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Q3 Test Review 21-22

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is an example of an abiotic factor in a pond environment?

a)

The water

b)

A frog

c)

A grasshopper

d)

A snake

2.

Which is an example of a biotic factor in the environment?

a)

The climate in the region

b)

Carnivores that consume other animals

c)

Amount of helium gas in the air

d)

Flow of water in a river

3.

What is the difference between the biotic and abiotic factors?

a)

Biotic factors are living things and abiotic factors are nonliving things.

b)

Biotic factors are nonliving things and abiotic factors are living things.

4.

If the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal.....

a)

Stays the same

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

d)

Fluctuates

5.
When predator numbers decrease, prey numbers ____________ because fewer of them are being consumed.
a)
decrease
b)
increase
c)
stay the same
d)
divide in half
6.

A herbivore is

a)

An animal that only eats other animals

b)

An animal that only eats plants

c)

An animal that eats both plants and animals

7.

What is a Carnivore?

a)

Animal that eats only plants

b)

Animal that eats only meat

c)

Animal that eats both plants and meat

8.

What is an Omnivore?

a)

Animal that eats only plants

b)

Animal that eats both plants and meat

c)

Animal that eats only meat

9.
A drought has hit this grassland biome. How will this effect the rabbit population?
a)
The rabbits will increase in number.
b)
The rabbit population will stay the same.
c)
The rabbit population will decrease.
d)
The rabbit population will become extinct immediately.
10.
Limiting factors which impact the size of a population no matter how large that population is.
a)
Density Independent Limiting Factors
b)
Density Dependent Limiting Factors
c)
Carrying Capacity
d)
Exponential Growth
11.
An environmental factor such as storms and extreme heat or cold that decrease a population are considered to be. 
a)
density- dependent factor
b)
population density
c)
dispersion
d)
density- independent factor
12.

One species benefits, the other species is harmed

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

13.

One species benefits, the other is unaffected

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

14.

Both species benefit

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

15.

Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers to bee hives. The badgers then expose the hives and feed on the honey first. Next the honey guide birds eat.

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

16.

Tapeworms reside in human intestine and take nutrients from the human

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

17.

As bison walk through grass, insects become active and are seen and eaten by cowbirds. Nothing happens for the bison.

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

18.

Lions typical fight to death for territory, mates, and food sources. Lions are most likely fighting due to:

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Competition

d)

Parasitism

19.
A diagram of a food web is shown below.Which organism receives the least amount of energy from the producers?
a)
Hawk
b)
Rabbit
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Mouse
20.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
21.
consumers get energy by
a)
make there own food using photosynthesis
b)
eat organisms for food
c)
absorb nutrients from decomposing plants and animals
22.

Organisms, like bacteria, insects and worms, that break down waste are called ___

a)

carnivore

b)

herbivores

c)

decomposers

23.
1 A substance made up of two or more chemically combinedelements is —
a)
an element
b)
mixture
c)
compound
d)
solution
24.
NaHCO3 is an example of —
a)
an abbreviation
b)
a compound
c)
a mixture
d)
an element
25.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
26.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
27.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
28.
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
29.
In the modern periodic table elements are arranged by:
a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
valence electrons
d)
number of isotopes
30.

Elements in the same group or column have the same ...

a)

# of valence electrons

b)

# of shells

c)

# of protons

d)

Mass Number

31.

Elements in the same group have __________

a)

Similar Properties

b)

Same number of shells

c)

Similar Mass

32.
Which group on the periodic table is the most reactive Metals?
a)
Alkaline-earth metals - Group 2
b)
Alkali metals - Group 1
c)
Transition metals - Group 3-7
d)
Halogens - Group 17
33.

Which group of elements is the least reactive?

a)
Alkaline metals - Group 1
b)
Alkaline-earth metals - Group 2
c)
Transition metals Groups 3-8
d)
Noble Gases - Group 18
34.
Each column in the periodic table is called a 
a)
period
b)
group
c)
cluster
d)
unit
35.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
36.

A Chemical Change is also known as what?

a)

Physical Change

b)

Physical Property

c)

Chemical Reaction

d)

Chemical Property

37.

A green powder is heated & a gas is given off while it turns to a black solid. This describes

a)

Physical Change

b)

Chemical Change

c)

Change in State

d)

Change in Temperature

38.

The formation of a solid when two liquids combine is called?

a)

Solidification

b)

Freezing

c)

Precipitate

d)

Solubility

39.

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a)

A glass falling and shattering on the floor.

b)

Baking a birthday cake.

c)

Burning a piece of paper.

d)

Baking soda and vinegar mixing together.

40.

When a new substance is formed with different properties than the original substance it is called a...

a)

Chemical change

b)

Physical change

c)

Change in State

d)

Change in appearance only.

