus

c)

facilitate family presence for invasive procedures

d)

family history

77.

SAMPLE history ( E- events leading up to illness/episode)

a)

Signs/symptoms

b)

Allergies

c)

medication

d)

Past Medical History

e)

Last oral intake

78.

Five H`s to consider: possible causes

a)

hypovomlemia

b)

hypoxia

c)

hypothermia

d)

hypo/hyperkalemia

e)

hydrogen ions

79.

Five T`s to consider: possible causes

a)

tamponade

b)

tension pneumothorax

c)

thrombosis (lungs)

d)

thrombosis (heart)

e)

tablets/toxins

80.

-written document recording an individual’s decisions concerning medical treatment that is to be applied or not applied in the event of physical or mental ability to communicate these wishes.

a)

Advanced directive

b)

DNR order

81.

type of advanced directive

a)

living will

b)

durable power of attorney for healthcare(DPAHC)

c)

DNR order

82.

-directs a legal guardian with the ability to make decisions on patient’s behalf.

a)

living will

b)

Durable power of attorney for healthcare(DPAHC)

c)

Advanced Directive

83.

what is criteria for not starting CPR?

a)

Patient has a DNR order

b)

Signs of irreversible death

c)

No physiological benefit

d)

Defibrillation doesn't help

84.

which node is the primary pacemaker for a healthy heart?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

85.

where is the SA node located?

a)

Right atrium near SVC

b)

Left atrium near SVC

c)

Right atrial wall near the tricuspid valve

86.

How many times/minute does the SA node fire?

a)

60-100

b)

50-100

c)

40-60

87.

what node is the backup pacemaker if the SA node fails?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

AD node

88.

what is the intrinsic rate for AV node?

a)

40-60 times/minute

b)

20-40 times/minute

c)

40-80 times/minute

89.

where is the Bundle of His located and what is it connected to?

a)

Located in the upper portion of the interventricular septum & connects the AV node with the two bundle branches.

b)

Located in the lower portion of the interventricular septum & connects the AV node with the two bundle branches.

90.

what is referred as AV junction?

a)

AV node

b)

Bundle of His

c)

SA node

91.

what is the intrinsic rate for Purkinje fibers?

a)

20-40

b)

40-60

c)

20-60

92.

what is ventricular contraction responsible for?

a)

cardiac output

b)

heart attack

c)

stroke volume

93.

-The discharge of electrical current in an attempt to stimulate the cardiac muscle to contract.

a)

depolarization

b)

repolarization

c)

polarization

94.

-regaining of electrical current within the cardiac muscle to prepare for subsequent discharge.

a)

Repolarization

b)

Depolarization

95.

Atrial polarization -

a)

P waves

b)

QRS complex

c)

lost in QRS

96.

Ventricular depolarization-

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

lost in QRS

d)

T wave

97.

Atrial repolarization-

a)

lost in QRS

b)

QRS complex

c)

P wave

98.

Ventricular repolarization

a)

Early- ST segment

b)

Late- T wave

c)

p wave

99.

things to know about p wave

a)

tall or pointed waveform can be seen in various conditions

b)

Represents atrial depolarization and the spread of the electrical impulse throughout the right and left atria.

c)

The beginning of wave is recognized as the first movement away from the baseline.

100.

what does the QRS complex represent?

a)

Represents the spread of the electrical impulse throughout the ventricles and the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarization.

b)

Represents the spread of the electrical impulse throughout the ventricles and the sum of all ventricular muscle cell repolarization.

101.

what does abnormal Q waves indicate?

a)

myocardial infarction (hear attack)

b)

stroke

c)

heart failure

102.

what does abnormal T waves indicate?

a)

sign of electrolyte imbalance

b)

myocardial infarction

103.

normal measurement for PR segment

a)

0.10 secs or less

b)

0.05 secs or less

c)

1.0 secs or less

104.

depression of ST segment or inversion of a T wave=

a)

cardiac ischemia

b)

cardiac infarction

c)

acute myocardial injury

d)

chronic myocardial injury

105.

elevation of the ST segment=

a)

cardiac ischemia

b)

cardiac infarction

c)

acute myocardial injury

d)

chronic myocardial injury