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REMEDIAL AUBF

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement regarding renal function is true?

a)

Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries

b)

The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH

c)

The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only in the presence of aldosterone

d)

The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to H2O and urea

2.

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

a)

Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens

b)

Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed in deionized H2O

c)

Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours

d)

First morning voided samples are not acceptable when renal disease is suspected

3.

Which urine color is correlated correctly with the pigment-producing substance?

a)

Smoky red urine with homogentisic acid

b)

Dark amber urine with myoglobin

c)

Deep yellow urine and yellow foam with bilirubin

d)

Red-brown urine with biliverdin

4.

A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:

a)

Gantrisin (Pyridium)

b)

Phenolsulfonphthalein

c)

Rifampin

d)

Melanin

5.

Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

a)

Consistent with normal renal function and H2O balance

b)

Termed isosthenuria

c)

Defined as oliguria

d)

Associated with diabetes mellitus

6.

Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

a)

Protein

b)

Salt

c)

Urea

d)

Glucose

7.

Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002

and 1.003 indicates:

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Renal tubular failure

c)

Diabetes insipidus

d)

Addison’s disease

8.

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

a)

Consistently acid

b)

Consistently alkaline

c)

Neutral

d)

Variable, depending upon diet

9.

The normal daily urine output for an adult is

approximately:

a)

0.2–0.5 L

b)

0.6–1.6 L

c)

2.7–3.0 L

d)

3.2–3.5 L

10.

The SG of the filtrate in Bowman’s space is

approximately:

a)

1.000–1.002

b)

1.004–1.006

c)

1.008–1.010

d)

1.012–1.014

11.

The normal renal threshold for glucose is:

a)

70–85 mg/dL

b)

100–115 mg/dL

c)

130–145 mg/dL

d)

165–180 mg/dL

12.

0 in Fire hazard means:

a)

No hazard

b)

Stable

c)

Will not burn

d)

Does not oxidize

13.

This acronym is followed when a fire broke that requires the use of fire extinguisher.

a)

RACE

b)

PASS

c)

CARE

d)

PAUSE

14.

This acronym is followed when a fire broke in a building.

a)

RACE

b)

PASS

c)

CARE

d)

PAUSE

15.

All of the following are criteria for urine specimen rejection except?

a)

Quantity not sufficient

b)

Nonmatching labels and request forms

c)

Improperly preserved urine specimen

d)

Contaminated specimens with feces or toilet papers

e)

Label is at the body of the specimen container instead of writing on to the top

16.

He wrote the book uroscopy.

a)

Charlatans

b)

James Wright

c)

Hippocrates

d)

Frederik Dekkers

17.

The primary chemical constituents of normal

urine are:

a)

Protein, sodium, and water

b)

Urea, water, and protein

c)

Urea, chloride, and water

d)

Urea, bilirubin, and glucose

18.

A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia,

and a high urine specific gravity is exhibiting

symptoms of what disorder?

a)

Diabetes insipidus

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Uremia

19.

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random

specimen may need to be repeated using a:

a)

Clean-catch specimen

b)

Fasting specimen

c)

First morning specimen

d)

24-Hour specimen

20.
The medical term for excessive urination is:
a)
incontinence
b)
nocturia
c)
oliguria
d)
polyuria
21.

Major inorganic component of urine.

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Urea

d)

Creatinine

22.

Major organic component of urine and is produced from the breakdown of protein and amino acids

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Urea

d)

Creatinine

23.

The physical characteristic of color is assessed when a routine urinalysis is performed. What substance is

normally found in urine that is principally responsible for its yellow coloration?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Melanin

c)

Carotene

d)

Urochrome

24.

Clorets gives ______ color in the urine.

a)

Brown

b)

Blue-Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Orange yellow

e)

Red

25.

Every minute approximately two to three million glomeruli filter approximately ______of water-containing low-molecular-weight substances

a)

20 mL/min

b)

100 ml/min

c)

120ml/min

d)

1200 ml/min

26.

