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Chem84

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What happens when the sodium atom loses an electron?
a)
It become negatively charged 
b)
It become positively charged
c)
none
2.
Which of the following has a full valence shell?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Neon
c)
Barium
d)
Carbon
3.
An ionic bond forms when atoms ___________ electrons.
a)
gain
b)
share
c)
increase
d)
transfer
4.
Which type of bond has an equal sharing of electrons?
a)
Polar Covalent 
b)
Non Polar Covalent
c)
Ionic
d)
Metallic
5.
Which type of bond has a transfer of an electron from on atom to another?
a)
Polar Covalent 
b)
Non Polar Covalent
c)
Ionic
d)
Metallic
6.
If an atom loses two electrons what charge will it have?
a)
+ 2
b)
 - 2
c)
+1
d)
-1
7.
When electrons are shared unequally a/an ___________ bond is formed 
a)
ionic 
b)
hydrogen
c)
polar covalent 
d)
nonpolar covalent
8.
Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?
a)
They form hard, brittle crystals with characteristic shapes
b)
They have low melting points
c)
They have low boiling points
d)
They contain no charged particles
9.
Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?
a)
They form hard, brittle crystals with characteristic shapes
b)
They have low melting points
c)
They have low boiling points
d)
They contain no charged particles
10.
In what form can an ionic compound conduct electricity?
a)
when dissolved in water
b)
as a solid
c)
as a crystal
d)
when warmed slightly
11.
What is the chemical name for the compound with the formula Na₂S?
a)
sodium sulfide
b)
sodium fluoride
c)
magnesium sulfide
d)
lithium oxide
12.
What is the name of PS3?
a)
phosphorus trisulfide
b)
phosphorus chloride
c)
phosphide trisulfide
d)
phosphate
13.
The bonds in Na2O are best described as 
a)
a.  covalent, because valence electrons are shared.
b)
covalent, because valence electrons are transferred
c)
ionic, because valance electrons are shared.
d)
ionic, because valance electrons are transferred. 
14.
Atoms gain or lose electrons to become stable by satisfying this rule.
a)
Lewis Structure rule
b)
Periodic Law
c)
octet rule
d)
Ionic Law
15.
What is a valence electron?
a)
an electron that is found in the outermost shell of an atom. 
b)
an electron found in the innermost shell of an atom.
c)
an electron found in the middle shell.
16.
Which is the correct lewis dot structure for calcium chloride?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
17.
According to the diagram below, how many bonds will this atom need to make to be stable?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
18.
This could be the dot diagram of
a)
Ne
b)
H
c)
C
d)
F
19.
How many more valence electrons does Oxygen need to be stable?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
4
d)
It's already stable with 8
20.
Name this compound:   MgS
a)
Sulfur Magnesium
b)
Magnesium Sulfate
c)
Magnesium Sulfur
d)
Magnesium Sulfide
21.
The atomic number tells you what?
a)
number of electrons
b)
number of protons
c)
number of neutrons
d)
both electrons and protons in an atom.
22.
Elements which are shiny, conduct electricity and heat are called
a)
metal
b)
nonmetal
c)
metalloid
d)
nonexistent
23.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
24.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
25.
If an atom had the same properties as fluorine (F), it would probably be located in
a)
period 1.
b)
period 2.
c)
group 2.
d)
group 17.
26.
Atoms with similar properties are most likely located...
a)
in the same period.
b)
in the same group.
c)
in different periods.
d)
to the right and left of each other.
27.
What is the element symbol for boron? 
a)
B
b)
Bo
c)
Bn
d)
W
28.
Each element is unique based on its number of protons, also known as the...
a)
atomic mass
b)
valence number
c)
atomic symbol
d)
atomic number
29.
The atomic number of this pictured element is
a)
28
b)
58.6934
c)
Ni
d)
Nickel
30.
what does the 6 represent?
a)
Atomic mass
b)
atomic number
c)
chemical symbol
d)
element name
31.
Group Name and Number for Neon
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals 2 or 2A
b)
Noble Gases 18 or 8A
c)
Halogens 17 or 7A
d)
Alkali Metals 1 or 1A
32.
Group Name and Number for Flourine
a)
Transition Metals 3-12
b)
Noble Gases 18 or 8A
c)
Halogens 17 or 7A
d)
Alkali Metals 1 or 1A
33.
Group Name and Number for Magnesium
a)
Alkaline Earth Metals 2 or 2A
b)
Noble Gases 18 or 8A
c)
Halogens 17 or 7A
d)
Alkali Metals 1 or 1A
34.
A proton is....
a)
A negatively charged subatomic particle
b)
A positively charged subatomic particle
c)
A neutrally charged subatomic particle
d)
The only subatomic particle located in the nucleus
35.
A neutron has a charge of
a)
+2
b)
No charge
c)
-1
d)
+1
36.
Which elements have the most similar chemical properties?
a)
K and Na
b)
K and Ca
c)
K and Cl
d)
K and S
37.
What is the atomic mass of Neon?
a)
10
b)
30
c)
10.18
d)
20.18
38.
Which is a neutron?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
39.
Who first developed the Periodic Table?
a)
Mendeleev
b)
Mosely
c)
Mendella
d)
Murphy
40.
What is the formula to solve for the neutron?
a)
Mass + Atomic Number= Neutrons
b)
Mass x Atomic Number = Neutrons
c)
Mass - Atomic Number = Neutrons
d)
Mass + Number of Protons = Neutron
41.

