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Biology 2nd year Ch # 21-23 + antonyms

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 5hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Censure antonym..............

a)

augment

b)

eradicate

c)

enthrall

d)

commend

2.

Orthodoxy antonym...............

a)

renown

b)

unconventionality

c)

remoteness

d)

trapidation

3.

Limber antonum...........

a)

studry

b)

orderly

c)

durable

d)

stiff

4.

Sage antonym....

a)

miser

b)

fool

c)

tyrant

d)

zealor

5.

Fickle antonym.........

a)

spotless

b)

industrious

c)

urgen

d)

loyal

6.

Disparity antonym...............

a)

tiridity

b)

likeness

c)

bigorty

d)

influence

7.

Testy antonym......

a)

Erroniuos

b)

uncommunicative

c)

industrious

d)

even-tempered

8.

Conclusive antonym.....

a)

difficult to express

b)

easy to solve

c)

lacking merit

d)

open to question

9.

Virulence antonym.......................

a)

harmlessness

b)

cowardice

c)

femininity

d)

pallor

10.

Taper antonym..........

a)

split

b)

broaden

c)

modify

d)

restore

11.

Which of the following best describe government of Venice

a)

Democracy

b)

Oligarchy

c)

Artistocracy

d)

plutocracy

12.

Who is called father of enlish poetry ?

a)

Bede

b)

sir Thomus Morly

c)

Geoffery Chaucer

d)

Caedmon

13.

Grotius is best known for.................

a)

Working in persuit of women rights

b)

Establishing rules of engagement for proper warfare

c)

The american revolutionist

d)

None of these

14.

Queen victoria refused to give her consent to an act of parliament making lesbianism illegal......

a)

she was not amused

b)

she was lesbian

c)

she had a headache

d)

she did not believe women would do such a thing

15.

Who did the roundheads support............

a)

The royal family

b)

The Irish

c)

The French

d)

A radicalized parliament

16.

G1 is associated with what event?

a)

doubling of cell content

b)

DNA replication

c)

The beginning of mitosis

d)

breakdown of the nuclear membrane

17.
Why do cells go through cell division
a)
Growth
b)
Reproduction
c)
Repair
d)
All of the above
18.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
19.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
20.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up on the equator of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
21.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
22.
What phase does a cell stay in the longest?
a)
interphase
b)
cell division
c)
cytokinesis
d)
mitosis
23.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
24.

Which of the following does not occur during interphase?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

An increase in the number of mitochondria

25.

How can cells in a multicellular organism differentiate?

a)

They express some of their genes but not others.

b)

They all have a different genetic composition.

c)

Different cells contain a different set of chromosomes.

d)

Different cells do not have some of the genes.

26.

What happens during the G2 stage of interphase?

a)

Homologous chromosomes pair

b)

Synthesis of proteins

c)

Homologous chromosomes separate

d)

Replication of DNA

27.

Which of the following take(s) place during either interphase or mitosis in animal cells?


I. Re-formation of nuclear membranes

II. Pairing of homologous chromosomes

III. DNA replication

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I and III only

28.
Failure of this stage prior to mitosis would result in daughter cells without sufficient DNA
a)
S-phase
b)
Gap 1
c)
cytokinesis
d)
anaphase
29.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
30.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
31.

What is Apoptosis?

a)

Cell programmed Death

b)

Inflammation of cell

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Plasmolysis

32.
The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to opposite sides of the cell.
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telephase
33.
The time between cell divisions in the life cycle of the cell is called
a)
anaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
34.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
35.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
36.
What is the longest phase in MITOSIS?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
37.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
38.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
39.
BONUS:
How long is the whole cell cycle for most animal cells?
a)
2-3 days
b)
24 hours
c)
2-3 hours
d)
23 hours
40.

Which of the following describes the purpose of the mitotic cell division?

a)

To make more of the same cells.

b)

For growth and repair.

c)

To prevent the cell from becoming too large.

d)

All of the above.

