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Micro

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 4hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Among the soil microorganisms, ___________ are most dominant group of

microorganisms.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Algae

2.

Many of the soil bacteria perform useful functions like_____________ .

a)

Decomposition of organic matter

b)

Production of antibiotics

c)

Biogeochemical cycling of elements

d)

All of the above

3.

_______are reproducing by budding, multicellular form (hyphae, mycelium) and no photosynthetic members.

a)

Protozoa

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Algae

4.

Photoautotrophs obtain their energy from__________,while obtaining their carbon source from ____________

a)

Light — Organic compounds

b)

Inorganic compounds-Carbon dioxide

c)

Light — Carbon dioxide

d)

Organic compounds — Organic compounds

5.

Photoheterotrophs obtain their energy from .......... ,while obtaining their carbon source from ___________ .

a)

Light — Organic compounds

b)

Light — Carbon dioxide

c)

Inorganic compounds — Carbon dioxide

d)

Organic compounds — Organic compounds

6.

Chemolithoautotrophs obtain their energy from ___________,while obtaining their carbon source from ____________.

a)

Light — Organic compounds

b)

Light — Carbon dioxide

c)

Inorganic compounds — Carbon dioxide

d)

Organic compounds — Organic compounds

7.

Chemolithoheterotrophs obtain their energy from __________ ,while obtaining their carbon source from ___________ .

a)

Light — Organic compounds

b)

Light — Carbon dioxide

c)

Inorganic compounds — Carbon dioxide

d)

Organic compounds — Organic compounds

8.

Mineral particles constitute about ___________ of soil components.

a)

25%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

10%

9.

Air constitutes about ___________ of soil components.

a)

25%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

10%

10.

Organic matter contains about ___________ of humus.

a)

25%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

80%

11.

Which of the following are the most important agents for carbon dioxide fixation?

a)

Protozoa

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Algae

12.

Soil microorganisms are most active at ___________ .

a)

15-20°C

b)

20-25°C

c)

34-36°C

d)

40-45°C

13.

The population of algae in soil is ____________ that of either bacteria or fungi).

a)

Generally smaller than

b)

Generally greater than

c)

Equal to

d)

None of the above

14.

The microbial ecosystem of soil includes ____________ .

a)

Biotic components of soil

b)

Abiotic components of soil

c)

Biotic and abiotic components of soil

d)

None of the above

15.

The ____________ is the most favorable pH for many types of microorganisms.

a)

Highly acidic

b)

Highly alkaline

c)

Neutral

d)

Acidic

16.

Soil-borne fungi are ____________ to high pH.

a)

A)Sensitive

b)

B) Resistant

c)

C)Susceptible

d)

A and C

17.

_____________ is an obligatory relationship between two populations that benefits both the populations.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Proto cooperation

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

18.

An organism which requires small amounts of oxygen for survival is considered ____________ microorganism.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Microaerophilic

d)

Anaerobic

19.

Clostridium spp. is considered a/an ______________ microorganism.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Microaerophilic

d)

Anaerobic

20.

Bacillus spp. is considered a/an _______________ microorganism.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Microaerophilic

d)

Anaerobic

21.

Escherichia coli is considered a/an ______________microorganism.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Microaerophilic

d)

Anaerobic

22.

Lactobacillus spp. is considered a/an _______________ microorganism.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Facultative anaerobic

c)

Microaerophilic

d)

Anaerobic

23.

_______is an association of mutual benefit between two populations, but not obligatory and only complementary.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Protocooperation

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

24.

_____ is a relationship between two microbial populations,

one population is benefited, and other population remains unaffected.

a)

Symbiosis

b)

Protocooperation

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

25.

_______is the phenomenon where one microbial species is affected by the other species, whereas other species is unaffected by first one.

a)

Amensalism

b)

Competition

c)

Parasitism

d)

Proto cooperation

26.

___ is a relationship between two organisms in which one organism lives in or on another organism.

a)

Amensalism

b)

Competition

c)

Parasitism

d)

Proto cooperation

27.

Organisms can grow using light as a source of energy and carbon dioxide as a source of carbon called ___________.

a)

Phototrophs

b)

Lithotrophs

c)

Heterotrophs

d)

None of the above

28.