It is considered the gold standard method for assessment of GFR.

a)

Creatinine

b)

Inulin

c)

Urea

d)

Beta2-Microglobulin

27.

This colligative property was the first principle incorporated into clinical osmometers.

a)

Freezing point

b)

Boiling point

c)

Vapor Pressure

d)

Osmotic Pressure

28.

Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer–Malbin stain?

a)

Hematoxylin and eosin

b)

Crystal violet and safranin

c)

Methylene blue and eosin

d)

Methylene blue and safranin

29.

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

a)

"Glitter cells” seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease

b)

Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection (UTI)

c)

WBCs other than PMNs are not found in urinary sediment

d)

WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

30.

The ova of which parasite may be found in the urinary sediment?

a)

T. vaginalis

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Schistosoma hematobium

d)

Trichuris trichiura

31.

Oval fat bodies are often seen in

a)

Chronic glomerulonephritis

b)

Nephrotic syndrome

c)

Acute tubular nephrosis

d)

Renal failure of any cause

32.

The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a hyaline cast is called:

a)

Bence–Jones protein

b)

β-Microglobulin

c)

Tamm–Horsfall protein

d)

Arginine-rich glycoprotein

33.

“Pseudocasts” are often caused by:

a)

A dirty cover glass or slide

b)

Bacterial contamination

c)

Amorphous urates

d)

Mucus in the urine

34.

Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

a)

Nephrotic syndrome

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Polycystic kidney disease

d)

Cystitis

35.

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

a)

Blood casts

b)

Fine granular casts

c)

Waxy casts

d)

Fatty casts

36.

Small yellow needles are seen in the sediment of a urine sample with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following crystals can be ruled out

a)

Sulfa crystals

b)

Bilirubin crystals

c)

Uric acid crystals

d)

Cholesterol crystals

37.

Which of the following conditions is often a cause of glomerulonephritis?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Cytomegalovirus infection

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

Heavy metal poisoning

38.

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:

a)

Magnesium ammonium phosphate

b)

Calcium oxalate

c)

Calcium phosphate

d)

Calcium carbonate

39.

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of

a)

Alkaptone

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

d)

Homogentisic acid

40.

Nitrite in a urine specimen suggests the presence of

a)

White blood cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Bacteria

d)

Yeasts

41.

Which of the following systems utilizes polyelectrolytes to determine the specific gravity of urine?

a)

Refractometer

b)

Osmometer

c)

TS meter

d)

Reagent strip

42.

Which urinalysis reagent strip test will never be reported out as "negative"?

a)

Protein

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Nitrite

43.

Seen in ethylene glycol poisoning

a)

Dihydrate CaOx

b)

Monohydrate CaOx

c)

Both

d)

Neither

44.

Seen in Acute Interstitial Nephritis

a)

RBC

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Bacteria

d)

RBC and Bacteria

e)

RBC and Eosinophils

45.

The presence of this compound may indicate liver disease

a)

bilirubin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

ammonia

d)

intact RBCs

46.

Which of the following is the pigment that gives urine its characteristic color

a)

hemoglobin

b)

biliverdin

c)

homogentisic acid

d)

urochrome

47.

Hyposthenuria is urine with

a)

consistently low specific gravity

b)

consistently high specific gravity

c)

normal specific gravity

d)

specific gravity of 1.000

48.

In reporting SSA turbidity, turbidity is seen with granulation but without flocculation

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

49.

Normal urinary crystal which is colorless, resembling flat plates or thin prisms often in rosette form:

a)

Amorphous phosphates

b)

Struvite

c)

Apatite

d)

Calcium carbonate

50.

A renal calculi described as very hard, dark in color with rough surface:

a)

Calcium oxalate

b)

Uric acid

c)

Cystine

d)

Phosphate

51.

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

a)

Blood casts

b)

Fine granular casts

c)

Waxy casts

d)

Fatty casts

52.

