wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Applied Thermodynamics Practice Test 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The 1st law of Thermodynamics

a)

Energy can not be created or destroyed. It just changes forms.

b)

Energy can only be created by the sun

c)

Some energy is lost to the environment.

2.

2nd law of thermodynamics

a)

Every time energy changes form, some of it is lost to the environment

b)

Energy can't be created or destroyed

c)

All energy generates heat

3.

Celsius Scale

a)

water freezes at 0 degrees and boils at 100 degrees

b)

water boils at 212 degrees and freezes at 32 degrees

c)

Water boils at 273 degrees and boils at 373 degrees

4.

Thermal energy always travels from ______ temperatures to ______ temperatures.

a)

Higher / Lower

b)

Lower / Higher

c)

Higher / Higher

5.

Zeroth Law of thermodynamics states that

a)

two thermodynamic systems are always in thermal equilibrium with each other

b)

If two systems are in thermal equilibrium, then the third system will also be in thermal equilibrium

c)

two systems not in thermal equilibrium with a third system will also not be in thermal equilibrium with each other

d)

when two systems are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other

6.

A closed thermodynamic system is one in which

a)

there is no energy or mass transfer across the boundary

b)

there is no mass transfer, but energy transfer exists

c)

there is no energy transfer, but mass transfer exists

d)

both energy and mass transfer take place across the boundary, but the mass transfer is controlled by valves

7.

Which of the following is an intensive property?

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Enthalpy

c)

Pressure

d)

Entropy

8.

Which one of the following thermodynamic processes approximates the steaming of food in a pressure cooker?

a)

Isenthalpic

b)

Isochoric

c)

Isobaric

d)

Isothermal

9.

Measurement of temperature is based on which law of thermodynamics?

a)

Zeroth law of thermodynamics

b)

First law of thermodynamics

c)

Second law of thermodynamics

d)

Third law of thermodynamics

10.

The property of a thermodynamic system is:

a)

A path function

b)

A point function

11.

A balloon which is initially collapsed and flat is slowly filled with a gas at 100 kPa so as to form it into a sphere of 1 m radius. The work done by the gas in the balloon during the filling process is

a)

428.9 kJ

b)

420.9 kJ

c)

418.9 kJ

d)

416.9 kJ

12.

A closed system receives 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by 30 kJ. Then the work done by the system is

a)

90 kJ

b)

-30 kJ

c)

30 kJ

d)

-90 kJ

13.

Reversible adiabatic process is called as

a)

Isenthalpic

b)

Isentropic

c)

Isochoric

d)

Isobaric

14.

The term coefficient of performance is related with

a)

Heat pump

b)

Heat Engine

c)

Steam Engine

d)

Gas Turbine

15.

Carnot cycle comprises of

a)

two isentropic processes and two cont. volume processes

b)

two isentropic processes and two cont. pressure processes

c)

two isothermal processes and two cont. pressure processes

d)

two isothermal processes and two isentropic processes

16.

Entropy is a _______________function

a)

Point

b)

Path

c)

logarithmic

d)

joint

17.

Kelvin-Planks Law states that Perpetual Machine of ______________ is impossible to construct.

a)

First Kind

b)

Second Kind

c)

Third Kind

d)

Forth Kind

18.

Combustion is _______ type of reaction.

a)

Reduction

b)

Oxidation

c)

Carbonisation

d)

Formation

19.

The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called

a)

Equivalent evaporation

b)

Evaporative Capacity

c)

Boiler efficiency

d)

None of the Above

20.

The major heat loss in boiler is due to

a)

Moisture in fuel

b)

Dry fuel gases

c)

blow down

d)

Unburnt fuel

21.

The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is called

a)

Equivalent evaporation

b)

Evaporative capacity

c)

Boiler efficiency

d)

Factor of evaporation

22.

Economizer of the boiler is used

a)

Extract heat from flue gases and preheat the air

b)

To keep the pressure constant

c)

Extract heat from air and preheat the flue gases

d)

Keep temperature constant

23.

A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is called

a)

fusible plug

b)

stop valve

c)

superheater

d)

economiser

24.

High pressure boilers operate at pressures above ?

a)

80 bar

b)

120 bar

c)

140 bar

d)

180 bar

25.

Which of the following is a water tube boiler?

a)

Locomotive boiler

b)

Cochran boiler

c)

Cornish boiler

d)

Babcock and Wilcox boiler

26.

Which of the following boilers has the highest heat transfer capacity?

a)

Subcritical boiler

b)

Critical boiler

c)

Forced circulation boiler

d)

Supercritical boiler

27.

