wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

ISBB ENHANCEMENT EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The J-chain is associated with which of the following immunoglobulin?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

2.

Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?

a)

Bruton Agammaglobulinemia

b)

IgG deficiency

c)

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

d)

Selective IgA deficiency

3.

The ratio of lambda to kappa light chain producing cells in normal individiuals is:

a)

1:2

b)

2:1

c)

1:1

d)

3:1

4.

Measurement of serum levels of which of the following immunoglobulins can serve as a screening test for multiple allergies?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

5.

Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

a)

Jka

b)

E

c)

Fya

d)

k

6.

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

a)

Reacts best at 37C

b)

Is usually IgG

c)

Often associated with HDFN

d)

Reacts best at room temperature or 4C

7.

Macleod Phenotype is associated with

a)

Kidd blood group

b)

None

c)

A and C only

d)

Kell-Cellano blood group

8.

The assembly of the complement “membrane attack unit” is initiated with the binding of

a)

C1

b)

C3

c)

C4

d)

C5

9.

Humoral immune response is due to:

a)

macrophage activity

b)

Lymphokines

c)

By lymphocytes that transform into plasma cells

d)

T cells

e)

All of the given options

10.

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with antibody toward which of the following?

a)

I antigen

b)

Kell system antigen

c)

i antigen

d)

Duffy antigen

e)

P antigen

11.

Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

12.

Which of the following IgG subunit cannot cross the placenta?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgG2

c)

IgG3

d)

IgG4

13.

Which of the following IgG subunit is unable to activate complement?

a)

IgG1

b)

IgG2

c)

IgG3

d)

IgG4

14.

A heterologous antigen reacts with

a)

an antibody whose production it induced

b)

non-specific substances

c)

Specific substances

d)

an antibody whose production it did not induced

15.

The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as:

a)

Specificity

b)

Affinity

c)

Reproducibility

d)

Avidity

16.

The random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semi-solid medium occurs in:

a)

agglutination

b)

immunofluorescence

c)

Gel diffusion

d)

Complement fixation

17.

An IgG antibody is a good:

a)

indicator if early infection

b)

Agglutinating antibody

c)

indicator of anamnestic response

d)

None of the given options

18.

Which organs or systems are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells?

a)

lymph nodes and spleen

b)

pancreas and liver

c)

reticuloendothelial system and biliary tract

d)

bacteria and granulocytic cells

19.

Antigen determinant is called _____ while antibody determinant is termed _____.

a)

Paratope, Epitope

b)

Epitope, Paratope

c)

Valence, Epitope

d)

None of the given options

20.

T cells are involved in?

a)

Cell mediated immunity

b)

Humoral immunity

c)

wheal and flare reaction

d)

antibody protection

21.

A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as?

a)

immunoelectrophoresis

b)

double radial diffusion

c)

immunofluorescence

d)

electroimmunodiffusion

22.

Immunelectrophoresis is used to identify?

a)

cholesterol

b)

lipids

c)

hcG

d)

BJP

23.

Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7, C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Pneumococcal septiciemia

b)

Small bowel movement

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

A systemic gonococcal infection if exposed

24.

In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies are seen?

a)

antimitochondrial antibodies

b)

anti-smooth muscle antibodies

c)

anti-parietal cells antibody

d)

anti-DNA antibodies

25.

Which of the following are the antibodies seen in chronic active hepatitis?

a)

antimitochondrial antibodies

b)

anti-smooth muscle antibodies

c)

anti-parietal cells antibody

d)

anti-DNA antibodies

26.

Which of the following detects allergen-specific IgE?

a)

RAST

b)

RIST

c)

REST

d)

RUST

27.

Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

28.

Following a repeated exposure to an antigen, rapid antibody production to an elevated level that persists to a long period of time is called?

a)

arthus reaction

b)

primary response

c)

secondary response

d)

hypersensitivity

29.