Using polarized light microscopy, which of the following urinary elements are birefringent?

a)

cholesterol

b)

triglycerides

c)

fatty acids

d)

neutral acids

53.

A reagent strip area impregnated with stabilized, diazotized 2, 4 dichloroaniline will yield a positive reaction with:

a)

bilirubin

b)

hemoglobin

c)

ketones

d)

urobilinogen

54.

Which of the following findings is consistent with a subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a traumatic tap?

a)

Clearing of the fluid as it is aspirated

b)

A clear supernatant after centrifugation

c)

Xanthochromia

d)

Presence of a clot in the sample

55.

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF glucose and protein?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Malignancy

c)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

Viral meningitis

56.

Neutrophilic pleocytosis is usually associated with all of the following except:

a)

Cerebral infarction

b)

Malignancy

c)

Myelography

d)

Neurosyphilis

57.

Which cell is present in the CSF in greater numbers in newborns than in older children or adults?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

58.

Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose

a)

Transthyretin

b)

Myelin basic protein

c)

Tau protein

d)

C-reactive protein

59.

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?

a)

Congestive heart failure

b)

Malignancy

c)

Nephrotic syndrome

d)

Cirrhosis

60.

In which condition is the pleural fluid pH likely to be above 7.3?

a)

Bacterial pneumonia with parapneumonic exudate

b)

Rheumatoid pleuritis

c)

Esophageal rupture

d)

Pneumothorax

61.

Which of the following crystals is the cause of gout?

a)

Uric acid or monosodium urate

b)

Calcium pyrophosphate or apatite

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Cholesterol

62.

Which crystal causes “pseudogout”?

a)

Oxalic acid

b)

Calcium pyrophosphate

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Cholesterol

63.

Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?

a)

Human placental lactogen

b)

L/S ratio

c)

Amniotic fluid bilirubin

d)

Urinary estriol

64.

What is the most common cause of male infertility?

a)

Mumps

b)

Klinefelter’s syndrome

c)

Varicocele

d)

Malignancy

65.

Which of the following values is the lower limit of normal for sperm concentration?

a)

15 million per mL

b)

40 million per mL

c)

60 million per mL

d)

100 million per mL

66.

Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?

a)

Eosin Y

b)

Hematoxylin

c)

Papanicolaou

d)

Methylene blue

67.

Which carbohydrate measurement is clinically useful when performing a seminal fluid analysis?

a)

Glucose

b)

Galactose

c)

Fructose

d)

Maltose

68.

Which of the following tests would be normal in pancreatic insufficiency?

a)

Secretin stimulation

b)

D-Xylose absorption

c)

Twenty-four-hour fecal fat

d)

β Carotene absorption

69.

Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?

a)

Colon cancer

b)

Atrophic gastritis

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Pancreatitis

70.

To determine amniotic fluid contamination with maternal urine, which of the following measurements could be used?

a)

Creatinine concentration

b)

Delta absorbance at 410 nm

c)

Albumin/globulin ratio

d)

Lactate dehydrogenase

71.

A patient has been diagnosed with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which of the following would be characteristic for this condition?

a)

Brown stool with streaks of bright red

b)

Stool with lack of brown color ("clay-colored")

c)

Stool with a much darker brown/black color

d)

Yellow stool with increased mucus

72.

The estimation of hyaluronic acid concentration by measurement of viscosity is useful in evaluating which type of fluid?

a)

Spinal

b)

Peritoneal

c)

Pleural

d)

Synovial

73.

Which condition is characterized by increased levels of immunoglobulins in the cerebrospinal fluid, originating from within the central nervous system and not from the general blood circulation?

a)

Gout

b)

Erythroblastosis fetalis

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Multiple sclerosis

74.

Which of the following organisms might not be detected if the specimen for vaginal secretion analysis had been refrigerated?

a)

Prevotella bivia

b)

Lactobacillus acidophilus

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Candida albicans

75.

