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Immunology 2

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How long does adaptive immunity take time to develop?

a)

fast

b)

5-7 days

c)

2-3 months

2.

Which of the following are carried out by the third line of defense?

a)

phagocytes

b)

t-lymphocytes

c)

b-lymphocytes

3.

What types of lymphocytes are B-lymphocytes?

a)

antibodies

b)

helpers

c)

killers

4.

The adaptive immunity requires time to grow enough specific T cells to grow the viral infection.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

Which of the following is not a fundamental property of acquired immunity?

a)

subject to learning

b)

exhibit specificity

c)

exhibit diversity

d)

capable of memory

e)

All of the above

6.

What are the two branches of the adaptive immune response?

a)

Ab response

b)

cell-mediated response

c)

All of the above

7.

The antibody response is against

a)

extracellular toxins and bacteria

b)

intracellular toxins and bacteria

8.

Which of the following is required for the antibody response?

a)

Helper-T

b)

Killer-T

c)

cytotoxic t-cells

d)

None of the above

9.

Which of the following is required for the cell-mediated response?

a)

CTL

b)

Killer T cells

c)

T-helper cells

d)

All of the above

10.

Where do B-lymphocytes mature and originate?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

11.

What type of cells is capable of antibody production?

a)

macrophages

b)

monocyte

c)

plasma cells

d)

neutrophils

12.

B cells can act as Ag presenting cells?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

Ag binding to the unique Ag-binding receptor (BCR) on a B cell causes it to divide rapidly and produce Ab for specific that Ag

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

Each B cell can ONLY make one specificity of Ab.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

What can Abs be found?

a)

stuck on the surface of t-cells

b)

stuck on the surface of B-cells

c)

secreted

d)

circulating in the blood & lymph or patrolling mucosal surfaces

16.

What are the two functions of antibodies?

a)

bind specifically to pathogens

b)

bind to receptors

c)

recruit other cells to destroy the pathogen

d)

All of the above

17.

Which region is the binding site for the antigen?

a)

variable region

b)

constant region

18.

What part of the antigen is used in the recruitment of other pathogens?

a)

variable region

b)

constant region

19.

Which of the following binds to the receptors on immune cells?

a)

constant region

b)

variable region

20.

where on the antigen does the antibody hide?

a)

paratope

b)

epitope

c)

none of the above

21.

Different antibodies can recognize a different epitopes on the same pathogen.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

What type of epitopes does antibody usually recognise?

a)

internal

b)

external

23.

Maturation of mature b cells into memory cells, antibody, and plasma cells occurs in

a)

bone marrow

b)

peripheral lymphoid tissue

c)

thymus

24.

Memory cells, antibodies, and plasma cells are all clones of B cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

Memory cells, antibodies, and plasma cells all have identical antigen specificity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

Memory B cells facilitate quick response to familiar antigens.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

Which of the following are activities of antibody?

a)

opsonization

b)

complement activation

c)

Ab dependent cellular cytotoxicity ADCC

d)

neutralization

e)

Agglutination

28.

Which of the following is true for opsonization?

a)

prepare to eat

b)

coating antigen with Ab can enhance phagocytosis

c)

leads to inflammation

d)

lyse the bacterial cell

29.

Which of the following is true for complement activation?

a)

leads to lysis of the bacterial cell

b)

leads opsonization

c)

leads to inflammation

d)

Ab binding to the bacterial can act as the activating step for the complement system

e)

All of the above

30.

What is ADCC steps

a)

Antibody-coated bacterium binds to the Fc receptors on the cell surface

b)

macrophage membrane surrounds the bacterium

c)

Macrophage membrane fuses creating bound vesicles called the phagosome

d)

Lysosome fuse with the phagosome creating the phagolysosme

e)

ALL of the above

31.

Which of the following is not involved in neutralization?

a)

Abs can bind toxins and block their activity

b)

Abs can bind on the surface and block adhesions

c)

Abs can clump together

32.