.Starch molecule composed of _____ and ______.

a)

a) Amylose

b)

b) Amylopectin

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) Cellobiose

29.

Cellobiose is converted into glucose by the action of enzyme called ____________.

a)

alpha-amylase

b)

Cellobiase

c)

beta-amylase

d)

Cellulase

30.

Rhizobium has symbiotic association with__________.

a)

Legumes

b)

non-legume crops

c)

Cereal crops

d)

Sugarcane

31.

Which of the following is a living organism that is part of the biological N2 fixation process?

a)

Nitrosomonas sp.

b)

Rhizobium sp.

c)

Leptospirillum sp

d)

Halococcus sp.

32.

The conversion of nitrogen to ammonia or nitrogenous compounds is called________

a)

Nitrogen assimilation

b)

Nitrogen fixation

c)

Nitrification

d)

Denitrification

33.

Plant absorbs N2 in the form of __________.

a)

Nitrites

b)

Nitrate and ammonium

c)

Ammonium

d)

All of the above

34.

Plants cannot absorb molecular N2 in the atmosphere because _________________

a)

N2 has double bonds making it

b)

Abundance in the atmosphere highly stable inhibits absorption

c)

N2 has triple bonds making it highly stable

d)

None of these

35.

All the following are free living N2 fixers except _________.

a)

Rhizobium

b)

Azotobacter

c)

Rhodospirillum

d)

Clostridium

36.

Splitting of dinitrogen molecule into free nitrogen atom in biological N2 fixation is carried out by __________.

a)

Hydrogenase

b)

Nitrogenase

c)

Dinitrogenase

d)

Nitrate reductase

37.

Industrial fixation is accomplished by ________.

a)

Helmonts process

b)

Haber-Bosch process

c)

Friedel-Crafts reaction

d)

Reimer Tiemann reaction

38.

The process of conversion of soil NO3 – to N2 is called _______.

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Ammonification

d)

Nitrogen fixation

39.

Conversion of NO2- to NO3 – is carried out by ___________.

a)

Nitrosomonas sp.

b)

Nitrososcoccus sp.

c)

Nitrobacter sp .

d)

Clostridium sp.

40.

The root nodules of legumes contain a pink pigment which has high affinity

for oxygen is _________.

a)

Nod haemoglobin

b)

Leghaemoglobin

c)

Haemoglobin

d)

Bacterial haemoglobin

41.

To fix one molecule of nitrogen __________ ATP molecules are required.

a)

6

b)

12

c)

16

d)

20

42.

.The nonsymbiotic bacteria which fix nitrogen live in the soil independently are _____________.

a)

Azotobacter sp.

b)

Clostridium sp.

c)

Considerably less important in comparison to the symbiotic bacteria

d)

All of the above

43.

Which of the following is not the biofertilizers' producing bacteria?

a)

a) Nostoc sp.

b)

b) Anabaena sp.

c)

c) Both (a) and (b)

d)

d) Clostridium sp.

44.

Which of the following is capable of oxidizing sulfur to sulfates?

a)

Thiobacillus thiooxidans

b)

Desulfotomaculum sp.

c)

Rhodospirillum sp.

d)

Rhodomicrobium sp.

45.

Bacteria, as a group, are responsible for_____________

a)

nitrogen oxidation

b)

Sulfur oxidation

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

All of these

46.

The phenomenon of commensalism refers to a relationship between organisms in which______________.

a)

One species of a pair benefits

b)

Both the species of a pair benefit

c)

One species of a pair is more benfits

d)

None of the above

47.

The transformation of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen is accomplished by microorganisms in a series of biochemical reactions. The process is known as_____________.

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Nitrogen fixation

d)

Ammonification

48.

Nitrogen fixation refers to the direct conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas into ______________.

a)

Ammonia

b)

Amino acids

c)

ATP

d)

Nitrate

49.

Nitrification refers to the_______________

a)

Conversion of ammonium ions into nitrates through the activities of certain bacteria.

b)

Changing of atmospheric nitrogen

c)

Sulfur is oxidized to the sulfate form through Thiobacillus bacteria

d)

None of the above

50.

An example of a symbiotic nitrogen fixer is___________.

a)

Azotobacter sp.

b)

Beijerinckia sp.

c)

Clostridium sp.

d)

Rhizobium sp.

