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Worksheets

National 5 Chemistry Course Revision

Total questions: 179

Worksheet time: 15hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

4.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

6.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

7.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

9.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.

What type of elements form Covalent Bonds?

a)

Metals only

b)

Non-metals only

c)

Metals and non-metals

26.

Covalent bonds are formed when

a)

positive and negative ions are attracted to each other

b)

positive metal ions are attracted to delocalised electrons

c)

positive nuclei are attracted to a shared pair of electrons

d)

none of the above

27.

A small group of atoms bonded covalently is called...

a)

a metallic lattice

b)

an ionic lattice

c)

covalent network

d)

covalent molecule

28.

Diamond is an example of a

a)

covalent molecule

b)

covalent network

c)

metallic lattice

d)

ionic lattice

29.

What type of elements form ionic bonds?

a)

metals

b)

non-metals

c)

non-metals and metals

30.

Ionic bonds are the attraction between

a)

positive nuclei and shared electrons

b)

positive metal ions and delocalised electrons

c)

positive and negative ions

31.

Metals form (blank) ions.

a)

positive

b)

Negative

32.

Non-metal form ____________ ions.

a)

positive

b)

negative

33.

Ionic substances have which type of structure?

a)

covalent molecular

b)

covalent network

c)

ionic lattice

d)

metallic lattice

34.

Metallic bonds occur in which elements?

a)

metals

b)

non-metals

c)

metals and non-metals

35.

Metallic bonds are the attraction between

a)

positive nuclei and shared electrons

b)

positive and negative ions

c)

positive ions and delocalised electrons

36.

Which structure will have low melting and boiling points?

a)

metallic lattice

b)

ionic lattice

c)

covalent molecular

d)

covalent network

37.

Do covalent compounds conduct electricity?

a)

Yes

b)

No

38.

Why can't covalent substances conduct electricity?

a)

They have delocalised electrons

b)

The ions are trapped in the bond

c)

The electrons are trapped in the bond

d)

They can conduct electricity

39.

Why can metals conduct electricity?

a)

They have positive and negative ions

b)

The have delocalsied ions

c)

They can't conduct electricity

d)

They have delocalised electrons.

40.

Why do covalent molecular substances have low melting and boiling points?

a)

The covalent bonds need to be broken

b)

The weak inter-molecular forces need to be broken

41.

Why do ionic substances conduct when they are molten or in solution?

a)

The ions are trapped in the ionic lattice

b)

They have delocalised electrons

c)

The ions are free to move

42.

Are Ionic substances soluble in water?

a)

Yes

b)

No

43.

Which line in the table shows the properties of a covalent network compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

Which line in the table shows the properties of an ionic compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of chloromethane?

a)

Linear

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Trigonal pyrimidal

d)

V-shaped

46.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of phosphorous hydride?

a)

Trigonal pyrimidal

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Linear

d)

V-Shaped

47.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of Copper?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of sodium chloride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of silicon dioxide (sand)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.
If an atom loses electrons during a chemical reaction, the atom was:
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
c)
Neutralized
d)
Precipitated
52.

Hydrocarbons are fuels containing only:

a)

carbon and oxygen

b)

carbon and hydrogen

c)

carbon dioxide and hydrogen

d)

hydrogen and nitrogen

53.

During which process does an atom gain one or more electrons?

a)

transmutation

b)

reduction

c)

oxidation

d)

neutralization

54.

When a lithium atom forms an Li+ ion, the lithium atom

a)

gains a proton

b)

gains an electron

c)

loses a proton

d)

loses an electron

55.
What is an ore?
a)
a solid metal
b)
a rock cantaining a metal combined with other elements
c)
an element
d)
an object used to row a boat
56.
Which element cannot be extracted from its ore by reduction with carbon?
a)
iron
b)
aluminium
c)
copper
d)
lead
57.
What is the name of the process that uses electricity to separate the elements in a compound?
a)
reduction
b)
electrolysis
c)
extraction
d)
mining
58.
How would you best extract iron from haematite (iron ore)?
a)
reduction by carbon
b)
electrolysis
c)
decomposition
d)
oxidation
59.
Which statement is true:
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
a)
Mg gains 2 electrons
b)
Mg2+ loses 2 electrons
c)
Mg loses 1 electron
d)
Mg loses 2 electrons
60.