Agglutination involve the clumping together of antigens by antibodies.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

A single B cell is capable of expressing each isotope at different times in the immune response

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

34.

Ag specificity of Abs from a single B cell is the same regardless of isotope

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

What is the first Ag produced by an antibody?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

36.

What type of antibody is IgM?

a)

monomer

b)

dimer

c)

pentamer

37.

How many pentamers is IgM?

a)

10

b)

2

c)

1

38.

What is the membrane-bound form of IgM

a)

BCR

b)

Serum IgM

39.

What is the pentameric form of IgM?

a)

BCR

b)

serum

40.

Which of the following is true for IgM?

a)

Serum IgM bind many Ag at the same time

b)

Highly efficient

c)

Good at activating complement

d)

J-chain facilitates secretion to mucosa

e)

All of the above

41.

Which of the following is a function of IgM?

a)

monomer act as BCR

b)

Pentamer is complement activation

c)

Pentamer in neutraliza

d)

Pentamer in agglutination

e)

All of the above

42.

Which of the following are true for T-lymphocytes?

a)

Circulate in the lymph and blood and migrate to the lymph nodes, spleen, and peyers's patch

b)

antigen-binding sites are complimentary to epitope

c)

Have highly specific T-cell receptors on the plasma membrane

d)

All of the above

43.

TCR do not recognize epitope directly but only epitopes are associated with MHC protein

a)

True

b)

False

44.

T cell act primarily against body cells that Harbour intracellular parasite.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which of the following is characteristic of IgG?

a)

Capable of crossing the placenta

b)

binds Fc receptors on phagocytic cells (opsonization)

c)

involved in complement activation

d)

All of the above

46.

Which of the two is membrane-bound on mature B-cells?

a)

IgD

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

47.

Which of the following has no biological function?

a)

IgD

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

48.

Which of the following mediates hypersensitivity reactions (hay fever, asthma, hives, anaphylactic shock?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgD

d)

IgM

49.

What is the predominant Ab in external secretions such as breast milk, saliva, tears, mucous?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

50.

Which of the following protects newborns during the 1st month?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgD

d)

IgM

51.

Which of the following prevents attachment of pathogens to the mucosa and inhibits colonization?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgD

d)

IgM

52.

What type of Ab is IgA?

a)

2 monomer

b)

4 dimer

c)

10 pentamer

53.

Which of the following has 2 monomer

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

e)

All of the above

54.

Where is IgG located?

a)

serum

b)

mast cells

c)

b cells surface

55.

Where is IgA located?

a)

serum-monomer

b)

dimer in the mucous membrane

c)

dimer in milk

d)

All of the above

56.

Where is IgM located?

a)

serum

b)

mucous membranes

c)

milk secretions

d)

mast cells surfaces

57.

Where is IgE located?

a)

mast cell surfaces

b)

serum

c)

B-cell surfaces

58.

Where is IgD located

a)

serum

b)

B-cell surface

c)

All of the above

59.

Which of the following is a function of IgG?

a)

complement activation

b)

neutralization and opsonization

c)

h2o2 production

d)

ADCC

e)

All of the above

60.

Which of the following is a function of IgA?

a)

NEUTRALIZATION

b)

secretion

c)

opsonization

d)

All of the above

61.

IgE triggers the release of antiparasitic molecules from eosinophils and of histamines from basophils and mast cells

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

62.

IgE specific for an allergen binds Fc receptors on mast cells or basophils

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.

When the allergen is encountered the cell is activated?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

IgE causes a release of histamine

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

Where are the T lymphocytes produced and mature?

a)

produced and mature in the bone marrow

b)

produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus

66.

Which of the following are true for T cells?

a)

Circulate in the lymph and blood and migrate to the lymph nodes, spleen, and Peter's patch

b)

Antigen-binding sites are complementary to epitopes

c)

Have highly specific T cell receptors on plasma membranes

d)

TCR do not recognize epitopes directly, but only epitopes associated with MHC protein

e)

All of the above

67.