All of the following are saline agglutinin except?

a)

ABO

b)

Rh

c)

Lewis

d)

MN

30.

According to AABB standards, platelets must be:

a)

Gently agitated if stored at ref temperature

b)

Gently agitated if stored at room temperature

c)

Gently agitated if stored at 37C

d)

Does not require agitation unless intended for transfusion

31.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when:

a)

The infants lack an antigen that the mother possesses

b)

The infant lack the antigen that the father has

c)

The mother lacks the antigen that the infant has

d)

The mother possesses the antigen that the infant has

32.

Which of the following antigen is most likely to be involved in HDFN?

a)

M

b)

Kell

c)

P1

d)

a. Lea

33.

What assay would confirm the immune status of the hepatitis B virus?

a)

HBsAg

b)

anti-HBs

c)

IgM anti-HBcAg

d)

Hepatitis C Ag

34.

Bombay phenotype occurs when which of the following gene is absent?

a)

Le

b)

Bombay

c)

A

d)

Se

e)

H

35.

OX-2 OX-19 and OX-K are antigens of?

a)

Rickettsia

b)

Proteus

c)

Leptospira

d)

Salmonella

36.

The Hinge region in an immunoglobulin is located between which domains?

a)

CH3 and VL

b)

CH3-CH4

c)

CH1-CH2

d)

CH2-CH3

37.

Most blood group system are inherited as?

a)

sex-liked recessive

b)

sex-linked dominant

c)

autosomal recessive

d)

autosomal codominant

38.

Which of the following is a treponemal test?

a)

FTA-ABS

b)

VDRL

c)

RPR

d)

RIST

39.

A DPT vaccination is an example:

a)

Passive humoral-mediated immunity

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

Active humoral-mediated immunity

d)

Natural immunity

40.

Serological test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in CSF is?

a)

RPR

b)

FTA-ABS

c)

VDRL

d)

SRP

41.

The basic immunoglobulin structure is?

a)

2 light chains, ½ heavy chains

b)

1 light chain, ½ heavy chains

c)

2 light chains, 1 heavy chain

d)

2 light chains, 2 heavy chains

42.

The process of removing an antibody from red cell membrane is called?

a)

Neutralization

b)

Adsorption

c)

Absorption

d)

Elution

43.

Not included in the hepatitis profile

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBeAg

c)

HBcAg

d)

Anti-HBc

44.

The ability of the clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen is referred to as its:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Specificity

45.

Saline needles for quantitative VDRL should deliver:

a)

20 drops/mL

b)

120 drops/mL

c)

110 drops/mL

d)

100 drops/mL

46.

A positive result for complement fixation test is expressed as

a)

agglutination

b)

inhibition of hemolysis

c)

neutralization

d)

hemolysis

47.

Bone marrow transplant donors and their recipients must be matched for which antigens systems?

a)

ABO-Rh

b)

HLA

c)

Lewis

d)

CD4/CD8

48.

ISBT number of Cartwright blood group?

a)

012

b)

009

c)

006

d)

011

49.

ISBT number of c antigen.

a)

004001

b)

004002

c)

004003

d)

004004

e)

004005

50.

If the father is homozygous A and the mother is heterozygous B, what is/are the possible phenotype of their offspring?

a)

A only

b)

AB and A only

c)

A, AB and B only

d)

A and B only

e)

All are possible

51.

Refer to the given problem above, what are the impossible phenotype of their offspring?

a)

O, B

b)

A, B

c)

AB, O

d)

None

52.

The principle of the Kleihauer-Betke stain is that

a)

Adult hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than fetal hemoglobin

b)

Adult hemoglobin is more soluble in acid buffer than fetal hemoglobin

c)

Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than adult hemoglobin

d)

Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to erythrosin and hematoxylin staining than adult hemoglobin

53.

Below are Rh phenotype of 4 donor units. If a patient has anti-c in the serum, which of the units of red cells may he or she receive without expecting a reaction due to this antibody?

a)

DCe

b)

DCce

c)

DCcEe

d)

DcECe

54.