A normal range for a vaginal pH is

a)

3.8 to 4.5

b)

5.0 to 6.0

c)

6.0 to 7.0

d)

7.0 to 7.4

76.

Which of the following organisms produces lactic acid and hydrogen peroxide to maintain an acid vaginal environment?

a)

Gardnerella vaginalis

b)

Mobiluncus spp.

c)

Lactobacilli spp.

d)

β -Hemolytic streptococci

77.

Collection of sweat for analysis is performed using what method?

a)

Pilocarpine Iontophoresis

b)

Paracentsis

c)

Thoracentesis

d)

Sweat induction

78.

This is characterized by increased gastrin level leading to gastric acid hypersecretion

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Zollinger Ellison Syndrome

d)

Pernicious Anemia

79.

Anchovy red sputum indicates

a)

Infection with P. aeroginusa

b)

Early lobar pnuemonia

c)

Tuberculosis infection

d)

Bonchiectasis

80.

The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is:

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Hydrogen

81.

A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could indicate:

a)

Methionine malabsorption

b)

Trimethylaminuria

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Tyrosyluria

82.

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abnominal pain is frequently performed to check for

a)

Bilirubinuria

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Hemoglobinuria

83.

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Leukocyte esterase

c)

pH

d)

Glucose

84.

Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:

a)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

b)

Hartnup disease

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

85.

A clinically significant epithelial cell is the:

a)

Cuboidal cell

b)

Clue cell

c)

Caudate cell

d)

Squamous epithelial cell

86.

The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocyte

c)

Renal tubular cells

d)

Eosinophils

87.

What is the gold standard for fecal fat determination?

a)

Van de Kamer titration

b)

Van den Berg reaction

c)

APT test

d)

D-Xylose test

88.

The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is

a)

Empysema

b)

Neutrophilia

c)

Pleocytosis

d)

Lymphocytosis

89.

Which type of microscopy is used to aid in identification of cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts and crystals?

a)

Polarizing

b)

Phase-contrast

c)

Interference-contrast

d)

Dark-field

90.

Lactose intolerance caused by the lack of sufficient lactase primarily presents with

a)

steatorrhea

b)

osmotic diarrhea

c)

secretory diarrhea

d)

intestinal hypermotility

91.

A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III indicates that the fetus is experiencing

a)

no hemolysis

b)

mild hemolysis

c)

moderate hemolysis

d)

severe hemolysis

92.

Another name for a peritoneal effusion is:

a)

Peritonitis

b)

Lavage

c)

Ascites

d)

Cirrhosis

93.

Which of the following is not a function of the amniotic fluid surrounding a developing fetus?

a)

Amniotic fluid provides protection of the fetus.

b)

Amniotic fluid enables fetal movement.

c)

Amniotic fluid is a medium for oxygen exchange.

d)

Amniotic fluid is a source of water and solute exchange.

94.

Which of the following components is not normally present in synovial fluid?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Protein

d)

Uric acid

95.

Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?

a)

sodium nitroprusside

b)

acetoacetic acid

c)

acetone

d)

beta-hydroxybutyric acid

96.

Ascorbic acid causes false negative reactions in the following urine reagent strip except?

a)

Blood

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Leukocytes

d)

pH

97.

In reporting SSA turbidity, distinct turbidity is seen with no granulation:

a)

1+

b)

2+

c)

3+

d)

4+

98.

During active transport, sodium is reabsorbed at?

a)

PCT

b)

DCT

c)

DLH

d)

ALH

e)

CD

99.

Patients with diabetes insipidus tend to

produce urine _____________________ in volume with

_______________specific gravity.

a)

Increased; decreased

b)

Increased; increased

c)

Decreased; decreased

d)

Decreased; increased

100.

Class C fires are usually caused by

a)

Wood, paper, clothing

b)

Chemicals

c)

Metals

d)

Electrical

e)

Grease, oils and fats