WorksheetsISBB ENHANCEMENT EXAM
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins
The J-chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulin?
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
Bruton Agammaglobulinemia
IgG deficiency
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
Selective IgA deficiency
The ratio of lambda to kappa light chain producing cells in normal individiuals is:
1:2
2:1
1:1
3:1
Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins can serve as a screening test for multiple allergies?
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgM
Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
Jka
E
Fya
k
Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
Reacts best at 37C
Is usually IgG
Often associated with HDFN
Reacts best at room temperature or 4C
Macleod Phenotype is associated with
Kidd blood group
None
A and C only
Kell-Cellano blood group
The assembly of the complement “membrane attack unit” is initiated with the binding of
C1
C3
C4
C5
Humoral immune response is due to:
macrophage activity
Lymphokines
By lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells
T cells
All of the given options
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with antibody toward which of the following?
I antigen
Kell system antigen
i antigen
Duffy antigen
P antigen
Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE
Which of the following IgG subunit cannot cross the placenta?
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4
Which of the following IgG subunit is unable to activate complement?
IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4
A heterologous antigen reacts with
an antibody whose production it induced
non-specific substances
Specific substances
an antibody whose production it did not induced
The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as:
Specificity
Affinity
Reproducibility
Avidity
The random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semi-solid medium occurs in:
agglutination
immunofluorescence
Gel diffusion
Complement fixation
An IgG antibody is a good:
indicator if early infection
Agglutinating antibody
indicator of anamnestic response
None of the given options
Which organs or systems are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells?
lymph nodes and spleen
pancreas and liver
reticuloendothelial system and biliary tract
bacteria and granulocytic cells
Antigen determinant is called _____ while antibody determinant is termed _____.
Paratope, Epitope
Epitope, Paratope
Valence, Epitope
None of the given options
T cells are involved in?
Cell mediated immunity
Humoral immunity
wheal and flare reaction
antibody protection
A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as?
immunoelectrophoresis
double radial diffusion
immunofluorescence
electroimmunodiffusion
Immunelectrophoresis is used to identify?
cholesterol
lipids
hcG
BJP
Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7, C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?
Pneumococcal septiciemia
Small bowel movement
Systemic lupus erythematosus
A systemic gonococcal infection if exposed
In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies are seen?
antimitochondrial antibodies
anti-smooth muscle antibodies
anti-parietal cells antibody
anti-DNA antibodies
Which of the following are the antibodies seen in chronic active hepatitis?
antimitochondrial antibodies
anti-smooth muscle antibodies
anti-parietal cells antibody
anti-DNA antibodies
Which of the following detects allergen-specific IgE?
RAST
RIST
REST
RUST
Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments?
1
2
3
4
Following a repeated exposure to an antigen, rapid antibody production to an elevated level that persists to a long period of time is called?
arthus reaction
primary response
secondary response
hypersensitivity
All of the following are saline agglutinin except?
ABO
Rh
Lewis
MN
According to AABB standards, platelets must be:
Gently agitated if stored at ref temperature
Gently agitated if stored at room temperature
Gently agitated if stored at 37C
Does not require agitation unless intended for transfusion
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when:
The infants lack an antigen that the mother possesses
The infant lack the antigen that the father has
The mother lacks the antigen that the infant has
The mother possesses the antigen that the infant has
Which of the following antigen is most likely to be involved in HDFN?
M
Kell
P1
a. Lea
What assay would confirm the immune status of the hepatitis B virus?
HBsAg
anti-HBs
IgM anti-HBcAg
Hepatitis C Ag
Bombay phenotype occurs when which of the following gene is absent?
Le
Bombay
A
Se
H
OX-2 OX-19 and OX-K are antigens of?
Rickettsia
Proteus
Leptospira
Salmonella
The Hinge region in an immunoglobulin is located between which domains?
CH3 and VL
CH3-CH4
CH1-CH2
CH2-CH3
Most blood group system are inherited as?
sex-liked recessive
sex-linked dominant
autosomal recessive
autosomal codominant
Which of the following is a treponemal test?
