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Microbial biotechnology

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Many species of bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics because antibiotics have been so widely used. Now, bacteria that used to be killed by antibiotics are more difficult to treat. What is the best way to proceed in dealing with this public health problem?

a)

Antibiotics should no longer be used.

b)

Antibiotics should be made available to anyone without a prescription.

c)

Antibiotics should only be prescribed to people with bacterial infections

d)

Anti-viral medications should now be used instead of antibiotics.

2.

If you want to isolate a particular gene from a plasmid or genome of an organism which of the following enzymes has to be used

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Lysozyme

c)

DNA ligase

d)

restriction enzymes

3.

Prokaryotes do not have

a)

DNA

b)

cell walls

c)

membrane bound organelles

d)

ribosomes

4.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
5.
What is the name of the stretch of DNA where RNA polymerase binds?
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
enhancer
d)
origin
6.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
7.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
8.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
9.
The most important sequence in promoter for RNA polymerase II is 
a)
-10 sequence 
b)
-35 sequence
c)
TATA box
d)
Spacer sequence
10.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
11.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
12.

DNA sequences that can jump from place to place within a genome were first discovered in the 1940s by Barbara McClintock. When these sequences change locations within a genome, they can cause mutations leading to changes in the genetic sequence. These elements are known as

a)

plasmids

b)

bacteriophage

c)

vectors

d)

transposons

13.

Microarrays can be used to compare the level of expression of a particular gene under control and experimental conditions. In one type of array, DNA sequences representing all the genes in the genome arrayed on a glass slide. These arrayed DNAs are called targets and they are hybridized with fluorescently red labeled (experimental) cDNA and fluorescent green (control) labeled cDNA made from reverse transcribed messenger RNAs.

In one experiment, mRNA from a strain of antibiotic resistant bacteria (experimental) is converted into cDNA and labeled with red; mRNA from a non-resistant strain of the same bacteria is converted into see DNA and labeled with green. The cDNAs from the resistant and nonresistant cells were combined and hybridized to glass slide containing cDNA.

Which color spot correspond to genes up-regulated in non-antibiotic resistant bacteria?

a)

red

b)

gray

c)

yellow

d)

green

14.

A scientist wants to put a eukaryotic sequence into a prokaryotic host. They add an expression vector. One of its benefits allows for:

a)

down-regulation of foreign gene

b)

heightened replication of prokaryotic host DNA for amplification

c)

a promoter

d)

marker of how much a gene is present such as a dye

15.

In genetic engineering, small loops of DNA called ___ are to be shuffled from one organism to another.

a)

D-loops or displacement loops

b)

DNA splicing

c)

plasmids

d)

transposons

16.

Since bacteria don’t have introns, they lack RNA-splicing machinery. So, they cannot remove said introns from a foreign DNA insert when making the mRNA. If you want to force bacteria to make a eukaryotic protein, you can make a gene without introns. A way to do this is to _______.

a)

switch the bacteria’s genes so that they can splice RNA

b)

use a probe to find a gene without introns

c)

work backward from mRNA to make a version of the gene without introns

d)

use a phage to insert the desired gene into the bacteria

17.

Viruses that attack bacteria are named “bacteriophages.” The term phage originates from Greek phagein, which translates as “to eat”. The phage infection cycle seems to be simple but efficient: a single phage injects its genome into a bacterial cell, switching the cells' program in its favour so the host cell will eventually die and release about 100 new phage particles. If a bacterium became infected, what should element(s) should it release?

a)

lysosomes

b)

restriction enzymes and DNA polymerase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

restriction endonucleases and methyltransferase

18.

In which of the following scenarios would it be advantageous to create + work with a cDNA (complementary DNA) library rather than a genomic library?

a)

a study of the role of noncoding RNA plays in regulating the expression of the coding genes of a genome

b)

a study of a protein involved in a lizard’s eye development + the regulation of the gene that expresses it

c)

a study of the enhancer region of a gene that regulates a snake’s neural development

d)

a study that compares the sequences of introns for the genes of a cat’s fur development shared among different lineages

19.