51.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Mycorrhizae are fungi that form a mutually beneficial (symbiotic) relationship with plant roots

b)

The fungi aid in transmitting nutrients and water to the plant roots

c)

The increased nutrient availability from mycorrhizae is thought to be due to the additional absorbing surface provided by the fungi

d)

All of the above

52.

Which is the main source of biofertilizers?

a)

Cyanobacteria

b)

Bacillus sp.

c)

Streptococcus sp.

d)

None of these

53.

Which of the following soil microorganism is involved in the reduction of sulfates to H2S?

a)

Thiobacillus thiooxidans

b)

Desulfotomaculum sp.

c)

Rhodospirillum sp.

d)

Rhodomicrobium sp.

54.

Which of the following fungi on infecting crop roots can improve their

uptake of phosphorus and other nutrients?

a)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

b)

VA Mycorrhiza

c)

Candida torulopsis

d)

Aspergillus niger

55.

Mycorrhizae consist of a mutually beneficial association of ___________ and

_____________ .

a)

Fungi, plant roots

b)

Cyanobacteria, fungi

c)

Lichens, algae

d)

Roots, archaea

56.

Aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer

a)

Salvinia

b)

Pteridium

c)

Azolla

d)

Marsilea

57.

Azolla is used as biofertilizer because it _______

a)

Multiplies very fast to produce massive biomass

b)

Has association of nitrogen fixing cyanobacter

c)

Has association of nitrogen fixing Rhizobium

d)

Has association of mycorrhiza

58.

If wheat field is inoculated with Rhizobium,_____________.

a)

Soil will become nitrogen rich

b)

Soil will become rich in calcium

c)

No nodules are formed

d)

Soil will be depleted of nitrogen

59.

Leghaemoglobin is found in _________

a)

Root nodules of legumes

b)

Mycorrhiza

c)

Cereals crops roots

d)

Cyanobacteria

60.

Leghaemoglobin takes part in _______

a)

Energy release

b)

Stimulating growth of Rhizobium

c)

Protecting nitrogenase

d)

N2 absorption

61.

The coliform group of bacteria includes all the _____________ bacilli.

a)

Facultatively aerobic

b)

anaerobic

c)

aerobic, non-sporulating

d)

Facultatively anaerobic, gram-

negative, non-sporulating

62.

Which of the following acts as a carbon source for Enterobacter aerogenes?

a)

Peptone

b)

Sodium citrate

c)

Yeast extract

d)

Treptone

63.

Hepatitis is caused by__________.

a)

virus

b)

amoeba

c)

bacteria

d)

parasite

64.

Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

a)

Dysentery

b)

Cholera

c)

Malaria

d)

Typhoid

65.

Which one among the following water-borne diseases is not caused by bacteria?

a)

Dysentery

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Cholera

d)

Typhoid

66.

What is the causative agent of Dysentery?

a)

Shigella sp.

b)

Giardia sp.

c)

E. coli

d)

Bacillus sp.

67.

Rice-water stools" is an expression associated with ____________.

a)

Enteric fever

b)

Cholera

c)

Bacilliary dysentery

d)

Hepatitis A

68.

Which of the following is true for Vibrio cholerae?

a)

a) Its infectious dose is very high

b)

b) Its incubation period is between

one and four weeks

c)

c) It is only in association with humans

d)

d) Both a and c are correct

69.

In cholera victims the water loss can be amounted to be between __________ liters per day.

a)

10 and 15

b)

5 and 10

c)

20 and 25

d)

3 and 5

70.

Which of the following caused because of choleragen?

a)

Disturbance of the electrolyte balance of the body

b)

Circulatory collapse and death

c)

The mortality rate of up to 50%

d)

All of the above

71.

For Vibrio cholerae a dose of _________ bacteria are required to initiate an infection.

a)

106

b)

104

c)

1010

d)

1015

72.

Which of the following is among the main symptoms of cholera?

a)

Fever

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Vomiting

d)

All of the above

73.

Which of the following antibiotics is remarkable in case of cholera infection?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Penicillin

c)

Chloramphenicol

d)

All of the above

74.

The mortality rate of choleragen is ____________.

a)

up to 70%

b)

80%

c)

up to 50%

d)

None of the above

75.

