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UNIT 5 AP BIOLOGY TEST REVIEW

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 3585secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

How are the products of meiosis different from mitosis?

a)

Mitosis makes 4 identical diploid daughter cells

b)

Mitosis makes 2 genetically unique haploid daughter cells

c)

Meiosis makes 4 genetically unique haploid daughter cells

d)

Meiosis makes 2 genetically identical diploid daughter cells

2.

If a somatic cell of an organism contains 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would that organism's gametes have?

a)

64

b)

128

c)

32

d)

16

3.

How are the chromosomes in a gamete different from the chromosomes in a somatic cell?

a)

Gametes contain a full set of chromosomes, somatic cells contain chromatids

b)

Gametes have twice as many chromosomes as somatic cells

c)

Somatic cells and gametes contain the same amount of chromosomes

d)

Gametes contain one copy of each chromosome, while somatic cells contain two copies

4.

What occurs during meiosis that allows for each gamete having a random set of chromosome?

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

5.

Which process during prophase I is responsible for creating new combinations of genes on chromosomes?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Segregation

6.

Which process during prophase I ensures that each gamete only receives 1 copy of each chromosome?

a)

Independent assortment

b)

Segregation

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Crossing over

7.

Why are the processes of independent assortment, segregation, and crossing over important for a species fitness and survival?

a)

They produce stronger gametes

b)

They prevent mutations from being passed down.

c)

They increase genetic variation in a population

d)

They help speed up natural selection

8.

What can scientists determine by using the recombination frequency of two genes?

a)

The traits the genes code for

b)

Whether or not the genes are linked and their relative position on the chromosome

c)

How many chromosomes will be present in the gamete

d)

Whether or not the gene is recessive or dominant

9.

How does independent assortment contribute to genetic variation?

a)

It regulates how many paternal and maternal chromosomes a gamete receives.

b)

It randomizes the number of maternal and paternal chromosomes a gamete receives

c)

It ensures that only 1 copy of each chromosome is distributed to a gamete.

d)

It produces new combinations of genes on a chromosome

10.

Why did Mendel see no recessive traits in his first generation of pea plants when the parent generation had recessive phenotypes?

a)

All of the F1 offspring had the heterozygous genotype

b)

The parents only passed on dominant alleles to the offspring/

c)

All of the F1 offspring were homozygous dominant

d)

The recessive genes were removed by segregation

11.

What type of inheritance does the pedigree to the right show?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Sex-linked recessive

c)

Autosomal dominant

d)

Sex-linked dominant

12.

If two individuals are unaffected by a recessive disorder, yet they had a child with the disorder, what must be true of the parents?

a)

The parents gametes contained a mutation

b)

The parents are both heterozygous

c)

One parent was a carrier for the disorder

d)

One parent had to be homozygous

13.

When will you reject the null hypothesis in a Chi-square test?

a)

When you found no correlation between the variables

b)

When the test statistic is greater than the value on the Chi-square table

c)

When the test statistic is less than the value on the Chi-square table

d)

When the observed values are very close to the expected values

14.

How can you determine if genes are linked when not looking at the phenotypes of parents and their offspring?

a)

The genes will be inherited separately majority of the time.

b)

The genes will be inherited together greater than 50% of the time.

c)

This cannot be determined by observation

15.

Why are fathers not able to pass on X-linked recessive traits to their sons?

a)

This is untrue, males can pass on x-linked traits to their sons

b)

Males will only pass on dominant X-linked traits

c)

Males cannot carry recessive x-linked traits

d)

Males do not pass on X chromosomes to their sons

16.

Map the following genes: A – B = 20% A - C = 10% B – C = 10% A – D = 15%, D – C = 5%

a)

BADC

b)

CADB

c)

ACBD

d)

ACDB

17.

What environmental conditions can affect the expression of genes?

a)

Light intensity

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

All of the above

18.

If a nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II, how many gametes are affected

a)

All 4

b)

Just 1

c)

2 of the 4

d)

None of them

19.

What is a trisomy?

a)

A chromosomal mutation were a section of DNA was copied multiple times

b)

A condition where an individual is missing a chromosome

c)

A mutation where a section of a chromosome has removed

d)

A mutation resulting from nondisjunction where an individual has an extra copy of a chromosome

20.