All matter consists of particles called

a)

Units

b)

Atoms

c)

Cubes

d)

Pints

42.

Atoms consist of parts called protons, neutrons, and

a)

Electons

b)

Haptons

c)

Neptons

d)

Wontons

43.

Each protons has a _______________ electrical charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

44.

Each electron has a _________________ electrical charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

45.

Each neutron has an electrically_________________charge

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

d)

Shocking

46.

The nucleus of an atom contains protons and_______________

a)

Electrons

b)

Haptons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Wontons

47.

Electrons move around_________________the nucleus

a)

Inside

b)

Outside

c)

On top of

d)

Without

48.

An element is determined by the number of ___________________ (also known as its atomic number).

a)

Neutrons

b)

Electrons

c)

Protons

d)

Wontons

49.

The modern periodic table is organized by _________________ atomic number.

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

c)

Reducing

d)

Developing

50.

A ___________________ is a combination of two or more atoms that are held together by covalent bonds.

a)

Moles

b)

Ions

c)

Molecules

d)

Megatrons

51.

Atom T has a proton number of 11 and a nucleon number of 23. Which of the following is true about element T?

a)

It does not conduct electricity

b)

If forms an oxide with the formula TO

c)

It is a hard black solid

d)

It reacts with water to form an alkaline solution

52.

Table shows the relative atomic masses of two elements, H and J. Element H and J are located in Group 1 of the Periodic Table. Which statements is true about elements H and J?

a)

H is more electropositive than J

b)

The melting point of J is higher than that of H

c)

The number of valence electrons in atom J is more than that of atom H

d)

J reacts with cold water more vigorously than H

53.

Which statements is correct about the alkali metals when going down Group 1 in the Periodic Table?

a)

The reactivity decreases

b)

Strength of nucleus to attract an electron into the valence shell increases

c)

Electropositivity decreases

d)

The single valence electron becomes more weakly pulled by the nucleus

54.

The following shows some information about element M.


1) element M forms ions with the formula M+

2) An M+ ion has an electron arrangement of 2.8


Element M will?

a)

reacts with red-hot iron to form a brown solid

b)

displaces hydrogen gas from cold water

c)

forms an acidic oxide

d)

cannot conduct electricity

55.

Group 1 elements are also known as

a)

Noble gas

b)

Halogen

c)

Alkaline earth metals

d)

Alkali metals

56.