41.
How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells?
a)
Cytokinesis only takes place in animal cells.
b)
Cytokinesis only takes place in plant cells.
c)
Plant cells form a cell plate, animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
d)
Animal cells form a cell plate, plant cells form a cleavage furrow.
42.

If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

43.

Meiotic cell division makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperms and ova each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized egg would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.

a)

23, 46

b)

46, 23

c)

2, 4

d)

50, 100

44.
During interphase, a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
a)
copies DNA
b)
divides the nucleus
c)
divides the cytoplasm
d)
produces a new cell
45.
During meiosis I, what happens? 
a)
Sister chromatids are split
b)
Homologous chromosomes are split
c)
Four cells are created
d)
None of the other choices are correct
46.
During meiosis II, what happens? 
a)
Sister chromatids are split
b)
Homologous chromosomes are split
c)
Two cells are created
d)
None of the other choices are correct
47.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

48.

Which of these cells divides the least?

a)

Liver cell

b)

Skin cell

c)

Blood cell

49.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
50.
Alternative forms of a gene are called
a)
Alleles
b)
Homozygous
c)
DNA
d)
Genetics
51.
The genotype of:  bb   will have the PHENOTYPE of...
a)
black fur
b)
white fur
c)
course hair
d)
fine hair
52.
Which of the following is heterozygous
a)
FF
b)
tt
c)
Gg
d)
RR
53.
What does the prefix hetero- in heterozygous mean?
a)
same
b)
different
c)
dating
d)
human
54.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
55.
How many letters does a genotype contain?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
56.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's phenotype?
a)
Brown Hair
b)
Blonde Hair
c)
Brown and Blonde Hair
d)
Black Hair
57.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's genotype?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
bB
58.
The different forms of a gene are called 
a)
traits
b)
chromosomes
c)
alleles
d)
peas
59.
A section on a chromosome that has genetic information for one trait is called a
a)
gene
b)
allele
c)
phenotype
d)
genotype
60.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
61.

These types of alleles are only expressed if the organism has two copies

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

62.
This symbol represents an...
a)
Unaffected Male
b)
Unaffected Female
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
63.
This symbol represents an...
a)
Unaffected Female
b)
Unaffected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
64.

Which term denotes the combination of alleles an organism has?

a)

genotpye

b)

phenotype

c)

heterozygous

d)

homozygous

65.

Which term refers to the allele that shows up in the phenotype of a heterozygous genotpye?

a)

invasive

b)

recessive

c)

dominant

d)

passive

66.

Which of these genotypes would most likely be used to represent the dominant for pea plant height?

a)

TT

b)

tt

c)

PP

d)

pp

67.

What organism did Mendel study?

a)

pea plants

b)

onions

c)

mice

d)

cats

68.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will separate during meiosis, one going to half the sex cells, the other allele going to the other half.

a)

Law of Domination

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Speciation

d)

Law of Genetics

69.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will come together independently of each other in the offspring?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probable Expression

c)

Law of Typical Collection

d)

Law of Assorted Assignment

70.

What word would be INCORRECT to describe "QQ"

a)

homozygous

b)

dominant

c)

genotype

d)

recessive

71.

If Y (yellow) is the dominant allele for pea plant seed color, which of the following would produce green seeds?

a)

yy

b)

Yy

c)

YY

d)

gg

72.

What are the chances that two white flower (pp) pea plants could produce a purple flower pea plant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

73.

If the offsprings have the blood groups O and A the genotype of parents would be

a)

IAIA and IAi

b)

IA i and ii

c)

IAIA and IAIA

d)

IA i and IBi

74.

What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?

a)

O and AB

b)

O and A

c)

O and B

d)

A and B

75.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

76.

Which term(s) best describes the inheritance of human blood types?

a)

incomplete dominance and multiple alleles

b)

codominance and epistasis

c)

codominance and multiple alleles

d)

incomplete dominance and codominance

77.