Does meiosis occur in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Yes it is necessary for their survival

b)

No, prokaryotic cells do not form gametes

21.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

22.

Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event.

a)

Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express

b)

Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles

c)

Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer

d)

Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun

23.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

24.

When does the process of independent assortment take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

25.

What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?

a)

telophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

anaphase II

26.

The diagram above illustrates which of the following processes?

a)

Crossing-over

b)

Base pair subsitution

c)

Duplication

d)

Deletion

27.

Imagine you are performing a cross involving garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds with yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.

a)

100 percent yellow-green seeds

b)

100 percent yellow seeds

c)

50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds

d)

25 percent green, 75 percent yellow

28.

If blue and red true-breeding flowers are mated and result is all purple offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Dominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Multiple Alleles

29.

Can a human male be a carrier of red-green color blindness?

a)

Yes, males can be carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal dominant

b)

No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is X-linked

c)

No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is Y-linked

d)

Yes, males can be carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal recessive

30.

P Generation -> _________ -> F2; Fill in the blank

a)

P2

b)

F1

c)

O1

31.

What is an example of a codominant trait in the human body?

a)

Hair color

b)

Skin Color

c)

Blood Type

d)

Color Blindess

32.

Maternal and paternal sister chromatids join together through the process of synapsis to form what structure?

a)

Homologous pairs

b)

Quadruplets

c)

Tetrads

d)

Super DNA

33.

In Snowmen, three buttons (B) is dominant to two buttons (b), and a carrot nose (N) is dominant to a coal nose (n). What would be the genotype of a snowman that was homozygous recessive for button number and heterozygous for nose type?

a)

BBNn

b)

bbNN

c)

bbNn

d)

BbNn

34.

Who is the Father of Genetics?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Einstein

c)

Newton

d)

Gregor Mendel

35.

In snapdragons come in three colors yellow (YY), blue (BB), and green (YB). What would be the chances of having green flowers if you crossed a blue snapdragon with a green snapdragon?

a)

25 %

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

36.
A recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are ________ for that trait.
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous or heterozygous
c)
homozygous
d)
diploid
37.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
38.
The observable outward manifestation of the genes of an individual is referred to as its
a)
blueprint
b)
genotype
c)
phenotype
d)
genetic map
39.
Unlike Mendel's experiments, when a very tall person and a very short person mate, the children are variable in height. Why is one trait (tall or short) not dominant over the other?
a)
the gene for height in humans has incomplete dominance
b)
the gene for height has multiple co-dominant alleles
c)
height in not controlled by genes in humans
d)
human height is controlled by multiple genes
40.
In humans, if a non-disjunction event leads to an individual that is XXY, they would
a)
be female because they have 2 X chromosomes
b)
be male because they have a Y chromosome
c)
not survive
d)
have both male and female characteristics
41.
Chromosomes that do NOT play a role in determining the sex of an individual are called
a)
sex chromosoems
b)
X and Y
c)
autosomes
d)
A and B are correct
42.

If a particular pedigree follows a sex-linked recessive trait, you would expect to see

a)

more affected females

b)

all carrier males

c)

more affected males

d)

an equal number of affected males and females

43.
Which genetic abnormality does this baby have?
a)
Partial Deletion
b)
Partial Addition
c)
Trisomy
d)
Monosomy
44.
A person with Turner syndrome has only one X chromosome. This means one of their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Nondisjunction
c)
Inversion mutation
d)
Substitution mutation
45.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
Cannot determine
46.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
47.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
48.
Tendency for alleles of genes on the same chromosome to be inherited together
a)
genetic linkage
b)
genetics
c)
Punnett square
d)
gene locus
49.
What is the genotype of the great-grandfather? (Individual 2)
a)
A_
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA
50.
Which genes would show the highest frequency of crossing over?
a)
A-B
b)
A-D
c)
D-C
d)
B-C
51.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
52.
The recombination frequency between gene F and gene G is 10.4%, the recombination frequency between gene F and gene H  is 8.0%, and the recombination frequency between gene G and gene H is 18.4%. Which is the correct arrangement of these genes?  
a)
FGH
b)
FHG
c)
GHF
d)
HFG 
53.