Arrange the elements in group 1 from the top to bottom of the group.

a)

Li, Na, K, Fr, Rb, Cs

b)

Li, Na, K, Rb, Fr, Cs

c)

Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr

d)

Fr, Cs, Rb, K, Na, Li

57.

Group 1 elements only form ….. Ion

a)

1+

b)

1-

c)

2+

d)

2-

58.

What gas is given off when group 1 elements reacts with water?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Helium

59.

When a group 1 element reacts with water, a hydroxide is formed. What colour would Universal Indicator turn in this solution?

a)

Green

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

60.

How many electrons are in the outer shell of group 1 elements?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

61.

Why does the reactivity of group 1 elements increases down the group?

a)

It becomes more reactive

b)

It becomes easier to accept an electron

c)

It becomes easier to lose an electron

d)

It becomes less reactive

62.

Q and R are two elements located in the same group. The proton number of Q is 9. What is the possible electron arrangement of atom R?

a)

2.8.7

b)

2.8.8

c)

2.8.8.1

d)

2.8.8.4

63.

What is the factor that determines the chemical properties of an element?

a)

The number of electron shells

b)

The number of electrons in the innermost shell

c)

The number of electrons in the outermost shell

d)

The number of neutrons in the nucleus

64.

How many electrons are there on the outer shell of the Halogens?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

7

d)

9

65.

True or false? Halogens are metals.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

True or false? Halogens are good conductors of heat and electricity.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Are the Halogens toxic?

a)

Yes

b)

No

68.

Which Halogen is the most reactive?

a)

Bromine

b)

Fluorine

c)

Iodine

d)

Chlorine

69.

At room temperature, iodine is a....

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

70.

Which Halogen has the lowest melting point?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Bromine

c)

Iodine

d)

Chlorine

71.

In order to become stable do the halogens need to.....

a)

Gain an electron

b)

Lose an electron

72.

At room temperature, chlorine is...

a)

a green gas

b)

a brown gas

c)

a green liquid

d)

a brown liquid

73.

Which is the least reactive?

a)
b)
c)
d)
74.
What state is fluorine at room temperature?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
75.

What is the name of HCl(g)

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Hydrogen chloride

76.
What type of ions do the Group 7 elements make?
a)
positive 2 (+2)
b)
positive 1 (+1)
c)
negative 1 (-1)
d)
negative 2 (-2)
77.

What colour is bromine?

a)

red-brown

b)

orange-red

c)

yellow-green

d)

yellow

78.

Which of the following statements best define the term ‘salt’?

a)

Salt is formed when metal reacts with an alkali.

b)

Salt contains sodium ions and chloride ions.

c)

Salt is formed from a weak Van der Waals’ forces of attraction.

d)

Salt is formed when the hydrogen ions in an acid is replaced by metal or ammonium ions.

79.

Which of the following reaction can produce sodium nitrate and water?

a)

Sodium chloride solution and nitric acid.

b)

Sodium sulphate solution and nitric acid.

c)

Sodium hydroxide solution and nitric acid.

d)

Sodium and dilute nitric acid.

80.

Which of the following is true about the soluble and insoluble salt?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

Which of the following salts can be prepared by using double decomposition method?

a)

Silver chloride

b)

Barium nitrate

c)

Sodium carbonate

d)

Lead (II) nitrate

82.

Which of the following are the physical characteristics of salt crystal?


I They have similar size.

II They have fixed angle.

III They have fixed geometrical shapes.

IV They have flat surface, straight edges and sharp angles.

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

83.

Which of the following substances can be used to prepare copper (II) chloride by reaction with hydrochloric acid?


I Copper (II) oxide

II Copper (II) nitrate

III Copper (II) carbonate

IV Copper (II) hydroxide

a)

I, II and III

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

II, III and IV

84.