A man with type O blood is accused of being the father of a type B baby. The mother is type A. Could this man be the father?

a)

Yes

b)

No

78.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
79.
What determines gender in humans? 
a)
the X and Y chromosome
b)
chromosome 21
c)
codominance
d)
epistasis
80.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
81.
What type of inheritance is determined by multiple genes located at different loci on different chromosomes and there can be a range of traits?
a)
Codominance
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Polygenic traits
82.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
83.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
84.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
85.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a recessive x-linked disorder.
According to the Punnett square, what percentage of male offspring will have the disorder?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
86.
1 map unit is equal to:
a)
1 nm
b)
1% recombination
c)
1 chromosome
d)
1 mutation
87.
What determines gender in humans? 
a)
the X and Y chromosome
b)
chromosome 21
c)
x chromosome
d)
y chromosome
88.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true? Make a punnett square!
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
89.
Alleles that are inherited on the X or Y chromosomes:
a)
multiple alleles
b)
sex-linked genes
c)
codominance
d)
polygenic inheritance
90.
Hemophilia is an x-linked trait.  A normal man marries a woman that is a carrier.  What are their chances of having a child with the disorder?
a)
O%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
100%
91.
According to _______, genes that are closer together on a chromosome, have a higher chance of being inherited together.  
a)
Gene Linkage
b)
Polygenic
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Epistasis
92.
A and B are linked genes. In a study of 100 offspring, 80 parental genotypes for A and B, while 20 were recombinants. A and B are how many map units apart? 
a)
10
b)
5
c)
20
d)
30
93.
Causes genes to not segregate independently. Causes genes to be more likely to be inherited together. Represents an exception to Mendel's Law of Independent assortment.
a)
Gene linkage
b)
Epistasis
c)
Polygenic traits
d)
Codominance
94.
the new combination of genes produced by crossing over and independent assortment.
a)
genetic recombination
b)
polygenic trait
c)
epistasis
d)
gene linkage
95.

Experiment 1:Pure white eyed male Drosophilia x pure wildtype females

f1 were wildtype

Exp 2: pure wildtype males x pure white eyed females

f1: males white eyed ; females are wildtype


Question: what is the dominant trait, why?

a)

wildtype because it is the most common

b)

white eyes b/c it seen in the F1

c)

wild type because F1 females show the dominant trait

96.

If pink is inherited as a incomplete dominance by white and red alleles interacting; what would expect the offspring phenotype be if 2 pinks were crossed

a)

3 red:1 white

b)

1 red:2 pink: 1 white

c)

1 red:1 pink:1 white

d)

1/2 red:1/2 pink

97.

If pink is inherited as a incomplete dominance by white and red alleles interacting; what would expect the offspring phenotype be if a PINK X RED were crossed

a)

3 red:1 white

b)

1 red:2 pink: 1 white

c)

1 red:1 pink:1 white

d)

1/2 red:1/2 pink

98.

If mother is blood type is AB and father is blood type B, what blood types are Not possible for the offspring

a)

AB

b)

O

c)

A

d)

B

99.

The goal of the Human Genome Project was to determine the

a)

total number of alleles in the human genome

b)

DNA sequence of the entire human genome.

c)

number of mutations in the human genome.

d)

pattern of inheritance of the human genome.

100.

An example of a sex-linked trait is

a)

widow's peak

b)

hitchhiker's thumb

c)

red-green color blindness

d)

earlobe attachment

101.

Which is true about ABO blood type?

a)

there are three common alleles for this trait

b)

there are three possible genotypes for this trait

c)

the A allele is dominate to the B allele

d)

the A and O alleles are codominant

102.

A boy with a widow’s peak becomes bald by middle age. The gene for baldness “dominates” the gene for widow’s peak. This is an example of

a)

pleiotropy

b)

dominance

c)

epistasis

d)

nondisjunction

103.

An example of an autosomal recessive disorder is

a)

Maran syndrome

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

vitamin D-resistant rickets

d)

hemophilia A

104.

The disorder caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is known as

a)

Down's syndrome

b)

Turner's syndrome

c)

Klinefelter's syndrome

d)

Triple X syndrome

105.

The process that makes multiple copies of a gene or other DNA segment is called

a)

polymerase chain reaction

b)

genetic engineering

c)

isolation

106.

Practical uses of biotechnology include

a)

medicine

b)

agriculture

c)

forensics

d)

all of the above

107.