The closer the elements in the Electrochemical Series, the greater the voltage produced.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Electrons will flow from the element higher in the Electrochemical Series to the one lower in the Electrochemical Series.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

What are the three essential elements that plants require?

a)

nitrogen phosphate potassium

b)

nitrogen sulphur potassium

c)

nitrogen potassium phosphorous

d)

nitrogen potassium polonium

63.

what is the catalyst used in the Haber process?

a)

iron

b)

platinum

c)

silver

d)

gold

64.

What is produced in the Ostwald process?

a)

ammonia

b)

nitrogen

c)

nitrate

d)

nitric acid

65.

Which of the following is untrue for the haber process?

a)

ammonia gas is cooled and collected as a liquid

b)

a really high temperature is used to speed up the reaction

c)

hydrogen and nitrogen are the raw materials for the reaction

d)

too high a pressure is unsafe

66.

Which of the following would be a suitable fertiliser?

a)

nitrogen dioxide

b)

potassium nitrate

c)

copper phosphate

d)

nitrogen oxide

67.

What type of bonding is in ammonia?

a)

metallic

b)

covalent molecular

c)

covalent network

d)

ionic

68.
Which of the following is an advantage of a natural fertiliser?
a)
Improves the structure of the soil
b)
Quicker than artifical fertiliser to effect plant growth
c)
mineral concentration is higher than artificial fertiliser
69.
Which of the following is an disadvantage of a natural fertiliser?
a)
Makes the structure of the soil worse
b)
Is not biodegradable
c)
Is not environmentally friendly
d)
they are less effective in the winter than in summer.
70.
Which of the following is an advantage of chemical fertilisers
a)
Keeps the soil healthy
b)
Cheaper compared to the same mass of natural fertilisers
c)
Does not cause pollution in rivers
d)
Never causes a build up of chemicals in the food we eat
71.
The Haber process is the name we give to the industrial production of
a)
Ammonia
b)
Salt
c)
Sodium Hydroxide
d)
Soap
72.
Which equation represents the formation of ammonia
a)
N2 + H2 ₋> NH3
b)
N + 3H ₋> NH3
c)
N2 + 3H2 ₋> NH3
d)
N2 + 3H2 ₋> 2NH3
73.

Covalent bonds are formed when

a)

positive and negative ions are attracted to each other

b)

positive metal ions are attracted to delocalised electrons

c)

positive nuclei are attracted to a shared pair of electrons

d)

none of the above

74.

A small group of atoms bonded covalently is called...

a)

a metallic lattice

b)

an ionic lattice

c)

covalent network

d)

covalent molecule

75.

Diamond is an example of a

a)

covalent molecule

b)

covalent network

c)

metallic lattice

d)

ionic lattice

76.

What type of elements form Covalent Bonds?

a)

Metals only

b)

Non-metals only

c)

Metals and non-metals

77.

What type of elements form ionic bonds?

a)

metals

b)

non-metals

c)

non-metals and metals

78.

Ionic bonds are the attraction between

a)

positive nuclei and shared electrons

b)

positive metal ions and delocalised electrons

c)

positive and negative ions

79.

Ionic substances have which type of structure?

a)

covalent molecular

b)

covalent network

c)

ionic lattice

d)

metallic lattice

80.

Which structure will have low melting and boiling points?

a)

metallic lattice

b)

ionic lattice

c)

covalent molecular

d)

covalent network

81.

Do covalent compounds conduct electricity?

a)

Yes

b)

No

82.

Which line in the table shows the properties of an ionic compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

83.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of Copper?

a)
b)
c)
d)
84.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of sodium chloride?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.

