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LS 3rd Quarter CSA (in class)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Selective breeding has resulted in plants that are resistant to pest and produce a higher yield of fruits and vegetables. Which of these is the most likely disadvantage that can result from this process?

a)

decreased genetic diversity

b)

habitat destruction

c)

overpopulation

d)

increased erosion

2.

A student is predicting whether the seeds of pea plants produced by the cross shows in the Punnett square will be green or yellow. Green (G) seeds are dominant, and Yellow (y) seeds are recessive. This cross will produce what percentage of offspring?

a)

100% round, 0% wrinkled

b)

75% round, 25% wrinkled

c)

50% round, 50% wrinkled

d)

25% round, 75% wrinkled

3.

Which of these most likely determines if a mutation will become an adaptation in a species?

a)

genetic variation

b)

mitosis

c)

natural selection

d)

succession

4.

In a tropical rainforest, shrubs and plants grow better in areas where a canopy tree has fallen. Which most likely occurs in the area where the tree falls that helps the plants and shrubs grow taller?

a)

A decrease in competition for sunlight

b)

A decrease in the amount of rainfall

c)

An increase in the competition for sunlight

d)

An increase in the amount of rainfall

5.

In the 7th grade science class, the students planted wheat seeds to study the effects of sunlight on the growth of the plants. Each group was given two plants, which they put one in the light and one in the dark. Each group measured the growth of the plants every other day for three weeks and recorded the amount of time the plants were in their condition. What is the dependent variable?

a)

The same plants

b)

The sunlight and darkness

c)

The growth of the plant

d)

The plants used just in the sunlight

6.

There are many factors that influence the population changes of an ecosystem. Which of these does not influence population size in an ecosystem?

a)

birthrates of animals

b)

an animal's weight

c)

number of animals in habitats

d)

the size of the habitat

7.

Which type of characteristics can be inherited?

a)

Those caused by accidents

b)

Those controlled by genes

c)

Those produced by diet

d)

Those produced by exercise

8.

Mendel's early work with pea plants demonstrated a significant genetic discovery. the crossing of homozygous tall pea plants with homozygous short pea plants always resulted in tall plants and demonstrated that tallness in pea plants is a trait that is -

a)

blended

b)

dominant

c)

mutated

d)

recessive

9.

Finches found on the isolated Galapagos islands are different species with different beak sizes and shapes, but are otherwise similar to a finch species found on the South American mainland. What might be the cause of the differences in the development of beaks of these Galapagos finces?

a)

The different types of food available on the islands

b)

The original source of the finches

c)

The type of predators found on the islands

d)

The differences in the types of nests the birds built

10.

A rainforest area is experiencing a severe drought. As a consequence, the insect population has decreased. What will the insect-eating birds most likely do as a result of the drought?

a)

stop searching for food until it begins to rain

b)

begin reproducing to increase population

c)

move to a new area to find food

d)

start the process of hibernation

11.

Which is the most likely explanation for the change in the beaver population during period 2?

a)

The fish population decreased

b)

The wolf population increased

c)

A natural predator suffered a disease

d)

A new predator was introduced

12.

Genetic crosses involving a particular type of flower exhibit complete dominance with respect to petal color. Red (R) is dominant to white (r). Using the Punnett square, what is the expected percentage of offspring that will have white flowers fro a cross of parent flowers with a genotype of Rr.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

13.

The distribution of chromosomes for one type of cell division is shown in the diagram below. Which process types of cells are represented?

a)

Meiosis, which produces gametes

b)

Mitosis, which produces gametes

c)

Mitosis, which produces body cells

d)

Meiosis, which produces body cells

14.

What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

The offspring are identical to the parents

b)

The offspring are resistant to viruses

c)

The offspring are born live, rather than in eggs

d)

The offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information

15.

the diagram shows a sea star in various stages of regeneration. Which process is directly responsible for this regeneration?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Respiration

d)

Binary fission

16.

In Deoxyribonucleic acid, cytosine pairs with the nitrogen base -

a)

uracil

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

guanine

17.