Genes located on the same chromosome are referred to as

a)

autosomes

b)

complete

c)

deutosomes

d)

linked genes

108.

A diagram that shows the inheritance of a trait in a family is a(n)

a)

karyotype

b)

pedigree

c)

punnett

d)

blood chart

109.

ABO blood type is a _______ allele trait.

a)

codominant trait

b)

pleiotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

110.

Traits controlled by more than one gene are called __________ traits.

a)

codomnant

b)

pleotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

111.

What occurs when a single gene affects more than one trait?

a)

codominant

b)

pleiotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

112.

What occurs when one gene affects the expression of another gene?

a)

codominant

b)

pleiotropy

c)

polygenic

d)

epistasis

113.

The failure of replicated chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called

a)

nondisjunction

b)

gene cloning

c)

genetic engineering

114.

What is the term used for the use of technology to change the genetic makeup of living things for human purposes?

a)

nondisjunction

b)

gene cloning

c)

genetic engineering

115.

The process of isolating and making copies of a gene is

a)

nondisjunction

b)

gene cloning

c)

genetic engineering

116.
The use of computers and information technology to gain a new understanding of biology.
a)
Bioreactor 
b)
Bioinformatics 
c)
Hybrid
d)
Neither
117.
A cell or collection of cells containing identical genetic material. 
a)
Protein
b)
Plasmid
c)
DNA
d)
Clone
118.
The growth of living organisms in a prepared medium or media.
a)
Gene
b)
Culture
c)
Cell
d)
Bio-processing 
119.
The total hereditary material of a cell
a)
Genome
b)
Gene
c)
Genetic Engineering
d)
Hybrid
120.
When an organism is changed or altered from its parent or original form.
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Mutation
d)
Plasmid
121.
A small, circular piece of DNA used for inserting new genetic material into another organism.
a)
Mutation
b)
Proteiin
c)
Plasmid
d)
Bioinformatics
122.

A person has a harmful genetic mutation that causes them to produce a defective protein. How can gene therapy be used to help this person overcome the harmful effects of this mutation?

a)

Insert new, functional proteins that will replace the defective proteins.

b)

Insert new, functional genes that will remove the genetic mutation.

c)

Insert a corrected gene into the cell that codes for the functional protein.

d)

Insert a corrected, functional protein that will produce more functional proteins.

123.

Scientists have discovered a way to genetically engineer farm animals such as pigs and goats to produce desired proteins in their milk. The milk containing the protein could then be collected, the protein could be extracted from the milk, and then the protein could be given to people as medicine.


Why might a pharmaceutical company choose to use this technology to manufacture medicines?

a)

To improve the nutrition of the farm animals.

b)

To produce a more delicious milk product to sell at grocery stores.

c)

To improve the health of humans with genetic disorders.

d)

To improve the health of farm animals with genetic disorders.

124.

What biotechnology is best illustrated by this diagram?

a)

restriction enzymes

b)

cloning

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

gene therapy

125.

In farming, many crops are produced by cloning. One method of cloning crops is to simply cut off a section of the plant, allow it to grow new roots, and then re-plant this cut section. One of the most commonly cloned food crops is the Cavendish banana.


Based on this information, which of the following statements is true?

a)

Bananas from the cloned plant will taste different than bananas from the parent plant.

b)

The cloned banana plants will not live as long as the parent plants.

c)

Cloning banana plants is a very complex and expensive process.

d)

Growing only cloned banana plants will limit the genetic variety on the farm.

126.

The restriction enzyme ECOR1 has the property of?

a)

Endonuclease activity

b)

Ligation activity

c)

Correcting the topology of replicating DNA

d)

Exonuclease activity

127.

pBR322 is an __________________ vector

a)

original

b)

cosmid

c)

artificial

d)

natural

128.

Copy number is defined as

a)

Average number of plasmids per bacterial cell

b)

Average number of plasmids per bacterial chromosome

c)

Average number of plasmids per bacterial cell or chromosome

d)

None of the above

129.