Which of the following diagrams can be used to show the structure of silicon dioxide (sand)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
86.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of chloromethane?

a)

Linear

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Trigonal pyrimidal

d)

Angular

87.

Which term can be used to describe the shape of phosphorous hydride?

a)

Trigonal pyrimidal

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Linear

d)

Angular

88.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

89.

A temperature increase causes the particles to ......

a)

to slow down

b)

move faster

c)

collide higher

d)

in the right order

90.

Why does a higher concentration increase the rate of reaction?

a)

it increases the amount of reactants

b)

it lowers the activation energy

c)

it increases the energy of particle collisions

d)

it increases the frequency of particle collisions

91.

What can be said about the green line?

a)

it is a faster rate of reaction

b)

It produces same volume of product as red line

c)

Half the volume of reactants has been used

92.

Which would not speed up a chemical reaction?

a)

Using a large beaker

b)

Increasing the concentration

c)

Decreasing particle size

d)

adding a catalyst

93.

Which would have the slowest rate of reaction

a)

Magnesium ribbon 1M HCl at 20 degrees

b)

Magnesium powder 1M HCl at 20degrees

c)

Magnesium ribbon 0.5M HCl at 10degrees

d)

Magnesium powder 0.5M HCl at 10degrees

94.

Increasing the temperature gives particles more __________.

a)

Time

b)

Energy

c)

Space

d)

Frequency

95.

Which graph shows the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
96.

P, Q, R and S are pieces of apparatus.

Which row describes the correct apparatus for the measurement made?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.
In an experiment, a 2 g lump of zinc and 2 g of powdered zinc are added separately to equal volumes of dilute sulphuric acid. The solid line on the graph shows the volume of gas given off when the 2 g lump is used. Which dotted line is obtained when the zinc is powdered? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
98.

When surface area is decreased the rate of reaction...

a)

Decreases, because there are LESS possible sites for correct collisions

b)

Increases, because there are LESS possible sites for correct collisions

c)

Decreases, because there are MORE possible sites for correct collisions

d)

Increases, because there are MORE possible sites for correct collisions

99.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

101.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

102.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

103.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

104.
Which ion determines a base?
a)
H+
b)
OH-
c)
OH+
d)
CO32-
105.
What is the pH of an extremely strong acid?
a)
pH 0
b)
pH 7
c)
pH 13
d)
pH 2
106.

Solutions that have more OH– ions than H+ ions are

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

enzymes

d)

neutral

107.

Solutions that have more H+ ions than OH- ions are

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

enzymes

d)

neutral

108.
Which has a pH below 7?
a)
Acid
b)
Base
109.
Acids react with
a)
water to produce bases and salts
b)
salts to produce bases and water
c)
neither bases, salts nor water
d)
bases to produce salts and water
110.

What other laboratory substance can you use to test if colourless substance is an acid or an alkali?

a)

Catalyst

b)

Salt

c)

Universal Indicator

d)

Water

111.

What happens to the pH of an acid during neutralisation?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It moves toward pH 1

c)

It moves towards pH 7

d)

It moves towards pH 14

112.
What salt is produced if you react sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid?
a)
sodium hydroxide
b)
sodium sulfate
c)
sodium nitrate
d)
sodium chloride
113.
A salt is formed when nitric acid combines with sodium hydroxide. What is the name of the salt?
a)
Sodium chloride
b)
Sodium nitrate
c)
Hydrogen Nitrate
d)
Nirate
114.
The products of a neutralisation reaction are lithium sulfate and water. What is the name of the acid used to neutralise the alkali lithium hydroxide?
a)
hydrochloric acid
b)
sulfuric acid
c)
nitric acid
d)
phosphoric acid
115.
Which reactants are used to produce sodium chloride (salt and water)
a)
sodium hydroxide and nitric acid
b)
sodium hydroxide and sulfuric acid
c)
sodium hydroxide and phosphoric acid 
d)
sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid
116.
hydrochloric acid
a)
HCl
b)
HClO
c)
H3ClO3
d)
HClO3
117.
nitric acid
a)
HNO2
b)
HNO3
c)
HNO4
d)
H2NO3
118.
sulfuric acid
a)
HSO3
b)
H2SO3
c)
H2SO4
d)
H3SO4
119.