In tomatoes, tall is dominant to dwarf, and smooth fruits are dominant to hairy fruits. A plant homozygous for both dominant traits is crossed with a plant homozygous for both recessive traits. The F1 progeny are crossed with the following results: 93 tall with smooth fruits; 87 dwarf with hairy fruits; 11 tall with hairy fruits; and 9 dwarf with smooth fruits. These data indicate that the genes are

a)

on different chromosomes.

b)

linked and show 5 percent recombination.

c)

linked and show 10 percent recombination.

d)

linked and show 20 percent recombination.

54.

Locus A and locus B recombine with 10 percent frequency. Locus A and locus C recombine with 23 percent frequency. Locus B and locus D recombine with 4 percent frequency. Locus D and locus E do not recombine. Based on this information, which pairs of loci are most likely to be closest together?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

B and D

d)

D and E

55.
Red x white = pink
a)
codominance
b)
multiple alleles
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
epistasis
56.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t).  The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants.  What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
57.
Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
epistasis
c)
multiple alleles
d)
pleiotropy
58.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

59.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

60.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

61.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

62.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation

63.

Condition caused by nondisjunction at pair 21 during meiosis.

Individuals have an extra chromosome

at pair 21, or a total of 47 chromosomes.

Also called Trisomy 21.

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Translocation

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Down Syndrome

64.
Which significance level  
(column) do you look at when finding the critical value?
a)
.50
b)
.10
c)
.05
d)
.01
65.
How do you find degrees of freedom?
a)
one less than the possible genotypes
b)
one less than the possible phenotypes
c)
total number divided 2
d)
total number times 2
66.
Observed in the wild are 10 circles, 20 squares and 30 triangles. The ratio for this particular population is 2:3:5 
observed: 10 circles     expected: 12
observed 20 squares    expected : 18
observed 30 triangles   expected: 30
What is the degrees of freedom?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
67.
The visual representation of an individual's chromosomes is a 
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
karyotype
d)
stereotype
68.

In the formula for Chi Squared, the E stands for

a)

the sum

b)

the observed frequency

c)

The expected frequency

d)

the p value

69.

In the formula for Chi Squared, the O stands for

a)

the sum

b)

the observed frequency

c)

The expected frequency

d)

the p value

70.

Mrs. Hock asks her class what their favorite ice cream flavor is. She wonders if the flavors are equally represented. The table shows the observed values. What should be the expected counts of each flavor if they are equally represented?

a)

40

b)

20

c)

4

d)

3

71.

If the χ2 critical value = 5.99 and the

χ2 calculated value = 7.35, what is the conclusion

a)

Reject null hypothesis

b)

Accept null hypothesis

c)

there is not enough info to decide

d)

The conclusion can only be made if we also know the p-value

72.

Chi-squared is a form of statical analysis used to compare observed data to the __________ results of an experiment.

a)

hypothetical

b)

expected

c)

theoretical

d)

unknown

73.

A hypothesis that states there is no relationship between 2 variables.

a)

alternative

b)

discreet

c)

null

d)

synthetic

74.

Hypothesis in which there is some statistical significance between two measured phenomenon.

a)

null

b)

scientific

c)

statistical

d)

alternative

75.
Which of the following statements best describes what a Barr body is and its significance?
a)
it is an inactivated Y chromosome and results in a man being sterile
b)
It is an inactivated Y chromosome, and the person who has it appears female
c)
It is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females with half their cells have one X inactivated and in the other half of their cells have the other X inactivated
d)
it is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females who are sterile
76.

What is the mode of inheritance shown here?

a)

Autosomal Recessive

b)

Autosomal Dominant

c)

Sex Linked Recessive

d)

Mitochondrial

e)

paternal imprinting

77.
If results of recombination do NOT follow Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment, genes are likely to be - - - 
a)
shuffled during meiosis
b)
linked
c)
inherited
d)
on separate chromosomes
78.
The reason some linked genes may get separated during gamete formation is - - - 
a)
genes aren't on the same chromosome
b)
genes don't compliment each other well
c)
a crossing over event shuffles the genes
d)
an environmental impact forces the genes to shuffle
79.

genes that are physically located on the same chromosomes close together

a)

linked genes

b)

multiple alleles

c)

codominance

d)

polygenic inheritance

e)

incomplete dominance