Patient’s forward type is AB but backward typed as A. Reaction with anti-B ES4 clone is positive. Identify the most likely cause of the discrepancy?

a)

Presence of blood-group specific soluble substances (BGSS) secondary to stomach carcinoma

b)

Deacetylation of N-acetyl-D-galactosamine into N-galactosamine

c)

Hypogammaglobulinemia secondary to viral infections

d)

Chimerism

55.

Which of the following is(are) the possible genotypes of a non-secretor Group AB individual?

a)

AB, Hh, Sese

b)

AO, HH, SeSe

c)

AB, hh, sese

d)

AB, Hh, sese

56.

Lewis phenotype that is non-secretor:

a)

Le (a+b-)

b)

Le(a-b)

c)

Le (a-b+)

d)

Le (a+b+)

57.

Lewis phenotype common to Asians?

a)

Le (a+b-)

b)

Le(a-b)

c)

Le (a-b+)

d)

Le (a+b+)

58.

Kpa and Kpb are antigens of what blood group system?

a)

Duffy

b)

Kell

c)

Cromer

d)

Kidd

59.

Storage temperature for granulocyte concentrate

a)

37C

b)

1-6C

c)

20-24C

d)

-65C

60.

These are component of rejuvenating solution except?

a)

Mannitol

b)

Phosphate

c)

Glucose

d)

Adenine

61.

It is characterized by acanthocytosis, well-compensated hemolytic anemia leading to reticulocytosis, bilirubinemia, splenomegaly, and reduced serum haptoglobin levels, a slow, progressive form of muscular dystrophy between ages 40 and 50 years and cardiomegaly elevated serum creatinine phosphokinase levels of the MM type (cardiac/skeletal muscle) and carbonic anhydrase III levels.

a)

Kell null

b)

Rh null

c)

McLeod syndrome

d)

Duffy null

62.

It serves as receptor for Plasmodium vivax?

a)

Fya

b)

Fyb

c)

Fy3

d)

Fy6

63.

Are resistant to lysis by 2M urea, a lytic agent used by some automated hematology analyzers.

a)

Rhnull

b)

JKnull

c)

Kellnull

d)

Duffynull

64.

Biphasic hemolysin associated with Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

a)

anti-PP1Pk

b)

auto-anti-P

c)

anti-P1

d)

anti-i

65.

Large granular lymphocytes is synonymous with:

a)

B cell

b)

T helper cell

c)

T cytotoxic

d)

Natural Killer cell

66.

C-reactive protein is synthesized in the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Lymphatics

c)

Reticuloendothelial system

d)

Epithelial cells

67.

The HLA genes are located on chromosome number:

a)

4

b)

9

c)

6

d)

19

68.

Majority of HLA antibodies are:

a)

IgD

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

69.

Fetus can be considered as an:

a)

Autograft

b)

Isograft

c)

Allograft

d)

Xenograft

70.

CEA is characteristically secreted tumors of the

a)

Kidney

b)

Lungs

c)

Breast

d)

GIT

71.

Reverse Passive agglutination:

1. Antigen is attached to a carrier

2. Antibody is attached to carrier particle

3. Agglutination occurs if patient antibody is present

4. Agglutination occurs if patient antigen is present

a)

1 and 3

b)

2 and 4

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

72.

Mutations in the carrier molecule for this blood group system may result in changes in red blood cell shape through the forms of elliptocytosis, acanthocytosis, and ovalocytosis?

a)

DI

b)

DO

c)

CO

d)

SC

73.

Immunization of rubella would result in

a)

2 weeks deferral

b)

4 weeks deferral

c)

8 weeks deferral

d)

No deferral

74.

Cardiopulmonary bypass is an essential system for open heart surgery. Which of the following prevents coagulation during CPB?

a)

ACD

b)

CPD

c)

CPDA-1

d)

Heparin

75.