Which of the following arrangements of the enzymes below represent the order in which they would be used in a traditional gene-cloning experiment that begins with a strand of mRNA and results in the insertion of a cDNA into a bacterial plasmid?

a)

restriction enzyme, reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

b)

restriction enzyme, DNA ligase, reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase

c)

reverse transcriptase, DNA ligase, DNA polymerase, restriction enzyme

d)

reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, restriction enzyme, DNA ligase

20.

Human nerve cells differ from human muscle cells because different sets of genes are expressed; in each type of cell, different genes are transcribed into mRNA and translated into protein. Which of the following techniques would be the most efficient way to identify the genes that these cells express?

a)

use of microarray

b)

gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments

c)

isolating and analyzing all the proteins from each type of tissue

d)

RT-PCR

21.

The immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) is a large gene family that are involved in the recognition, binding, or adhesion processes of cells. Members of this family commonly contain a domain known as an “immunoglobulin domain or fold.” How can you explain this common feature in so many molecules?

a)

all of the genes that produce these proteins used to be part of a much larger gene that broke down into smaller ones

b)

these genes are retrotransposons

c)

these genes are introns that experienced mutations

d)

the fold is repetitive because of gene duplication and evolution

22.

The genomes of most eukaryotes are larger and more complex than those of prokaryotes, due to the higher complexity of eukaryotes. However, the genome size of many eukaryotes does not appear to be related to genetic complexity. For example, the genomes of lilies contain more than ten times the amount of DNA that is in the human genome, yet these organisms are clearly not ten times more complex than humans. Why might this be?

a)

the two species evolved at very different geologic eras

b)

lilies have more noncoding DNA

c)

lilies have a higher gene density

d)

lilies are more complex organisms

23.

What is the most probable explanation for the continued presence of pseudogenes in a genome?

a)

they have accumulated mutations to such a degree that they code for different functional products

b)

though they are duplicates of functional genes, they cannot function because they would make inappropriate amounts of protein products

c)

they have significant inverted sequences in between exons, stripping their ability to produce proteins

d)

their inability to produce functional proteins is often the consequence of subsequent genetic alterations

24.

What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it advantageous for DNA fingerprinting?

a)

the number of repeats varies widely from person to person

b)

the sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from specie to specie

c)

the sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments

d)

none of the above

25.

Recombination hotspots are regions in a genome that show elevated rates of recombination relative to a neutral expectation. The recombination rate within hotspots can be hundreds of times that of the surrounding region. What might this information most likely be used for?

a)

for comparisons of orthologs, genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestor, to see if there are changes in function

b)

to be used in the field of metagenomics

c)

to find correlations between homologs and pseudogenes

d)

for genetic mapping, which can document the way in which recombination rates vary over a genome

26.

A scientist wants to determine the function of a certain sequence of DNA in a snake. What might be the most reasonable approach?

a)

use RT-PCR to amplify and examine the sequence

b)

look for an identical sequence in another species, and perform a knockout experiment of this sequence in that species

c)

genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of the sequence and examine its phenotype

d)

prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the new sequence

27.

DNA biotechnology has allowed scientists to identify many human genetic disorders, such as hemophilia and cystic fibrosis. When the gene has been amplified by PCR, the DNA is sequenced to determine whether the individual has the disease. If scientists decide to create a test for a new genetic disease, what must first occur before PCR can be used to test for that disease?

a)

the genome must be run through gel electrophoresis

b)

the gene for the disease must be located in the genome

c)

the complementary sequence specific to the gene must be created in the lab through cDNA

d)

it must be recombined into a bacterial cell through recombination

28.

If the amount of agarose added is more, the molecules under analysis should have following characteristics:

a)

small size

b)

large size

c)

size has no relation w/ the amount of agarose

d)

this depends on the amount of molecules under analysis

29.

How is the size of molecules under analysis measured?

a)

by measuring the distance moved using a ruler

b)

by measuring the amount of dye seen under analysis

c)

by running a standard molecule, whose size is already known

d)

none of the above

30.

The charge present on the DNA backbone is negative. The force required to accelerate the molecules towards anode is directly proportional to number of

a)

sugar molecules

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

phosphate groups

d)

both A and C

31.

In gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments will migrate towards the

a)

anode or positive electrode

b)

cathode or negative electrode

c)

anode or negative electrode

d)

neutral electrode

32.

DNA biotechnology has allowed scientists to identify many human genetic disorders, such as hemophilia and cystic fibrosis. When the gene has been amplified by PCR, the DNA is sequenced to determine whether the individual has the disease. If scientists decide to create a test for a new genetic disease, what must first occur before PCR can be used to test for that disease?

a)

the genome must be run through gel electrophoresis

b)

the gene for the disease must be located in the genome

c)

the complementary sequence specific to the gene must be created in the lab through cDNA

d)

it must be recombined into a bacterial cell through recombination

33.

A plasmid has two antibiotic resistant genes - ampicillin resistant and chloramphenicol resistant - if the plasmid grows in ampicillin containing medium, but not in chloramphenicol, what can be concluded?

a)

the insert is not present at all

b)

the insert is present in ampicillin but not in chloramphenicol gene

c)

the insert is present in chloramphenicol but not in ampicillin gene

d)

the insert is present between both of the genes

34.

Luciferase is a generic term for the class of oxidative enzymes that produce bioluminescence. The name was first used by Raphaël Dubois who invented the words luciferin and luciferase, for the substrate and enzyme. Which of the following can it be used for?

a)

track tumor cells

b)

follow viral infections

c)

track bacterial infections

d)

analyze gene expression

35.

Electroporation is one of the methods used for taking up the DNA by the cells. It constitutes of

a)

increased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods over long periods of time

b)

decreased efficiency than both natural and chemical methods over long periods of time

c)

causing the least amount of damage in comparison to other methods

d)

inserting the DNA into the cells through an electric shock

36.

Blots are techniques for transferring macromolecules onto a carrier so they can be separated, routinely used in molecular biology for detection of a specific sequence in samples. Often, DNA needs to be removed from the gel to the solid support. The process can be termed as:

a)

southern blotting

b)

northern blotting

c)

western blotting

d)

eastern blotting

37.

In PCR, _______ is from a thermophilic bacterium. It is highly resistant to heat, and does not denature easily.

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase II

c)

Taq

d)

Sigma

38.
Once the gene and plasmid have been cut with a restriction enzyme, another enzyme called _________ is used to join the pieces of DNA together.
a)
polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
dehydrogenase
d)
lactase
39.
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
40.
A ____________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another.
a)
vector
b)
reverse transcriptase
c)
transport molecule
d)
genetic probe
41.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
42.

Tandem repeats of short DNA sequences with varying numbers of repeats found among individuals.

a)

STR (Short Tandem Repeat)

b)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c)

VNTR (Variable number of Tandem Repeats)

43.
An application of using DNA technology to help environmental scientists would be ___.
a)
use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime scene
b)
create a tobacco plant that glows in the dark
c)
clone the gene for human growth hormone to treat pituitary dwarfism
d)
make transgenic bacteria that can be used to clean up oil spills more quickly than do the natural bacteria
44.
Recombinant DNA are currently used to produce____.
a)
clothing dye, cheese, and laundry products
b)
human antibiotics and vaccines
c)
crops that taste better and stay fresh longer
d)
all of these
45.
____ are produced when DNA from another species is inserted into the genome of an organism, which then begins to produce the protein encoded on the recombinant DNA.
a)
vectors
b)
plasmids
c)
transgenic organisms
d)
gene guns
46.
Genetic engineering has produced goats whose milk contains proteins that can be used as medicines. This effect was produced by
a)
mixing genes into the milk
b)
injecting genes into the goats udders
c)
inserting foreign genes into fertilized goat eggs
d)
genetically modifying the nutritional needs of the goats offspring 
47.
Researchers have been working on cloning animals such as sheep. Which result is most likely to be a negative result such as cloning?
a)
development of extra organs
b)
premature death
c)
a low rate of genetic diseases
d)
delayed aging
48.