FTA-ABS
VDRL
RPR
RIST
A DPT vaccination is an example:
Passive humoral-mediated immunity
Cell-mediated immunity
Active humoral-mediated immunity
Natural immunity
Serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in CSF is?
RPR
FTA-ABS
VDRL
SRP
The basic immunoglobulin structure is?
2 light chains, ½ heavy chains
1 light chain, ½ heavy chains
2 light chains, 1 heavy chain
2 light chains, 2 heavy chains
The process of removing an antibody from red cell membrane is called?
Neutralization
Adsorption
Absorption
Elution
Not included in the hepatitis profile
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBcAg
Anti-HBc
The ability of the clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen is referred to as its:
Accuracy
Precision
Sensitivity
Specificity
Saline needles for quantitative VDRL should deliver:
20 drops/mL
120 drops/mL
110 drops/mL
100 drops/mL
A positive result for complement fixation test is expressed as
agglutination
inhibition of hemolysis
neutralization
hemolysis
Bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for which antigens systems?
ABO-Rh
HLA
Lewis
CD4/CD8
ISBT number of Cartwright blood group?
012
009
006
011
ISBT number of c antigen.
004001
004002
004003
004004
004005
If the father is homozygous A and the mother is heterozygous B, what is/are the possible phenotype of their offspring?
A only
AB and A only
A, AB and B only
A and B only
All are possible
Refer to the given problem above, what are the impossible phenotype of their offspring?
O, B
A, B
AB, O
None
The principle of the Kleihauer-Betke stain is that
Adult hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than fetal hemoglobin
Adult hemoglobin is more soluble in acid buffer than fetal hemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than adult hemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to erythrosin and hematoxylin staining than adult hemoglobin
Below are Rh phenotype of 4 donor units. If a patient has anti-c in the serum, which of the units of red cells may he or she receive without expecting a reaction due to this antibody?
DCe
DCce
DCcEe
DcECe
Patient’s forward type is AB but backward typed as A. Reaction with anti-B ES4 clone is positive. Identify the most likely cause of the discrepancy?
Presence of blood-group specific soluble substances (BGSS) secondary to stomach carcinoma
Deacetylation of N-acetyl-D-galactosamine into N-galactosamine
Hypogammaglobulinemia secondary to viral infections
Chimerism
Which of the following is(are) the possible genotypes of a non-secretor Group AB individual?
AB, Hh, Sese
AO, HH, SeSe
AB, hh, sese
AB, Hh, sese
Lewis phenotype that is non-secretor:
Le (a+b-)
Le(a-b)
Le (a-b+)
Le (a+b+)
Lewis phenotype common to Asians?
Le (a+b-)
Le(a-b)
Le (a-b+)
Le (a+b+)
Kpa and Kpb are antigens of what blood group system?
Duffy
Kell
Cromer
Kidd
Storage temperature for granulocyte concentrate
37C
1-6C
20-24C
-65C
These are component of rejuvenating solution except?
Mannitol
Phosphate
Glucose
Adenine
It is characterized by acanthocytosis, well-compensated hemolytic anemia leading to reticulocytosis, bilirubinemia, splenomegaly, and reduced serum haptoglobin levels, a slow, progressive form of muscular dystrophy between ages 40 and 50 years and cardiomegaly elevated serum creatinine phosphokinase levels of the MM type (cardiac/skeletal muscle) and carbonic anhydrase III levels.
Kell null
Rh null
McLeod syndrome
Duffy null
It serves as receptor for Plasmodium vivax?
Fya
Fyb
Fy3
Fy6
Are resistant to lysis by 2M urea, a lytic agent used by some automated hematology analyzers.