Blood can be stored in CPDA-1 at 1-6C for how many days?

a)

21 days

b)

42 days

c)

35 days

d)

7 days

76.

Additive solutions are approved for blood storage for how many days?

a)

21 days

b)

42 days

c)

35 days

d)

7 days

77.

All but one of these factors will influence platelet metabolism and function in a closed system?

a)

Total platelet count

b)

duration of storage

c)

Temperature of storage

d)

Fibrinogen concentration

78.

When platelet concentrate is stored at 22C, continuous gentle agitation must be used to:

a)

Prevent platelet agitation

b)

Facilitate gas exchange

c)

Prevent contamination

d)

Promote increases platelet count

79.

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is:

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

7 days

d)

8 weeks

80.

Each unit of cryoprecipitate, prepared from WB, should contain approximately how many units AHF activity?

a)

40

b)

80

c)

60

d)

150

81.

Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a minimum of how many days following transfusion?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

82.

When a suspected hemolytic reaction occurs, the first thing to do

a)

Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician

b)

Administer medication to stop reaction

c)

Stop the transfusion, but keep the intravenous line open with saline

d)

Inform the laboratory to begin investigation

e)

Begin technical checks

83.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn characterized by:

a)

IgM antibody

b)

Nearly always anti-D

c)

Different RBC antigens between mother and fetus

d)

Antibody titer is 32

84.

Advantages of cordocentesis include all of the following except?

a)

Allows measurement of fetal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

b)

Allows antigen typing of fetal blood

c)

Allows direct transfusion of fetal circulation

d)

Decrease risk of trauma to the placenta

85.

PCR technology can be used to

a)

Amplify small amounts of DNA

b)

Clone fragments of RNA

c)

Digest genomic DNA into small fragments

d)

Repair broken pieces of DNA

86.

What type RBCs can be transfused to an A2 person with anti-A1?

a)

A only

b)

A or O

c)

B

d)

AB

87.

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with:

a)

Arachis hypogaea

b)

Salvia sclarea

c)

Dolichos biflorus

d)

Ulex europeaus

88.

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c?

a)

R0R1

b)

R2

c)

r´r

d)

r´ry

89.

What is one possible genotype for a patient who develops anti-C antibody?

a)

R1r

b)

R1R1

c)

r´r

d)

rr

90.

What does the genotype —/— represent in the Rh system?

a)

Rh negative

b)

D mosaic

c)

Rhnull

d)

Total Rh

91.

Which antibody is frequently seen in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a)

Anti-Jka

b)

Anti-e

c)

Anti-K

d)

Anti-Fyb

92.

What type(s) of red cells is (are) acceptable to transfuse to an O-negative patient?

a)

A negative, B negative, AB negative, or O negative

b)

O negative

c)

AB negative

d)

AB negative, A negative, B negative

93.

What is the “M” component in monoclonal gammopathies?

a)

IgM produced in excess

b)

μHeavy chain produced in excess

c)

Malignant proliferation of B cells

d)

Monoclonal antibody or cell line

94.

Serological tests for which disease may give a false positive result if the patient has Lyme disease?

a)

AIDS

b)

Syphilis

c)

Cold agglutinins

d)

Hepatitis C

95.

Which antibody persists in low-level carriers of hepatitis B virus?

a)

IgM anti-HBc

b)

IgG anti-HBc

c)

IgM anti-HBe

d)

IgG anti-HBs

96.

Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?

a)

Band at p24

b)

Band at gp60

c)

Bands at p24 and p31

d)

Bands at p24 and gp120

97.

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera?

a)

Center well

b)

Outer wells

c)

Gel

d)

Antisera may be added to any well

98.

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?

a)

VH

b)

CH

c)

VL

d)

CL

99.

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except:

a)

Induction of an antiviral state

b)

Opsonization

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Anaphylatoxin formation

100.

Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways?

a)

C1

b)

C4 C

c)

Factor D

d)

C3