What forms the chemical code within a molecule of DNA?

a)

The arrangement of the nitrogenous bases

b)

The arrangement fo the sugars and bases

c)

The arrangement fo the chromosomes

d)

The arrangement of the phosphates and sugars

18.

DNA is sometimes referred to as a ladder. Which two molecules make up the sides of the DNA ladder?

a)

phosphate and nitrogen base

b)

nitrogen base and ribose

c)

phosphate and ribose

d)

phosphate and deoxyribose

19.

Widow's peak (W) is a dominant trait. Straight hairline (w) is a recessive trait. If parents that are both hybrids (Ww) for the trait have 4 children, how many of the 4 children will express widow's peak?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

In a genotype, what does the lower case letter represent?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Multiple dominance

c)

The dominant trait

d)

The recessive trait

21.

Interphase is

a)

The longest stage in the cell cycle

b)

The process in which the cell divides

c)

When the cell absorbs water

d)

The third stage in mitosis

22.

According to the Punnett Square, what are the genotypes of the parents?

a)

Ww and Ww

b)

WW and WW

c)

ww and Ww

d)

ww and ww

23.

Which phase of mitosis is this?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

24.
a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

25.

What phase of mitosis is this?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

26.

Which genotype for flower color is a hybrid?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

RR and rr

27.

In the Punnett square, Black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). What is the phenotype of all four offspring?

a)

Black fur

b)

White fur

c)

Black and white fur

d)

Brown fur

28.

Of the traits listed in the chart, which are inherited traits?

a)

B, C, E, and H

b)

A, B, C, and F

c)

A, D, E, and F

d)

A, D, F, and G

29.

Which statement best explains the similarities between the limbs?

a)

All four vertebrates move in the same way

b)

These four vertebrates share a common ancestor

c)

The limbs can be used in water or on land

d)

A lizard is an ancestor of a frog

30.

Trilobite fossils have been found in rock that is 521 million years old. They have also been found in rocks that are more than 252 million years old. Trilobite fossils have not been found in younger or older rocks. What does this tell you?

a)

Trilobites became extinct 252 million years ago

b)

Trilobites became extinct 521 million years ago

c)

Trilobites lived on Earth for 252 million years

d)

Trilobites lived on Earth more than 521 million years ago

31.

Select each statement that explains why the fossil record is considered incomplete.

a)

Not all organisms become fossils

b)

Some organisms have not been extinct long enough

c)

There were times when fossils didn't form

d)

There are still fossils that haven't been found

32.

These images represent the limbs of extinct organisms found in the fossil record. Which is the youngest (most recent)?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

33.

Which of the following characteristics are controlled by a person's genes? Choose all of the correct answers.

a)

How long their eyelashes are

b)

How many friends they have

c)

How many freckles they have

d)

How many fingers they have

34.

Tightly wound bundles of DNA are called -

a)

Punnett squares

b)

Nuclei

c)

Phosphates

d)

Chromosomes

35.

Tightly wound bundles of DNA are called –

a)

Punnett squares

b)

Nuclei

c)

Phospohates

d)

Chromosomes

36.

What is the relationship between DNA and chromosomes?

a)

DNA forces chromosomes to mutate

b)

DNA and chromosomes are the same thing

c)

Chromosomes are made out of DNA

d)

DNA is made out of chromosomes

37.

Why are your chromosomes arranged in pairs?

a)

Scientists aren't sure

b)

Because you get one from your mother, and one from your father

c)

Because pairs are able to divide more easily

d)

Because DNA has a double helix structure

38.

Which statement is best supported by the graph?

a)

The percentage of male daily smokers increased the most between 1976 and 1980.

b)

Between 1977 and 1989, a greater percentage of daily smokers were female than male.

c)

The percentage of female daily smokers decreased every year from 1976 to 1991.

d)

Between 1984 and 1991, the percentage of male daily smokers decreased.

39.

This picture shows an ocean ecosystem. What would most likely happen if all the seaweed and aquatic plants were removed from this community?

a)

There would be more oxygen in the air.

b)

The ocean water currents would be slower.

c)

There would be less oxygen in the ocean.

d)

The animals would have fewer places to hide.