Scientists have produced a genetically modified orange tree that is resistant to disease. Which of the following is the best example of a potential benefit to society that could result from this biotechnology?

a)

reduction in orange crops produced

b)

increase in orange crops produced

c)

increase in the cost of orange crop

d)

a change in the distribution of insects that pollinate orange flowers

49.
Which biotechnology is used to make exact DNA copies of an organism?
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Genetic Engineering
c)
Inbreeding
d)
Cloning
50.
The Human Genome Project has made diagnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a genetic disorder is diagnosed, ____ can be used as a possible treatment.
a)
cell cultures
b)
gene therapy
c)
DNA fingerprinting
d)
PCR
51.

DNA sequences that occur between genes and are referred to as ______________________ .

a)

intergenic sequences

b)

interspersed repeat

c)

transposons

d)

comparative genomics

52.

Repetitions placed intermittently along a single chromosome, or across multiple chromosomes are ___________________.

a)

intergenic sequences

b)

interspersed repeat

c)

transposons

d)

comparative genomics

53.

Specific DNA sequences that have the ability to move within and between chromosomes.

a)

intergenic sequences

b)

interspersed repeat

c)

transposons

d)

comparative genomics

54.

To compare the human genome to the genome of other organisms.

a)

intergenic sequences

b)

interspersed repeat

c)

transposons

d)

comparative genomics

55.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
56.
What does the repressor protein do?
a)
Allows RNA polymerase to read the gene
b)
Prevents RNA polymerase from reading the gene
c)
Reads the gene
d)
Translates the gene
57.
In the lac operon, the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
galactose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
d)
glucose is absent in the cell
58.
What type of operon is the lac (lactose) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
59.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
60.
What type of operon is shown in the image?
a)
inducible operon
b)
repressible operon
c)
positive control operon
d)
can't determine this from the image
61.
T1 - What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that contains plans (codes) for a protein?
a)
Glucose
b)
Chromosome
c)
Gene
d)
Phosphate
62.

Scientists implant a gene into a species of tomato plant that makes them ripen faster and stay firm as they are transported to stores. What is the benefit of this technology?

a)

Increased toxins in the food.

b)

Increase shelf life and availablity.

c)

Decreased size of tomatoes.

d)

Increased seed production

63.

What are some examples of biotechnology being used in agriculture?

a)

Crop irrigation

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Gentically modified crops

d)

Crop rotation

64.

A farmer is considering the advantages of cloning a herd of cattle from a single cow. What is one advantage of a cloned herd?

a)

All cattle in the herd would have the most desired traits.

b)

All cattle in the herd would have more genetic variation.

c)

All cattle in the herd would have more resistance to diseases.

d)

All cattle in the herd would have much longer life spans.

65.

Scientists have inserted a gene that codes for resistance to a biodegradable weedkiller into a certain plant. Which of the following is most likely to occur when this gene is inserted?

a)

The plant will become able to produce chemicals to kill weeds around it.

b)

The plant will become able to produce chemicals to kill weeds around it.

c)

The plant will become able to convert the weedkiller into fertilizer.

d)

The plant is more likely to survive when exposed to the weedkiller.

66.

An estimated 73,000 cases of infection from E. coli bacteria in food are reported in the United States each year. Heat treatment has been the preferred way to kill the bacteria, which are often found in beef products. Recently, irradiation using electron beam technology has been used to treat ground beef. The irradiation process disrupts the genetic structure of the bacteria, either killing them or leaving them unable to reproduce.

What is one potential danger of irradiating food?

a)

The dead bacteria might remain in the food and cause illnesses.

b)

The nutrients in the foods might also be destroyed by the irradiation.

c)

The bacteria might grow stronger and become more toxic to humans.

d)

The food might heat up to unsafe levels during the irradiation process.

67.

Animal pharming is becoming more popular as the demand for human proteins and vaccines continues to grow. Animal pharming is the process of using transgenic animals to produce human drugs such as insulin and human growth hormone. Transgenic animals are animals which have been genetically transformed by splicing and inserting foreign genes into their chromosomes. If successful, the inserted gene can enable an animal to make certain proteins in its milk, blood, sperm, or eggs. Which of the following is NOT true about transgenic animals?

a)

Transgene DNA may insert itself into the genome in a way that disrupts the animal’s normal gene function.

b)

Transgenic animals cannot pass their ability to produce the desired drug to its offspring.

c)

Transgenic animals can produce the desired drug at high levels without endangering its own health.

d)

Transgenic animals can be easily tested for the new gene.