41.
Is the following equation balanced or unbalanced ? 
N2 +3 H2 --> 2NH3
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
42.
Is the following equation balanced or unbalanced ? 
Al + O2 --> Al2O3
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
43.

How many atoms of Hydrogen are in H2O

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

more than 3

44.
How many Sodium (Na) are in 6NaCl?
a)
1
b)
12
c)
6
45.

Law of conservation of mass states the amounts of atoms in the reactants and the products...

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

No correct answer

46.

The Law of Conservation of Mass States

a)

Energy cannot be created nor destroyed, it can only change form.

b)

Mass cannot be created nor destroyed, it can only change form.

c)

Mass can be created or destroyed, it cannot change form.

47.
What is the water cycle?
a)
the 3 forms of water
b)
the movement of water on, above, or below the surface of the Earth
c)
when water melts
d)
when clouds form
48.

What is water cycle?

a)

The water cycle is process of a liquid's surface changing to a gas.

b)

The water cycle is process of a gas changing to a liquid.

c)

The water cycle is process of water exchanged or cycled through earth's land, ocean and atmosphere.

d)

The water cycle is process of water vapor being released from plants and soil.

49.
Which represents the distribution of water on Earth?
a)
3% freshwater, 97% salt water
b)
97% freshwater, 3% salt water
c)
71% freshwater, 29% salt water
d)
29% freshwater, 71% salt water
50.
Most of the Earth's water is in
a)
salty oceans
b)
freshwater lakes
c)
freshwater ponds
d)
glaciers
51.

Approximately _____ percent of Earth's water is freshwater.

a)

97

b)

1

c)

3

d)

10

52.

I am called "Nurseries of the Sea".

I am the place where seawater and freshwater meet.

Who I am?

a)

Estuary

b)

Ocean

c)

River

53.

An ocean current that brings deep, cold, nutrient-rich water to the surface.

a)

Upwelling

b)

Tides

c)

Salinity

54.

How does an upwelling promote growth of organisms?

a)

bring nutrients

b)

bring warmer water

c)

decrease oxygen levels

d)

decrease nutrients

55.

Which best explains the importance of estuaries?

a)

Estuaries are freshwater areas that support a large amount of living things.

b)

Estuaries are areas where freshwater and salt water collide, resulting in a large amount of biodiversity.

c)

Estuaries are tropical areas that support an abundance of life found usually in cold regions of the ocean.

d)

Estuaries are nutrient-rich areas because they have large amounts of carbon dioxide seeping into the water from the ground below.

56.

In general, algal blooms occur when

a)

toxins accumulate in shellfish.

b)

nutrients decrease in the water.

c)

nutrients increase in the water.

57.

Eutrophication is

a)

an increase in the growth of algae due to buildup of nutrients in a lake or pond.

b)

when spores are released in the air and reproduction may begin.

c)

a decrease in the growth of algae due to a buildup of nutrients in a lake or pond.

58.

Can be traced back to the point of origin.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

59.

Cannot easily be traced to the source of the pollution.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

60.

Sewage leaking from a pipe.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

61.

oil leaking from cars in a parking lot is found in runoff

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

62.

trash in runoff from an urban area

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

63.

Septic tank leaking and contaminating groundwater.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

64.
We used bioindicators to measure the quality of water.  What is a bioindicator?
a)
any living creature
b)
eutrophication
c)
An organism sensitive to its environment
d)
a turbidity tube
65.

Federal and state governments have passed laws to promote a safe environment. The ______ is the federal government agency that sets rules and regulations to protect water quality in the United States.

a)

England Plant Agency

b)

Environmental Protection Agency

c)

Earthy People Association

d)

Earth Plant Air

66.
Which best describes the nutrients that are sources of energy for the body?
a)
fats and proteins
b)
fats and carbohydrates
c)
water and carbohydrates
67.

What is the name of the indigestible carbohydrate that helps move waste through the digestive system

a)

Vitamins

b)

Minerals

c)

Water

d)

Fiber

68.

The products of cellular respiration are:

a)

Carbon Dioxide, Energy (ATP) and Water

b)

Oxygen and Glucose

c)

Water and Glucose

d)

Oxygen and Water

69.

What does the following equation represent?


Sunlight +6H20 + 6CO2--> C6H1206 +6O2

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Human respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Solar energy

70.

C6H1206 +6O2--> 6H20 + 6CO2 + Energy (ATP)

This equation represents ___________________.

a)

Human Respiration

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Photosynthesis

71.
The process that converts food (glucose) into energy is called
a)
Cellular Respiration
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Carbon dioxide
72.

glucose (sugar)

a)

a molecule that organisms can use to release energy

b)
molecules that are the building blocks of proteins
c)

a molecule made of carbon and nitrogen

d)
a category of large molecules that perform important functions inside living things
73.
What helps prevent viral diseases?
a)
Vaccines
b)
Antibiotics
c)
Herbal tea
d)
Gene Therapy
74.