When the enthalpy of steam is hs kJ/kg and the enthalpy of feed water is hf kJ/kg, then the factor of evaporation is given by

a)

(hs−hf)2257\frac{\left(h_s-h_f\right)}{2257}

b)

(hs+hf)2257\frac{\left(h_s+h_f\right)}{2257}

c)

2257(hs−hf)\frac{2257}{\left(h_s-h_f\right)}

d)

2257(hs+hf)\frac{2257}{\left(h_s+h_f\right)}

28.

Fire tube boilers are suitable for high capacity plants

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Identify the boiler type

a)

Water type

b)

liquid fuel type

c)

Fire tube type

d)

Coal type

30.

Identify the type of boiler

a)

Fire type

b)

Water type

c)

Coal type

d)

vertical type

31.

Which of the following is not a Boiler standard?

a)

British standards, BS845 : 1987

b)

ASME Standard : PTC-4-1 Power Test Code for Steam Generating Units

c)

S 8753 : Indian Standard for Boiler Efficiency Testing

d)

ASHRAE 62.1

32.

IN WHICH METHOD, boiler efficiency is calculated by knowing the losses

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Field

d)

None of these

33.

A steam power plant using steam as working substance works basically on

a)

Rankine cycle

b)

Carnot cycle

c)

Bell Coleman cycle

d)

VCC cycle

34.

The below diagram is the T-s diagram of the Rankine cycle with reheat. Which process represents the reheat?

a)

process 1 – 2

b)

process 2 – 2 ′

c)

process 2 ′ – 2 ″

d)

process 2 – 3 ′

35.

How are the effect of reheat and effect of regeneration on the efficiency of steam power plant compared?

a)

effect of reheat is greater that the effect of regeneration on plant efficiency

b)

effect of regeneration is greater that the effect of reheat on plant efficiency

c)

both the reheat and regeneration have same effect on efficiency of steam power plant

d)

cannot say

36.

Which among the following has the lowest efficiency than the others, when they are operated between same pressures?

a)

Ideal Rankine cycle

b)

Ideal regenerative cycle

c)

Carnot cycle

d)

None. All of the above have same efficiency

37.

The reheat cycle allows steam power plant -

a)

to use higher pressure ratio

b)

to maintain required quality of steam at the exit of the turbine

c)

to increase the turbine work

d)

all of the above

38.

What is the effect of superheated steam on efficiency of Rankine cycle?

a)

efficiency of Rankine cycle decreases with increase in superheat of the steam

b)

efficiency of Rankine cycle increases with increase in superheat of the steam

c)

efficiency of Rankine cycle is not affected by change in superheat of the steam

d)

none of the above

39.

What is the relation between efficiencies of Rankine cycle and Carnot cycle for the same pressure ratio?

a)

(ηRankine) = (ηCarnot)

b)

(ηRankine) > (ηCarnot )

c)

(ηRankine) < (ηCarnot )

d)

none of the above

40.

Considering only heat loss (Qloss) in the expansion process at the turbine, what is the correct relation among enthalpies of steam entering and leaving the turbine (h1 and h2 respectively), turbine work (WT) and heat loss (Qloss)

a)

h1 = h2 – WT – Qloss

b)

h1 = h2 + WT – Qloss

c)

h1 = h2 + WT + Qloss

d)

none of the above

41.

What is the highlighted area (area enclosed by 1234) in the following T-s diagram of vapour power cycle indicate?

a)

heat added in cycle

b)

work produced by turbine

c)

net work produced by cycle

d)

heat rejected from cycle

42.

How is the capacity of vapour power plant expressed?

a)

in terms of heat rate

b)

in terms of steam rate

c)

in terms of work output

d)

none of the above

43.

In the following T-s diagram of Rankine cycle, process (1-2) is heat addition in boiler, process (2-3) is an expansion at turbine, process (3-4) is a condensation process and process (4-1) is a pumping process at feed pump. What is the formula for efficiency of Rankine cycle?

a)

ηRankine = ((h2 – h3) + (h1 – h4)) / (h2 – h1)

b)

ηRankine = ((h2 – h3) – (h1 – h4)) / (h2 – h1)

c)

ηRankine = (h2 – h3) / (h2 – h1)

d)

none of the above

44.

In the T-s diagram of vapour power cycle, what is the condition of stem at the starting of turbine expansion?

a)

wet with dryness fraction 0.8

b)

wet with dryness fraction 0.99

c)

dry saturated

d)

superheated

45.

At ideal condition of vapour power cycle, reversible constant pressure heat rejection is carried out at -

a)

boiler

b)

turbine

c)

condenser

d)

feed pump

46.

Which is the correct sequence of power plant?

a)

Turbine-condenser-boiler-feed pump

b)

Feed pump-boiler-Turbine-condenser

c)

Condenser-boiler-feed pump-turbine

d)

Boiler-feed pump-turbine-condenser

47.