Which of the following reagents are suitable to prepare lead (II) sulphate salt?

a)

Lead (II) oxide and sulphuric acid.

b)

Lead (II) carbonate and sulphuric acid.

c)

Lead (II) nitrate and potassium sulphate.

d)

Lead (II) chloride and sodium sulphate.

85.

Which of the following mixture will react to produce an aqueous zinc nitrate solution?


I Zinc carbonate and dilute nitric acid.

II Zinc oxide and dilute nitric acid.

III Zinc oxide and potassium nitrate solution.

IV Zinc and aqueous sodium nitrate solution.

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

III and IV

d)

I and IV

86.

What is the volume of alkali needed to produce 0.745 g of salt?

[Relative atomic mass: K = 39, H = 1, O = 16, Cl = 35.5]

a)

5 cm3

b)

10 cm3

c)

15 cm3

d)

20 cm3

87.

6.8 g of calcium carbonate reacts with 50 cm3 of 1 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid, HCl. Determine the mass of calcium carbonate that has not taken part in the reaction.

[Relative atomic mass: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16]

a)

2.5 g

b)

3.8 g

c)

4.3 g

d)

5.5 g

88.

Which of the following is true about the use of salt?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

89.

Which of the following pairs of solutions will produce a white precipitate?

a)

Lead (II) nitrate and sodium chloride.

b)

Magnesium nitrate and sodium sulphate.

c)

Calcium nitrate and sodium chloride.

d)

Barium sulphate and sodium chloride.

90.

Sodium carbonate solution is added into copper (II) nitrate solution in an experiment. What is the colour of the precipitate obtained?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

White

d)

Brown

91.

Which of the following ions is in white precipitate and insoluble in excess sodium hydroxide solution?

a)

Al3+

b)

Pb2+

c)

Zn2+

d)

Mg2+

92.

An aqueous iron (II) sulphate is added with aqueous sodium hydroxide and aqueous barium chloride. Which of the following is true about the observation of both the reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

93.

Solution X is mixed with the following reagents.

i) dilute sulphuric acid

ii) iron(II) sulphate

iii) concentrated sulphuric acid


Brown ring is formed at the end of the reaction. What is the solution X?

a)

Barium chloride

b)

Sodium nitrate

c)

Potassium sulphate

d)

Magnesium oxide

94.

A few drops of sodium hydroxide, NaOH solution, is added to an aqueous solution. A green precipitate is formed. Which of the following may be present in the solution?

a)

Cu2+

b)

Fe2+

c)

Fe3+

d)

NH4+

95.

A substance, P, dissolves in dilute hydrochloric acid to produce a gas which turn lime water milky. When aqueous sodium hydroxide is added, a brown precipitate is formed. What is probably P?

a)

Iron (III) carbonate

b)

Zinc carbonate

c)

Magnesium carbonate

d)

Lead (II) carbonate

96.

The following tests are conducted on solution X as shown in Table 1. Which of the following ions is present in solution X?

a)

Ca2+

b)

Zn2+

c)

Mg2+

d)

Pb2+

97.

The following information explains the properties of P.

Which of the following is P?

a)

Barium sulphate

b)

Silver chloride

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Lead (II) carbonate

98.

Which of the following is not a type of salt?

a)

Normal salts

b)

Acid salts

c)

Double salts

d)

Soluble salt

99.

Which of the following salts is a not a normal salt?

a)

NaCl

b)

K2SO4

c)

NaHCO3

d)

Ca(NO3)2

100.

Which of the following is not true?

a)

All nitrate salts are soluble.

b)

All group I salts and Ammonium salts are soluble.

c)

All carbonates are not soluble except group I and ammonium salts.

d)

All sulphates are soluble except Copper (II) sulphate, Barium sulphate and Lead (II) sulphate.

101.

Which of the following salts dissolves only when hot?

a)

NaCl

b)

KCl

c)

CaSO4

d)

PbCl2

102.