68.

GMO crops are regularly met with opposition, Golden Rice is grown and distributed in regions where rice consumption is high and variety in diet is low. Which of the following explains a benefit of using Golden rice in these areas?

a)

Golden Rice is bio-engineered and is yellow as a result.

b)

Golden Rice allows regions with a low variety of food to receive necessary nutrients.

c)

Beta-carotene is a lab-created nutrient that has unknown effects.

d)

Producing Golden Rice will result less variety of food grown.

69.

Which plant is the mystery Plant X?

a)

Plant 1

b)

Plant 2

c)

Plant 3

d)

None of them are

70.

In PCR denaturation of DNA is take place in ________ 0C temperature

a)

72 0C

b)

940C

c)

40 to 550C

d)

1200C

71.

The enzyme DNA polymerase used in PCR reaction is isolated from which one of the

following bacteria

a)

Thermus aquaticus

b)

Plasmodium vivax

c)

Both

d)

a) None

72.

Active immunity is when

a)

You produce your own antibodies to a disease

b)

You are given antibodies to a disease

c)

You are immune to any type of disease

d)

Macrophages invade your lymphatic system and shield you from ever falling sick

73.

This type of vaccine uses a live virus that has been weakened or altered in some way.

a)

Toxoid vaccine

b)

mRNA vaccine

c)

Attenuated vaccine

d)

Inactivated vaccine

74.

The first vaccine that was developed was for

a)

chickenpox

b)

polio

c)

rubella

d)

smallpox

75.

mRNA vaccines work by

a)

introducing inactivated virus into the body to start an immune response.

b)

having your own cells make a protein from the virus so your immune cells will recognize the virus.

c)

changing the DNA of your cells to protect you from infection from the virus.

d)

using a carrier virus to start an immune response.

76.

The vaccine used to prevent coronavirus infections is a ___________ vaccine that makes __________________ from the virus.

a)

mRNA, DNA

b)

mRNA, spike protein

c)

attenuated, proteins

d)

toxoid, toxins

77.

What are some advantages of the mRNA vaccine? Check ALL that apply.

a)

mRNA degrades quickly

b)

The vaccine does not make you sick.

c)

mRNA enters the host cell's nucleus.

d)

mRNA vaccines can be made quickly.

78.

What is a possible outcome if the spike protein on the coronavirus mutated?

a)

The vaccine may no longer be effective.

b)

The vaccine may have reduced effectiveness.

c)

Both A and B.

79.

Vaccines that introduce a small piece of the virus to the host are known as

a)

toxoid vaccines

b)

subunit vaccines

c)

inactivated vaccines

d)

mRNA vaccines

80.

A new vaccine was developed and then tested on a large sample of individuals. This new vaccine will be considered effective if it helps prepare the body to fight future invasion by

a)

inhibiting the response of red blood cells

b)

stimulating the reproduction of microbes

c)

inhibiting the action of immune cells

d)

stimulating the production of antibodies

81.
Substances that cause the body to produce antibodies.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigens
82.
A vaccines main goal is to:
a)
make people sick
b)
prevent disease
c)
start an epidemic
d)
start a pandemic
83.

Dr. Edward Jenner developed the first vaccine in 1796 for this disease:

a)

cowpox

b)

chickenpox

c)

smallpox

d)

the flu

84.

The new RNA vaccine for Covid-19 is made from:

a)

the entire virus

b)

the entire genome (RNA genetic material) of the virus

c)

only a small part of the virus

d)

only a small part of the genome (RNA genetic material) of the virus

85.

Why must the Pfizer and Moderna vaccines be kept at very cold temperatures?

a)

because the RNA is unstable unless kept cold

b)

because the virus doesn't like hot temperatures

c)

because the vaccines can melt