Which of the following is the causative agent for enteric fever?

a)

a) Salmonella typhi

b)

b) Salmonella paratyphi

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) Shigella sonnei

76.

Which of the following is true regarding typhoid fever?

a)

a) Its infectious dose about 105 - 106

b)

b) Its incubation period is two weeks.

c)

c) Its symptoms are caused by enterotoxin.

d)

d) a and b

77.

Bacilliary dysentery is caused by bacteria from the genus ___________.

a)

a)Salmonella

b)

b) Shigella

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) None of the above

78.

Which of the following is the causative agent for Bacilliary?

a)

a)Shigella sp.

b)

b) Salmonella sp.

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) None of the above

79.

Intestines of humans and other mammals are the natural habitats of enteric organisms, a large family of bacteria is present as a normal flora, which of the following is less likely to be found as the normal flora of the intestine?

a)

Escherichia sp.

b)

Salmonella sp.

c)

Staphylococcus sp.

d)

Shigella sp.

80.

Some enteric bacteria are a part of normal inhabitants and incidentally

cause disease but others such as____________is an important pathogen and the common cause of foodborne and waterborne illnesses all around the world.

a)

Pseudomonas sp.

b)

Streptococcus sp.

c)

Salmonella sp.

d)

Proteus sp.

81.

Shigellosis is caused by Shigella dysenteriae in humans causing fever,

abdominal cramps, diarrhea sometimes with blood. The infection is attributed to the ____________ activity of Shiga toxin which increases the severity by tissue invasion in the large intestine.

a)

Exotoxic

b)

Enterotoxic

c)

Cytotoxic

d)

Neurotoxic

82.

Salmonella typhi cause the infection known as "Typhoid". Which of the following is most likely the area where the pathogenesis occurs?

a)

Mononuclear phagocytic cells in the liver

b)

Isolated follicles and Peyer’s patches of a large intestine

c)

Liver, spleen, lymph nodes, and large intestine

d)

None of the above

83.

Salmonella typhi and S. paratyphi are the two major pathogens that cause enteric fever, which of the following are Not the possible specimen taken for the routine diagnosis of the disease?

a)

Blood

b)

Sputum

c)

Feces

d)

Urine

84.

Which of the following is true regarding Hepatitis A virus?

a)

a) An RNA virus.

b)

b) It causes liver inflammation

c)

c) A DNA virus.

d)

d) a and b

85.

Which of the following is true regarding Poliovirus?

a)

One of the RNA viruses.

b)

It causes poliomyelitis.

c)

It is an enterovirus.

d)

All of the above

86.

Which of the following is true regarding Poliovirus?

a)

It is found in the nasal and throat discharges.

b)

b) RNA virus.

c)

Transmitted by the respiratory

d)

All of the above

87.

Which of the following is the causative agent of amoebic dysentery?

a)

Shigella dysenteriae

b)

Salmonella sp.

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

None of the above

88.

________ is characterized by diarrhea, abdominal cramps, weight loss and anemia.

a)

Giardia lamblia

b)

Salmonella sp.

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

89.

Which of the following is a disease caused by bacterial infections?

a)

Amoebic dysentery

b)

Infectious hepatitis

c)

Typhoid fever

d)

Poliomyelitis

90.

The removal of colloidal materials such as clay, which is so small (smaller than 10 μm) that it would otherwise remain in suspension indefinitely is called ______________.

a)

Filtration

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Flocculation

91.

________ was used to clear muddy river water during the first half of the nineteenth century in the military forts of the AmericanWest, long before the germ theory of disease was developed.

a)

Calcium

b)

Alum

c)

Iron

d)

Copper

92.

The process of passing wastewater through beds of 2 to 4 feet of fine sand or crushed anthracite coal is called ____________.

a)

Filtration

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Coagulation

d)

Disinfection

93.

______ are used as a final filtration for water supplies that carry a high concentration of organic chemicals.

a)

a) Activated carbon

b)

b) Activated iron

c)

c) Activated charcoal beds

d)

d) a and c

94.

Which of the following is true regarding ozone used as a disinfectant in water treatment?

a)

a) It forms a residue in the treated water

b)

b) It leaves no taste or odor.

c)

c) a and b are true

d)

d) None of the above

95.