Can a virus be cured with antibiotics?

a)

yes

b)

no

75.

Which is most often used to destroy bacteria?

a)

vaccine

b)

antibiotics

c)

vitamins

d)

water

76.

A viruses are considered

a)

Living

b)

Non-living

77.

Tiny single-celled organisms that live almost everywhere

a)

ribosomes

b)

cytoplasm

c)

bacteria

d)

virus

78.

Why do we need a new vaccine for Influenza every year?

a)

because the virus mutates very quickly

b)

because the virus is unknown

c)

because the vaccine works for a short time

d)

none of the answers

79.
A vector-borne disease is one that is spread by
a)
animals
b)
contaminated food
c)
plants
d)
all of the above
80.

Organisms like ticks and mosquitos that spread diseases are called?

a)

Fungi

b)

Parasites

c)

Vectors

d)

Pathogens

81.
Which best contrasts an epidemic and a pandemic?
a)
An epidemic is caused by bacteria, while a pandemic is caused by viruses.
b)
A pandemic is spread by humans, while an epidemic is spread by insects and rodents.
c)
A pandemic occurs in a small region, while an epidemic occurs in a much larger region.
d)
An epidemic affects a small population of humans, while a pandemic affects a large population of humans.
82.
Which aspect of modern life could most likely cause an epidemic to turn into a pandemic?
a)
vaccination
b)
communication
c)
transportation
d)
sanitation
83.
How are viruses different from most other microbes?
a)
They can cause disease
b)
Only seen with a microscope
c)
They contain genetic material
d)
They are nonliving
84.
Which is a distinction between an epidemic and a pandemic?
a)
the symptoms of the disease
b)
the geographical area affected
c)
the species of organisms infected
d)
the season in which the disease spreads
85.

Which example best illustrates a pandemic?

a)

In the late 1400’s, native populations were almost wiped out by European diseases.

b)

In 1854, cholera spread through London, killing 12.5% of the population.

c)

The Hong Kong Influenza caused a million people worldwide in 1968.

d)

Last year, seasonal flu was responsible for thousands of deaths in the United States.

86.

An outbreak of a disease that spreads worldwide.

a)

epidemic

b)

outbreak

c)

ebola

d)

pandemic

87.
Occurs when an infectious disease spreads rapidly to many people in one region.
a)
Epidemic
b)
Outbreak
c)
Pandemic
d)
HIV/AIDs
88.

How does the biotechnology industry benefit North Carolina?

a)

Many new, high paying jobs are created

b)

The average salary of the worker in NC decreased.

c)

New technologies being developed are too expensive for people here to afford.

d)

State budget increases from the construction of new facilities.

89.

Rice does not provide enough of certain vitamins. How could biotechnology be used to change this?

a)

Using a high nitrogen fertilzer.

b)

Using herbicide to get rid of weeds.

c)

Genetic modification of rice plants that are pest resistant and to produce vitamins they cannot make without biotechnology

d)

Using pesticide to get rid of pests that can harm the crop.

90.

What would be a direct benefit of biotechnology to agriculture in a time of severe drought?

a)

Planting crops in shaded areas.

b)

Genetically modifying crops to be resistant to changes in weather

c)

Harvesting crops to have thick stems and leaves.

91.

What are some examples of biotechnology being used in agriculture?

a)

Crop irrigation

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Gentically modified crops

d)

Crop rotation

92.
corn with a gene from a bacteria that produces a natural pesticide
a)
Bt Corn
b)
Bacteria Corn
c)
Healthier Corn
d)
Remediated Corn
93.
a rice strain that has been genetically modified to make Vitamin-A
a)
Brown Rice
b)
Yellow Rice
c)
Golden Rice
d)
Vitamin Rice
94.

Modern biology works with 3 basic kinds of tools. What are they?

a)

bacteria, cells, viruses

b)

genes, DNA, RNA

c)

DNA, bacteria, enzymes

d)

Cells, proteins, genes

95.

Issues that refer to people’s moral values or the code of conduct by which they live

a)

Social issues

b)

Legal issues

c)

Cultural issues

d)

Ethical issues

96.

The intentional mating of two animals in an attempt to produce offspring with desirable characteristics or for the elimination of a trait.

a)

Transgenic Organisms

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Genetic Modification

d)

Genetic Engineering

97.

What type of science allows us to alter the DNA of a corn plant so that it will contain more protein?

a)

biology

b)

biotechnology

c)

geology

d)

physiology

98.

Which person would benefit most from biotechnology?

a)

a cook

b)

a farmer

c)

an architect

d)

an automobile engineer

99.

Which are most closely related to biotechnology?

a)

medicine and agriculture

b)

construction and engineering

c)

water treatment and electricity generation

d)

communication and information technology

100.

Genetic engineering has directly increased productivity in which US industry?

a)

automobile

b)

agriculture

c)

media

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