40.

The fossil record documents the _____ of life-forms throughout the history of life on Earth. Select each word that correctly completes the statement (3)

a)

change

b)

diversity

c)

entire number

d)

extinction

41.

The fossil record documents the _____ of life-forms throughout the history of life on Earth. Select each word that correctly completes the statement.

a)

extinction

b)

environment

c)

age

d)

mating behavior

42.

Which of the following best describes what we mean when we talk about the fossil record?

a)

Leaf imprints found in hardened mud

b)

The history of fossils in the last 400,000 years

c)

A fossil found in rock

d)

All the fossils that have been discovered

43.

Select each statement that explains why the fossil record is considered incomplete (3)

a)

Not all organisms become fossils.

b)

Some organisms have not been extinct long enough.

c)

There were times when fossils didn’t form.

d)

There are still fossils that haven’t been found.

44.

Look at the image attached. Fossils were discovered in four different layers of rock, A, B, C, and D. Choose the statement that does not belong.

a)

Fossils found in layer A are most likely older than fossils found in layer B.

b)

The age of a fossil is the same as the age of the rock it is found in.

c)

Organisms with shells appeared before tetrapods.

d)

According to the principle of superposition, layer D represents the oldest rock.

45.

Dogs can inherit four features: fur pattern, fur length, ear length, and tail length. The alleles are expressed as shown:

If a dog has solid colored fur, what must its genotype be?

a)

ff

b)

FF

c)

Ff

d)

ee

46.

Dogs can inherit four features: fur pattern, fur length, ear length, and tail length. The alleles are expressed as shown:

If a dog's genotype is Tt, what length would its tail (phenotype) be?

a)

Long

b)

Short

47.

Dogs can inherit four features: fur pattern, fur length, ear length, and tail length. The alleles are expressed as shown:

Two dogs mate and have puppies. Both parent dogs are heterozygous for spotted fur. What is the probability of puppies that will have solid-colored fur?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

0%

48.

A snapdragon produces either yellow or white flowers. The dominant allele (Y) produces yellow flower color and the recessive allele (y) produces white color. What combination or combinations of alleles could produce white flowers? Choose the one correct answer.

a)

YY

b)

Yy or YY

c)

Yy or yy

d)

yy

49.

The hereditary material that controls all cellular activities is called

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

chloroplasts

d)

cytoplasm

50.

What forms the chemical code within a molecule of DNA?

a)

The arrangement  of the phosphates and sugars

b)

The arrangement  of the sugars and bases

c)

The arrangement  of the  chromosomes

d)

The arrangement  of the nitrogenous bases

51.

Which two molecules make up the backbone of DNA?

a)

Deoxyribose sugar

b)

Ribose sugar

c)

Phosphate

d)

Adenine

52.

What is interphase?

a)

The stage of the cell cycle where one cell divides into two cells.

b)

The stage of the cell cycle where the cell performs its normal functions and copies its DNA

c)

The part of the cell cycle where chromosomes condense.

d)

The part of the cell cycle where chromosomes pull away from each other.

53.

If one side of a DNA molecule read ATAAGGC, what would the other side be?

a)

TATTCCG

b)

TATTGGT

c)

ATAAGGC

d)

CGGAATA

54.

Which of these cell parts has DNA?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Cell wall

55.

How many chromosomes does a human body cell have?

a)

23

b)

26

c)

46

d)

42

56.

Which cell division is necessary to produce sperm and egg cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Metaphase

d)

Interphase

57.

Which stage of the cell cycle has just finished?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Cytokinesis

58.

Which would best allow a species to survive environmental changes?

a)

genetic diversity

b)

low mutation rate

c)

Thick fur coat

d)

Cooperation within the species

59.

What happens to a population and to competition when there is a reduction of living space?

a)

The population increases as competition decreases.

b)

Competition strengthens while the population contracts.

60.

Which best determines the number of wolves that can live in an area?

a)

the number of birds living in the area

b)

the amount of food available in the area