Which of these does not belong to the same homologous series?

a)

pentane

b)

cyclopropane

c)

propane

d)

hexane

120.

Which of these is a use for alkanes?

a)

to make plastics

b)

fuels

c)

solvent

d)

to make alcohols

121.

What is the general formula of an alkane?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

122.

What is the general formula of an alkene?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

123.

What is the general formula of cycloalkane?

a)

CnH2n+1

b)

CnH2n-1

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n+2

124.

What does this describe 'substances with the same molecular formula but different structural formula'

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

125.

What does this describe 'a family of compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties' ?

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

126.

What does this describe 'a substance that contains only hydrogen and carbon' ?

a)

homologous series

b)

hydrocarbon

c)

isomer

d)

none of these

127.

What do you call an alkene with 2 carbons?

a)

ethane

b)

ethene

c)

propane

d)

propene

128.

What would an alkane with 8 carbons be called?

a)

octene

b)

heptene

c)

heptane

d)

octane

129.

Which alkane has 8 hydrogens?

a)

octane

b)

propane

c)

pentane

d)

hexane

130.

If an alkene has 20 carbons, how many hydrogens would it have?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

41

d)

42

131.

If an alkene had 20 hydrogens, how many carbons would it have?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

40

d)

42

132.

If an alkane had 20 carbons, how many hydrogens would it have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

40

d)

42

133.

When bromine is added to an alkene it makes ....

a)

a dihaloalkane

b)

an alcohol

c)

an alkane

d)

a cycloalkane

134.

What type of reaction occurs when hydrogen is added to an alkene?

a)

hydration

b)

halogenation

c)

hydrogenation

d)

none of these

135.

Which of these reactions would make an alcohol?

a)

hydration

b)

hydrogenation

c)

halogenation

d)

none of these

136.

What is the name of this alkane?

a)

2,3-dimethylpropane

b)

3,4-dimethylpropane

c)

2,3-dimethylpentane

d)

3,4-dimethylpentane.

137.

The shortened structural formula for an organic compound is CH3CH(CH3)CH(OH)C(CH3)3

Which of the following is another way of representing this structure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
138.

Three members of the cycloalkene homologous series are shown.

Which of the following is the general formula for this homologous series?

a)

CnH2n—4

b)

CnH2n+2

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n—2

139.

Which of the following compounds belongs to the same homologous series as the compound with the molecular formula C3H8?

a)
b)
c)
d)
140.

The systematic name for the structure shown is

a)

1,2-dimethylpent-1-ene

b)

2,3-dimethylpent-1-ene

c)

3,4-dimethylpent-4-ene

d)

3,4-dimethylpent-1-ene

141.

Two isomers of butene are shown.

Which of the following structures represents a third isomer of butene?

a)
b)
c)
d)
142.

Which of the following could be the molecular formula for an alkane?

a)

C7H16

b)

C7H14

c)

C7H12

d)

C7H10

143.

A student added bromine solution to compound X and compound Y. These are shown in the picture. Which substance(s) would decolourise bromine solution?

a)

Compound X only

b)

Compound Y only

c)

Compound X and Y

d)

Neither compound X nor Y

144.

What is the test for oxygen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

145.

What is the test for carbon dioxide?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

146.

What is the test for hydrogen?

a)

turns limewater cloudy

b)

relights a glowing splint

c)

bleaches damp litmus paper white

d)

makes a squeaky pop

147.