The treatment of drinking water depends on which of the following?

a)

Water source

b)

Types of chemical pollutants

c)

Types of biological pollutants

d)

All of the above

96.

Waters that are relatively clear may require_______________.

a)

a) Filtration before chemical treatment

b)

c) a and b

c)

b) Coagulation and flocculation before filtration

d)

d) None of the above

97.

Waters with high organic content require _______________ .

a)

a) Filtration before chemical treatment

b)

c) a and b

c)

b) Coagulation and flocculation before filtration

d)

d) None of the above

98.

Coagulants used in the water supply industry include______________.

a)

Aluminum sulphate

b)

Sodium aluminate

c)

Ferric sulphate

d)

All of the above

99.

Which of the following bacterial gastrointestinal diseases are transmitted through water?

a)

Cholera

b)

Salmonellosis

c)

Shigellosis

d)

All of the above

100.

Coliforms are used as indicator organisms because ______________.

a)

a) a testing procedure with great specificity is easy to perform

b)

c) None of the above

c)

b) they are present whenever enteric pathogens are present

d)

d) a and b

101.

Which of the following is true regarding coliforms?

a)

a) Oxidase-positive

b)

b) Spore forming

c)

c) Ferment lactose

d)

d) a and c

102.

Bile salts when added to a medium, they allow the growth of _________________ .

a)

streptococci

b)

gram negative

c)

Enterobacteriaceae

d)

All of the above

103.

Which of the following is true for fecal streptococci?

a)

Gram-negative

b)

catalase-negative

c)

spore forming

d)

All of the above

104.

A presumptive clostridial count is performed initially and subsequently, the presence of Clostridium perfringens is confirmed by the production of ___________in litmus milk cultures.

a)

an acid

b)

a gas

c)

a stormy clot

d)

All of the above

105.

Which of the following is true regarding Clostridium perfringens?

a)

a) Gram-positive and non-motile.

b)

b) an aerobic and sulfite-reducing

rods.

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) None of the above

106.

In the primary treatment about __________of suspended solids are removed from sewage by settling treatment.

a)

10 - 30%

b)

40 - 60%

c)

60 - 80%

d)

None of the above

107.

In the ______________, large floating materials in incoming wastewater are screened out, the sewage is allowed to flow through settling chambers to remove sand and similar gritty material, skimmers remove floating oil and grease, and floating debris is shredded and ground.

a)

secondary sewage treatment

b)

tertiary sewage treatment

c)

primary sewage treatment

d)

disinfection stage

108.

In the _____________, the sewage undergoes strong aeration to encourage the growth of aerobic bacteria that oxidize the dissolved organic matter to carbon dioxide and water.

a)

secondary sewage treatment

b)

tertiary sewage treatment

c)

primary sewage treatment

d)

disinfection stage

109.

The commonly used method/s of secondary treatment is/are activated sludge systems and.

a)

a) disinfection

b)

b) activated sludge systems

c)

c) trickling filters

d)

d) b and c

110.

___________ is determined by the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to metabolize the organic matter.

a)

a) COD

b)

b) BOD

c)

c) a and b

d)

d) None of the above

111.

In trickling filter, B.O.D. is reduced to____________.

a)

30 to 40%

b)

40 to 60%

c)

80 to 85%

d)

90 to 95%

112.

In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced, is___________.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon dioxide

113.

Activated sludge process is an _____________ .

a)

aerobic attached growth system

b)

anaerobic attached growth system

c)

aerobic suspended system d)

d)

anaerobic suspended growth system

114.

days-biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is taken at a temperature of ________________ .

a)

0°C

b)

15°C

c)

20°C

d)

25°C

115.

In which of the following wastewater treatment units is organic matter destroyed and stabilized by anaerobic bacteria?

a)

Trickling filters

b)

Oxidation Ponds

c)

Sedimentation tank

d)

Septic Tanks

116.

The two main gases that evolve an anaerobic sludge digestion tank include ______________ .

a)

Ammonia & CO2

b)

Methane & H2S

c)

CO2 & methane

d)

Ammonia & methane

117.

The two main gases that evolve an anaerobic sludge digestion tank include ______________ .

a)

Ammonia & CO2

b)

Methane & H2S

c)

CO2 & methane

d)

Ammonia & methane

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