What is the function of cooling tower?

a)

To provide cool water to condenser

b)

To provide hot water to condenser

c)

To provide condensate to boiler

d)

To provide steam to condenser

48.

What is the jet condenser?

a)

It is non mixing type of condenser

b)

It is mixing type of condenser

c)

It is both type of condenser

49.

Surface condenser is ......................type of condenser

a)

Mixing type

b)

Non mixing type

c)

Jet type

d)

Steam type

50.

In a shell and tube surface condenser

a)

steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate

b)

cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them

c)

steam passes the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them

d)

none of the above

51.

A condenser in steam power plant

a)

increases expansion ratio of steam

b)

reduces back pressure of steam

c)

reduces temp of steam

d)

all of the above

52.

The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in condenser is called

a)

condenser efficiency

b)

vacuum efficiency

c)

nozzle efficiency

d)

evaporator efficiency

53.

Which one of the following condensers is recommended for high capacity power plants?

a)

Jet Condensers

b)

Surface Condensers

54.

A positive displacement air compressor ___.

a)

Recompresses the same volume of air twice

b)

Produces a new volume of air for every stroke

c)

Compresses the air by increasing the velocity of the air

d)

Is best suited for high flow rate applications

55.

In an air compressor system, the ___ is also called the receiver.

a)

Intake filter/Silencer

b)

Compressor

c)

Storage tank

d)

After-cooler

56.

Choose the positive displacement compressors among the following (Multiple answers)

a)

Reciprocating Air Compressors

b)

Vane compressors

c)

Lobe compressors

d)

Centrifugal Compressors

57.

Which of the following process will require minimum work during compression of air

a)

Polytropic compression

b)

Isentropic compression

c)

Isothermal compression

d)

Isochoric compression

58.

The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating compressor is defined as the ratio of

a)

the swept volume to actual volume of air intake in a cycle

b)

the swept volume to clearance volume

c)

actual volume of air intake in a cycle to swept volume

d)

the clearance volume to swept volume

59.

Multi-stage compression with intercooling

a)

reduces work input

b)

increases volumetric efficiency

c)

helps in better lubrication

d)

All of the above

60.

FAD is defined as

a)

The volume of air handled by the compressor per cycle reduced to atmospheric conditions

b)

The volume of air handled by the compressor per unit time reduced to suction conditions

c)

The volume of air handled by the compressor per unit time reduced to atmospheric conditions

d)

The volume of air handled by the compressor per cycle reduced to suction conditions

61.

Condition for minimum work in 2 stage compressor with section pressure(P1), intermittent pressure(P2) and discharge pressure(P3) is -

a)

P2 = P1P3P_2\ =\ \frac{P_1}{P_3}  

b)

P2 = P1×P3P_2\ =\ P_1\times P_3  

c)

P22 = P1×P3P_2^2\ =\ P_1\times P_3  

d)

P2 = P1+P3P_2\ =\ P_1+P_3  

62.

Perfect intercooling is when -

a)

Suction temperature is equal to delivery temperature in LP stage

b)

Suction temperature is equal to delivery temperature in HP stage

c)

Delivery temperature in LP stage is equal to delivery temperature in HP stage

d)

Suction temperature in LP stage is equal to outlet temperature of intercooler

63.

Mechanical efficiency is ratio of -

a)

Indicated power to shaft power

b)

Brake power to shaft power

c)

Shaft power to Indicated power

d)

Power loss to Power output

64.

Using single stage compressors for big pressure ratios can lead to -

a)

Increase mass and size of parts

b)

Noise and vibrations

c)

Fluctuations and bigger flywheel

d)

All of these

65.

Identify the compressor

a)

Lobe type

b)

Screw type

c)

Centrifugal type

d)

Axial type

66.

Identify the compressor

a)

Vane type

b)

Screw type

c)

Centrifugal type

d)

Axial type

67.

Advantage of intercooler is

a)

Improved cooling

b)

reduction in power required

c)

Better lubrication

d)

All of these

68.
A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle
a)
when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
b)
when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
c)
when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit
d)
none of the above
69.
The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
a)
constant volume flow
b)
constant pressure flow
c)
isothermal flow
d)
isentropic flow
70.
The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure.
a)
Correct
b)
Incorrect
71.