TCR act primarily against body cells that Harbour intracellular pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What is the function of helper T cell?

a)

Send signals to activate other parts of the immune response

b)

Repress adaptive immune responses

c)

Directly kill altered-self cells

69.

What is the function of cytotoxic T cell?

a)

Send signals to activate other parts of the immune response

b)

Repress adaptive immune responses

c)

Directly kill altered-self cells

70.

What is the function of regulatory T cell?

a)

Send signals to activate other parts of the immune response

b)

Repress adaptive immune responses

c)

Directly kill altered-self cells

71.

T cells recognize antigen through TCR

a)

True

b)

False

72.

T cell recognize Ag bound by MHC

a)

True

b)

False

73.

T cell recognize bound antigen whereas B cell recognize free Ag

a)

True

b)

False

74.

CTL directly kills virally infected cells, tumors

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The only people with the same MHC are identical twins

a)

True

b)

False

76.

How many MHCI are there?

a)

6

b)

8

77.

How many MHCII are they

a)

6

b)

8

78.

In humans the MHC is the human leukocyte antigen

a)

True

b)

False

79.

What are MHCI and MHCII

a)

Self peptides

b)

Highway warning signs

c)

All of the above

80.

Under normal conditions what is the role of MCH molecules

a)

Present self peptides

b)

Let t cells know there is no danger

c)

When there is an infection MHC let the T cells know

d)

All of the above

81.

Self peptides indicate that everything is ok

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Foreign peptide indicate danger

a)

True

b)

False

83.

What are the function of MHC1?

a)

present on almost all body cells, self marker

b)

Present mainly on macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells

84.

Which of the following are not antigen presenting cells/phagocytic cells?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

B cells

85.

Cytotoxic T cells recognize antigen presented on which MHC?

a)

MHCI

b)

MHCII

86.

Which MHC recognizes antigen presented on MHCII?

a)

CTL

b)

T helper

87.

Helper T cells is important for the intiation of the adaptive immune response.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Along which MHC I and MHCII are antigen peptide

a)

T cell receptors

b)

CD-8

c)

CD-4

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

89.

Genetic variation

in both the TCR and the MHC contributes to the ability of the immune systems to recognize different antigen

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Peptides for MHCI are obtained from degraded proteins

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Which of the following is for endogenous Ag?

a)

MHCI

b)

MHCII

92.

Which of the following are exogenous Ag?

a)

MHCI

b)

MHCII

93.

Viral proteins are degraded and loaded onto MHC-1 in the ER

a)

True

b)

False

94.

MHC-1 with viral peptides is transported to cell surface

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Foreign peptides on MHc-1 indicate intracellular infection

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which cells can recognize MHC-I/peptide?

a)

CTL

b)

Helper T

97.

MHC-I kill infected cells

a)

True

b)

False

98.

In MHC-II phagocytic cell take up bacteria or toxin

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Peptides form digestion are loaded on MHC-11

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Foreign peptides on MHC-II indicates APC has encountered & phagocytosed Ag (usually bacteria or toxin)

a)

True

b)

False

101.

What cell recognize MHC-II

a)

Helper t

b)

Killer t

102.

MHCII/peptide is transported to the cell surface

a)

True

b)

False

103.

What this the mode of entry of MHC-I

a)

Endogenous Ag produced inside the cell (viral proteins)

b)

Exogenous Ag picked up by phagocytosis (bacteria)

104.

What this the mode of entry of MHC-II

a)

Endogenous Ag produced inside the cell (viral proteins)

b)

Exogenous Ag picked up by phagocytosis (bacteria)

105.

What is the site of processing for MHC-I

a)

Processed by proteasome in cytoplasm

b)

Processed in phagolysosome

106.