What colour do sodium ions go in a flame test?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Brick-red

d)

Lilac

148.
a)

evaporating dish

b)

watch glass

c)

mortar and pestle

d)

funnel

149.
a)

wire gauze

b)

Bunsen burner

c)

thermometer

d)

utility clamp

150.
a)
beaker
b)
flask
c)
graduated cylinder
d)
test tube
151.
a)
glass triangle
b)
funnel
c)
stirring rod
d)
buret
152.
a)
glass lens
b)
watch glass
c)
evaporating dish
d)
pestle
153.
Beakers are used
a)
to measure volume with high accuracy and precision
b)
to hold small amounts of dry chemicals
c)
to recover dissolved solids
d)
to measure approx. volumes and observe reactions
154.

What is the name of this piece of equipment?

a)

Beaker

b)

Conical flask

c)

Measuring cylinder

d)

Evaporating Basin

155.

Which piece of equipment should you use to measure out liquids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
156.
acid + base ₋>
a)
salt + hydrogen
b)
salt + water
c)
salt + carbon dioxide + water
d)
salt
157.

What allows us to know when the end point has been reached?

a)

Bubbles

b)

Feels warm

c)

indicator changing color

d)

Turns to a solid

158.

What is this piece of apparatus called

a)

Pipette

b)

Burette

c)

Janette

d)

Cuvette

159.

Why do we perform a titration?

a)

To determine the concentration of an unknown solution

b)

To see if a reaction will occur between an acid and base

c)

To find the mass of an unknown acid

d)

To find the molar mass of an unknown solution

e)

To calculate the viscosity of the solution

160.

How many of the following substances are elements?

SS   N2O4N_2O_4   FeFe   O2O_2   LiFLiF   SrSr   AlAl  

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

161.

Which of the following is NOT a compound?

a)

HClHCl

b)

NaClNaCl

c)

ClCl

d)

CO2CO_2

162.

What is made up of two or more elements that are chemically combined?

a)

element

b)

mixture

c)

compound

d)

solid

163.
What term means "does not break down in the environment"
a)
biodegradeable
b)
non-degradeable
c)
corrosive
d)
biodegenerative
164.

Which is the most common material used to make plastics

a)

Natural gas

b)

Crude oil

c)

Coal

165.

Which statement defines a polymer?

a)

A polymer is a very large, chain-like molecule made up of polymers, which are large molecules.

b)

A polymer is a very small, chain-like molecule made up of monomers, which are large molecules. It can only be synthetic.

c)

A polymer is a very large, chain-like molecule made up of monomers, which are small molecules. It can be naturally occurring or synthetic.

166.

Reheating a __________ plastic component will cause the forces between the molecules to become weaker which allows them to slip over each other - the component can be reshaped or become mis-shaped in use if it becomes too hot.

a)

thermoplastic

b)

thermosetting plastic

167.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

168.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

169.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

170.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

171.

The correct formula for finding moles is:

a)

Moles x molar mass

b)

molar mass / mass

c)

mass / molar mass

d)

6.02214076×1023

172.

Find the molar mass of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) to the nearest gram.

a)

100 g

b)

68 g

c)

84 g

d)

112 g

173.

Find the mass of 5 moles of water (H2O).

a)

18.02 g

b)

36.04 g

c)

90.1 g

d)

25.0g

174.

How many moles are in 225g of CO (carbon monoxide)?

a)

8.03 mole

b)

28.01 mole

c)

4.82x1024 mole

d)

7.50 mole

175.
How many moles are present in 32.3 grams of carbon dioxide (CO2)?
a)
44.01 moles
b)
1421.52 moles
c)
32.3 moles
d)
0.73 moles
176.
A mass of 6 g of Carbon contains
a)
1 mole of C
b)
2 moles of C
c)
0.5 moles of C
d)
72 moles of C
177.
How many grams are in 4.5 moles of sodium fluoride, NaF?
a)
0.1 g
b)
9.3 g
c)
100 g
d)
189 g
178.

What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mol octane (C8H18)?

a)

673 g

b)

0.0512 g

c)

389 g

d)

E) 3.55 x 1024 g

179.
What is the percent by mass of oxygen in MgO?
a)
20%
b)
40%
c)
50%
d)
60%

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