The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)

a)

V = 44.72 hdkh_d\sqrt{k}

b)

V = 44.72 khdk\sqrt{h_d}

c)

V = 44.72 khd\sqrt{kh_d}

d)

V = 44.72 khdkh_d

72.
The value of critical pressure ratio for superheated steam is
a)
0.5
b)
0.546
c)
0.454
d)
0.64
73.
The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound.
a)
Agree
b)
Disagree
74.
When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
a)
choked
b)
underdamping
c)
overdamping
d)
none of these
75.
The steam leaves the nozzle at a
a)
high pressure and a low velocity
b)
high pressure and a high velocity
c)
low pressure and a low velocity
d)
low pressure and a high velocity
76.
The effect of friction in nozzle is to
a)
Keep dryness fraction constant
b)
Increase dryness fraction
c)
Decrease dryness fraction
d)
First increase dryness fraction upto certain limit and then decrees it
77.

Mach number is more than unity in the following portion of a convergent divergent nozzle

a)

Convergent potion

b)

Throat

c)

Divergent potion

d)

Straight portion

78.
A steam nozzle covert
a)
heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
b)
potential energy of steam into kinetic energy
c)
kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy
d)
heat energy of steam into mechanical energy
79.
The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.
a)
Zero
b)
Minimum
c)
Maximum
d)
None of these
80.

The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given by

a)
b)
c)
d)
81.

In an impulse turbine.......

a)

The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop

b)

The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously

c)

The steam is expanded in moving blades only

d)

The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

82.

The stage efficiency (ηs)is given by ( where ηb=blading efficiency and ηn =nozzle efficiency )........

a)

ηb/ηn

b)

ηn/ηb

c)

ηb.ηn

d)

ηn/ηb

83.

Da-laval turbines are mostly used.......

a)

Where low speeds are required

b)

For small power purposes and and low speeds

c)

For small power purposes and and high speeds

d)

For large power purposes

84.

The degree of reaction is defined as the ratio........

a)

Heat drop in the fixed blades to the heat drop in the moving blades

b)

Heat drop in the moving blades to the heat drop in the fixed blades

c)

Heat drop in the moving blades to the total heat drop in the fixed blades

d)

Heat drop in the fixed blades to the total heat drop in the moving blades

85.

Steam turbine is........combustion thermal prime mover

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Both internal and external

d)

None of the above

86.

There is enthalpy drop only in.......blades in case of an impulse steam turbine

a)

Fixed

b)

Rotating

c)

Moving

d)

All of the above

87.

The ratio of work done on the blades per kg of steam to the energy supplied to the blades is called........

a)

Gross or stage efficiency

b)

Diagram or blading efficiency

c)

Nozzle efficiency

d)

Mechanical efficiency

88.

In a reaction turbine........

a)

The steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it enters the moving blades

b)

The expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving blades

c)

The steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more nozzles

d)

The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant

89.

The Parson's reaction turbine, the degree of reaction is........

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

90.

The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while it passes over the blades.

a)

10 to 15%

b)

15 to 20%

c)

20 to 30%

d)

30 to 40%

91.

In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade is _________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.

a)

Equal to

b)

Less than

c)

Greater than

d)

None of these

92.

A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 rpm If the blade speed ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be

a)

79 m/s

b)

188 m/s

c)

450 m/s

d)

900 m/s

93.

In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is

a)

No heat drop in moving blades

b)

No heat drop in fixed blades

c)

Maximum heat drop in moving blades

d)

Maximum heat drop in fixed blades

94.

The relative efficiency is defined as the

a)

Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency

b)

Ratio of brake power to the indicated power

c)

Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam

d)

Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency

95.

The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to

a)

Maintain the speed of the turbine

b)

Reduce the effective heat drop

c)

Reheat the steam and improve its quality

d)

Completely balance against end thrust

96.

In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be

a)

302 kW

b)

260 kW

c)

282 kW

d)

296 kW

97.

The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be

a)

0.4

b)

0.56

c)

0.67

d)

1.67

98.

A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at _________ to the direction of the blade motion.

a)

60°

b)

90°

c)

180°

d)

270°

99.
The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the
a)
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b)
law of heat addition
c)
principle of entropy
d)
conservation of energy
100.
The second  law of thermodynamics states that entropy of a system  tends to ______________. 
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay constant
d)
fluctuate wildly

Similar Resources on Wayground

RS, GIS and Maps

100 questions

RS, GIS and Maps

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

TRY OUT P3K 23

100 questions

TRY OUT P3K 23

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade - University

TRY OUT P3K Penjas 8

102 questions

TRY OUT P3K Penjas 8

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

TRY OUT P3K penjas 1

96 questions

TRY OUT P3K penjas 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

TRY OUT P3K Mapel 3

100 questions

TRY OUT P3K Mapel 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Review AUDITING

97 questions

Review AUDITING

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

RDAE_On-line Sample Model Exam

100 questions

RDAE_On-line Sample Model Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Lập trình di động

97 questions

Lập trình di động

quiz

Worksheet

•

University