Restriction Enzymes are . . .

a)

proteins

b)

DNA

c)

fats

d)

carbohydrate

130.

What is a palindrome?

a)

A sequence that is complementary to the other

b)

A sequence that reads the same forwards and backwards

c)

A blunt end resulting from a restriction enzyme

d)

A sticky end resulting from a restriction enzyme

131.

Restriction Enzymes . . .

a)

cut DNA at precise locations

b)

help bacteria to pick up DNA

c)

move DNA through a gel

d)

copy DNA

132.

In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must

a)

code for the same gene product.

b)

be cut by the same restriction enzyme.

c)

originate from the same type of cell.

d)

have identical sequences.

133.

The term molecular scissors generally refers to

a)

DNA polymerases

b)

RNA polymerases

c)

Restriction endonucleases

d)

DNA ligases

134.

How do we name restriction Enzymes ?

a)

First two letter in Cap for Genus, next one letter in small for species, next one letter for strain and roman numeral for order of discovery

b)

First letter in Cap for Genus, next two letter in small for species, next one letter for strain and roman numeral for order of discovery

c)

First two letter in Cap for Genus, next one letter in small for species, next one letter for strain and English numeral for order of discovery

d)

First two letter in Cap for Genus, next one letter in capital for species, next one letter for strain and roman numeral for order of discovery

135.

Restriction Enzymes were primarily used as....

a)

defense by protozoa against antibiotics

b)

tools by viruses to cleave bacterial genome

c)

defense by bacteria against bacteriophages viruses

d)

tools to cleave DNA during replication

136.

Some restriction enzymes produce "sticky ends". Sticky ends are . . .

a)

double stranded DNA aligned with each other

b)

single-stranded DNA aligned with host DNA

c)

ends of a double stranded DNA strand

d)

single-stranded DNA "overhangs" that can bind to complementary DNA

137.
A scientist cloned a goat. Which of these is a true statement about the cloned goat?
a)
It has new genes and traits
b)
It lacks the genes for reproduction
c)
It has the genes that are identical to the original goat
d)
It looks the same but has different genes.
138.
 This diagram shows the DNA fingerprints of a common ancestor of Deer Species. Which deer species is most related to the common ancestor
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
139.
The blood stain most likely belongs to 
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
140.
Artificially changing the genetic material of a cell.
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Phenotype 
d)
Genetic Engineering
141.
using living things or parts of living things to produce a product or solve a problem
a)
biotechnology
b)
tissue culturing
c)
bioremediation
d)
transgenic
142.
Using a virus to enter a cell and replace defective genes with healthy genes is called
a)
tissue culturing
b)
bioremediation
c)
cloning
d)
gene therapy
143.
growing human tissue and organs in a laboratory
a)
Gene Therapy
b)
Bioremediation
c)
Tissue Culturing
d)
Cloning
144.
GMO stands for
a)
Genetically Made Organism
b)
Growing More Organisms
c)
Genetically Modified Organism
d)
Growing Many Organisms
145.
Using biotechnology to change the genetic makeup of an organism is called
a)
Tissue Culturing
b)
Biotechnology
c)
Cloning
d)
Genetic Engineering
146.
Who was the first adult mammal successfully cloned?
a)
Dolly the Sheep
b)
Copy Cat the Cat
c)
Double Donald the Duck
d)
Agouti Gout the Mouse
147.
Which best describes stem cells? 
a)
 stem cells can only come from embryos 
b)
stem cells can only come from adult bone marrow 
c)
stem cells do not ever change
d)
stem cells can develop into different specialized cells 
148.
Two humans believe they are related. Which would be the best technique to determine if they are related? 
a)
testing blood types
b)
comparing DNA
c)
examining karyotypes
d)
testing for genetic disorders
149.
Which technique would most likely be used by forensic scientists?  
a)
Cloning
b)
Gene Therapy
c)
DNA Fingerprinting
d)
Karyotyping
150.
Why is DNA fingerprinting used?
a)
To determine who is the child's father
b)
Link suspects to a crime scene
c)
determine if a family relationship exist between two people
d)
all of the above

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