What is the site of processing for MHC-II

a)

Processed by proteasome in cytoplasm

b)

Processed in phagolysosome

107.

Which of the following occurs when there is no infection?

a)

Peptides from normal self proteins are processed and presented on MHCI and MHCII

b)

Self peptides DO NOT activate the immune response (except in autoimmunity

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

108.

TCR/MHCI recognition results in death of infected self cell.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

TCR/MHC-II results in APC activation

a)

True

b)

False

110.

MHC-II binding does not result in direct Killing because the APCs are not infected, they are just signaling danger

a)

True

b)

False

111.

-B- cells make Abs

-Macrophages become efficient phagocytes

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Where is MHC class one found?

a)

Professional antigen presenting cells

b)

Almost all body cells

113.

Where is MHCII found?

a)

Professional antigen presenting cells?

b)

Almost all body cells

114.

MHCI present intracellular peptides

a)

True

b)

False

115.

MHCI presents antigen to killer T

a)

True

b)

False

116.

MHC-I presenting cell is killed

a)

True

b)

False

117.

In MHCi normal self peptides means safe and no killing. Foreign self peptides indicate danger.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

MHCII present to extracellular peptides

a)

True

b)

False

119.

MHCII present to extracellular peptide

a)

True

b)

False

120.

MHCII presents Ag to helperT cells?

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Function of MHCII activated presenting cell is to alter Helper T cell if dangerous proteins are present in the body

a)

True

b)

False

122.

-Normal self peptides- safe

-Helper T doesn't help immune cells to become activated

a)

True

b)

False

123.

In MHCII foreign or altered self peptides danger, T-helpers help immune cells become activated

a)

True

b)

False

124.

T-helper cells (CD4+) are central to the adaptive immune response

a)

True

b)

False

125.

What are the type.of the adaptive immune response?

a)

Humoral response

b)

Cell-mediated response

c)

All of the above

126.

What is natural acquired active immunity?

a)

Individual exposed to Ag in course of daily like

b)

Subclinical infection can confer immunity

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

127.

Which of the following defines naturally acquired passive immunity?

a)

Natural transfer of Abs

b)

Maternal transfer of Abs over placenta or through breast milk

c)

All of the following

d)

None of the above

128.

Artificially acquired active immunity:

a)

Is a results of vaccinations, prepared Ags/vaccine are introduced

b)

Vaccine/Abs are altered so they can't cause disease, but rather stimulate an immune response

c)

All of the above

129.

What is artificially acquired passive Immunity?

a)

Introduction of preformed Abs from an animal or person who is already immune to the disease

b)

None of the above

130.

What is necrosis?

a)

Who cell destroyed at once

b)

Programmed cell death

131.

Which of the following is true for necrosis?

a)

Brusing is an example of necrosis

b)

Leads to induction of inflammatory pathway

c)

Leads to rapid clearance of killed cells with no inflammation

d)

Who cell destroyed at once

132.

Which of the following is true for apoptosis?

a)

Programmed cell death

b)

Prevents release of potentially damaging cellular elements into host tissues

c)

Leads to rapid clearance of killed cell with no inflammation

d)

Mechanism used by killer T cells to eliminate altered self cells

e)

All of the above

133.

EBV is caused by the inhibitions of apoptosis

a)

True

b)

False

134.

Vaccines are considered the deliberate induction of immunity by injecting a non-pathogen form of pathogen

a)

True

b)

False

135.

What are the 6 types of

a)

Attenuated live vaccine

b)

Inactivated whole-agent vaccine

c)

Toxoid

d)

Subunit

e)

All of the above

136.

Which of the following is not a type of vaccine?

a)

Conjugate vaccine

b)

Nucleic acid vaccine

c)

Toxoid

d)

All of the above

137.

Which of the following is True for Attenuated whole-agent vaccine?

a)

Living but weakened microbes, closely mimics actual infection

b)

95% effective

c)

Often life-long immunity

d)

Example: SABIN, MMR

e)

All of the above

138.