Which of the following salts does not exist?

a)

Aluminium carbonate

b)

Barium carbonate

c)

Ammonium carbonate

d)

Zinc carbonate

103.

Which of the following salts is insoluble?

a)

Aluminium chloride

b)

Copper (II) Sulphate

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Calcium carbonate

104.

What is the colour of Lead (II) sulphate?

a)

Colourless

b)

Brown

c)

Blue

d)

White

105.

What is the colour of hydrated Copper (II) sulphate?

a)

White

b)

Blue

c)

Pink

d)

Brown

106.

Why is excess Copper (II) oxide added to dilute Sulphuric (VI) acid during the preparation of Copper (II) sulphate?

a)

To ensure that all the Copper (II) oxide has reacted

b)

To remove excess Copper (II) oxide

c)

To ensure that all the acid has reacted

d)

To ensure that the salt is formed faster

107.

State a reason why filtration is carried out during the preparation of Copper (II) sulphate when copper (II) oxide is added to dilute Sulphuric (VI)?

a)

To dry Copper (II) Sulphate

b)

To remove water

c)

To remove unreacted Copper (II) oxide

d)

To speed up the rate of reaction

108.

How many carbons are there in the longest chain?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

1

d)

6

109.

Which of these has the formula C60?

a)

graphite

b)

diamond

c)

fullerene

d)

none of these

110.

Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

a)

C4H10

b)

C4H6

c)

C4H8

d)

C4H4

111.

The property of self-linkage among identical atoms to form long chains is

a)

Superposition

b)

Catenation

c)

Isomerisation

d)

Halogenation

112.

-Methane is a major constituent of

a)

CNG

b)

Bio-gas

c)

Natural Gas

d)

All the above

113.

Which of the following statements about graphite and diamond is true?

a)

They have the same crystal structure

b)

They have the same degree of hardness

c)

They have the same electrical conductivity

d)

They can undergo the same chemical reactions

114.

Covalent compound

a)

has low melting and boiling point

b)

is generally poor conductors of electricity

c)

has weak inter-molecular forces

d)

All of the above

115.

The carbons circled in red...

a)

are double bonded

b)

are sharing two pairs of electrons

c)

are sharing three pairs of electrons

d)

Are sharing three electrons

116.

Formula for Benzene molecule is

a)

C6H12

b)

C6H8

c)

C8H6

d)

C6H6

117.

Prefix 'prop' is used when no. of carbon are

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

118.

Which of the following is the most important source of organic carbon compounds?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Coal

d)

Petroleum

119.

Which of the following is/are alkyne?

a)

C3H4

b)

C4H8

c)

C5H12

d)

C6H10

120.

Which of the following compound is saturated hydrocarbon?

I CH3CH2CH2CH3

II CH3CHC(CH3)2

III CH3CH2CH(CH3)2

IV CH3CHCHCH3

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

I, II and III

d)

I, III and IV

121.

Which of the following is the functional group of an alkene?

a)

C-C

b)

C=C

c)

-OH

d)

-COOH

122.

A hydrocarbon should have minimum how many carbon atoms to show isomerism?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

123.
The molecular formula for Heptane is
a)
C4H10
b)
C8H18
c)
C5H12
d)
C7H16
124.

Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons. What does this mean?

a)

There are some C=C double bonds present in the molecule

b)

All C atoms are bonded by single covalent bonds

c)

They are very reactive

d)

They have both double and single bond between carbons

125.

The classes of organic compounds found in all living things are

a)

vitamins and minerals

b)

halogen compounds, alcohols, organic acids, and esters

c)

simple carbohydrates and hydrocarbons

d)

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids

126.

Compounds that are composed of the same number and type of atoms but have them arranged in different ways are ___________.

a)

isomers

b)

isotopes

c)

polymers

d)

alkanes

127.

General formula of Alkane is

a)

CnH2n+4

b)

CnH2n+2

c)

CnH2n

d)

CnH2n-2

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