Rhnull
JKnull
Kellnull
Duffynull
Biphasic hemolysin associated with Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
anti-PP1Pk
auto-anti-P
anti-P1
anti-i
Large granular lymphocytes is synonymous with:
B cell
T helper cell
T cytotoxic
Natural Killer cell
C-reactive protein is synthesized in the:
Bone marrow
Lymphatics
Reticuloendothelial system
Epithelial cells
The HLA genes are located on chromosome number:
4
9
6
19
Majority of HLA antibodies are:
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgG
Fetus can be considered as an:
Autograft
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
CEA is characteristically secreted tumors of the
Kidney
Lungs
Breast
GIT
Reverse Passive agglutination:
1. Antigen is attached to a carrier
2. Antibody is attached to carrier particle
3. Agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present
4. Agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present
1 and 3
2 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
Mutations in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in changes in red blood cell shape through the forms of elliptocytosis, acanthocytosis, and ovalocytosis?
DI
DO
CO
SC
Immunization of rubella would result in
2 weeks deferral
4 weeks deferral
8 weeks deferral
No deferral
Cardiopulmonary bypass is an essential system for open heart surgery. Which of the following prevents coagulation during CPB?
ACD
CPD
CPDA-1
Heparin
Blood can be stored in CPDA-1 at 1-6C for how many days?
21 days
42 days
35 days
7 days
Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?
21 days
42 days
35 days
7 days
All but one of these factors will influence platelet metabolism and function in a closed system?
Total platelet count
duration of storage
Temperature of storage
Fibrinogen concentration
When platelet concentrate is stored at 22C, continuous gentle agitation must be used to:
Prevent platelet agitation
Facilitate gas exchange
Prevent contamination
Promote increases platelet count
The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is:
24 hours
48 hours
7 days
8 weeks
Each unit of cryoprecipitate, prepared from WB, should contain approximately how many units AHF activity?
40
80
60
150
Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days following transfusion?
3
6
7
8
When a suspected hemolytic reaction occurs, the first thing to do
Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician
Administer medication to stop reaction
Stop the transfusion, but keep the intravenous line open with saline
Inform the laboratory to begin investigation
Begin technical checks
Hemolytic disease of the newborn characterized by:
IgM antibody
Nearly always anti-D
Different RBC antigens between mother and fetus
Antibody titer is 32
Advantages of cordocentesis include all of the following except?
Allows measurement of fetal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Allows antigen typing of fetal blood
Allows direct transfusion of fetal circulation
Decrease risk of trauma to the placenta
PCR technology can be used to
Amplify small amounts of DNA
Clone fragments of RNA
Digest genomic DNA into small fragments
Repair broken pieces of DNA
What type RBCs can be transfused to an A2 person with anti-A1?
A only
A or O
B
AB
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with:
Arachis hypogaea
Salvia sclarea
Dolichos biflorus
Ulex europeaus
Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c?
R0R1
R2r´
r´r
r´ry
What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody?
R1r
R1R1
r´r
rr
What does the genotype —/— represent in the Rh system?
Rh negative
D mosaic
Rhnull
Total Rh
Which antibody is frequently seen in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Anti-Jka
Anti-e
Anti-K
Anti-Fyb
What type(s) of red cells is (are) acceptable to transfuse to an O-negative patient?
A negative, B negative, AB negative, or O negative
O negative
AB negative
AB negative, A negative, B negative
What is the “M” component in monoclonal gammopathies?
IgM produced in excess
μHeavy chain produced in excess
Malignant proliferation of B cells
Monoclonal antibody or cell line
Serological tests for which disease may give a false positive result if the patient has Lyme disease?
AIDS
Syphilis
Cold agglutinins
Hepatitis C
Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of hepatitis B virus?
IgM anti-HBc
IgG anti-HBc
IgM anti-HBe
IgG anti-HBs
Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?
Band at p24
Band at gp60
Bands at p24 and p31
Bands at p24 and gp120
Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera?
Center well
Outer wells
Gel
Antisera may be added to any well
Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?
VH
CH
VL
CL
All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except:
Induction of an antiviral state
Opsonization
Chemotaxis
Anaphylatoxin formation
Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways?
C1
C4 C
Factor D
C3