A disadvantage is AWAV is very slight risk that agent may mutate back to virulent form.

Not suitable for people with compromised immune system

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Which of the following are examples of inactivated whole agent vaccine (microbes that have been killed)?

a)

Rabies

b)

Salk

c)

Influenza

d)

Pertussis

e)

All of the above

140.

What is an example of subunit vaccine?

a)

Hep-B

b)

Hep-C

c)

Hep-D

d)

Influenza

141.

Which of the following is true for subunit vaccine?

a)

Made of only antigenic fragment of microorganisms

b)

Produced by genetic engineering

c)

Must be capable of stimulating immune response

d)

Bacteria or yeast produce the protein of interest

e)

All of the above

142.

Which of the following is true for subunit vaccine?

a)

Recombinant vaccine

b)

Yeast cells make an antigenic portion of the protein coat

c)

All of the above

143.

Which of the following has a toxoid vaccine?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Diphtheria

c)

Hep-B

d)

Hep-C

144.

Which of the following is true for toxoid vaccine?

a)

Directed toward the toxin

b)

Effective when toxin is major pathogenicity factor

c)

Requires booster for full immunity

d)

All of the above

145.

Which of the following is true for conjugated vaccine?

a)

Used for organisms that have polysaccharides capsules and poor antigenicity

b)

Combine polysaccharides with antigen protein, good response

c)

Children under 2 can't respond to polysaccharides alone as antigens

d)

All of the above

146.

Which of the following is true for Nucleic acid vaccine?

a)

Still in research and development

b)

Inject DNA for antigenic proteins

c)

Protein produced, capable of generating immune response

d)

RNA might work better

e)

very promising

147.

The lab method for Identification of Bacteria is based on

a)

Phage typing (specific host range)

b)

DNA composition (PCR)

c)

Biochemical test (enzymatic activity)

d)

Serology (blood serum elements)

e)

All of the above

148.

Why are Abs are well used for serological Testing?

a)

ELISA

b)

Titration/Titer

c)

Agglutination

d)

All of the above

149.

Why are Abs well used for serological testing?

a)

Very specific

b)

Easy to obtain

c)

Ab techniques give reliable results

d)

All of the above

150.

Titration/Titration in an immunological context, the quantity of the Ab present in a solution

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Which of the following is true for Elisa?

a)

Many variations are possible

b)

Color change indicates positive result (positive ELISA results must be confirmed with further testing

c)

Used in home pregnancy test

d)

Used in HIV test

e)

All of the above

152.

Which of the following is true for indirect ELISA (looking for Ab)

a)

Coat dish with known Ag

b)

Add patient sample (wash to remove unbound or non-specific Ab

c)

Add secondary Ab (with enzymatic activity) wash to remove unbound Ab

d)

Add enze substrate (color change = positive result)

e)

All of the above

153.

Which of the following is true for sandwich (direct elisa) look for Ag?

a)

Coat dish with known Ab

b)

Add patient sample (wash to remove unbound or non-specific Ag)

c)

Add secondary Ab (with enzymatic activity), was to remove unbound Ab

d)

Add enzyme substrate (Ag is present) color change = positive result

e)

All of the above

154.

During agglutination particles can be linked together to form visnle aggregate.

a)

Detection is rela sensitive

b)

Unknown bacterial sample in saline placed on slide

c)

Know antibodies added

d)

Positive result: visible clumping

e)

All of the above

155.

For rapid identification: slide agglutination

a)

Patient sample + Ab for suspected bacteria

b)

Mix on slide

c)

Positive result: visible agglutination meaning bacteria is present

d)

All of the above

156.

Patient sample (blood) + Ab for possible blood types

a)

Mix on slides

b)

Positive result: visible agglutination meaning the blood is of a certain type (has the AG on their cells)

c)

All of the above

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