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Zoology Full Course Test 2

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 5hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three Domains in the taxonomic scheme?

a)

Eukarya, Bacteria, Protista

b)

Eukarya, Archaea, Bacteria

c)

Ekarycion, Archaea, Bacteria

d)

All of the above are correct

2.

Which phylum of the following have radial symmetry?

a)

Chordata

b)

Porifera

c)

Annelida

d)

Echinodermata

3.

What are the 7 levels of classification in the correct order from most broad to most specific?

a)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Species, Genus

b)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Domain

c)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Species, Genus

d)

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

4.

Which of the following are the 4 kingdoms under the domain eukarya?

a)

Plantae, Protista, Animalia, Fungi

b)

Porifera, Cnidaria, Animalia, Fungi

c)

Chordata, Eukarya, Bacteria, Fungi

d)

Annelida, Porifera, Eukarya, Bacteria

5.

Next week we will start our dissections. Which kingdom do all of the animals that we will dissect fall under?

a)

Protista

b)

Fungi

c)

Animalia

d)

Plantea

6.

Which Phylum contains most of the species on the planet in it?

a)

Arthropoda

b)

Chordata

c)

Porifera

d)

Annelida

7.

Each organism is matched up with a phylum. Which one is incorrect?

a)

Flatworm = Platyhelminthes

b)

Horse = Chordata

c)

Earthworm = Nematoda

d)

Jellyfish = Cnidaria

8.

The latin translation for cnidaria is...

a)

Roundworm

b)

Stinging legs

c)

Stinging cells

d)

Segments

9.

The latin translation for Nematoda is...

a)

Roundworm

b)

Stinging legs

c)

Stinging cells

d)

Segments

10.

The latin translation for Annelida is...

a)

Roundworm

b)

Stinging legs

c)

Stinging cells

d)

Segments

11.

The latin translation for chordata is...

a)

Stinging cells

b)

Segments

c)

Flat

d)

Spinal cord/notochord

12.

The latin translation for Annelida is...

a)

Stinging cells

b)

Segments

c)

Flat

d)

Spinal cord/notochord

13.

Which phylum does this animal belong in?

a)

Chordata

b)

Porifera

c)

Echinodermata

d)

Mollusca

14.

Which of the following is true of all Crustaceans?

a)

They have venom.

b)

They live in the sea.

c)

They use chelicerae for eating.

d)

They have 6 legs.

15.

Which of the following is true of hexapods?

a)

They have 6 legs.

b)

They defend themselves with chelipeds.

c)

They use pedipalps for sensing.

d)

They have 8 legs.

16.

Which of the following is true of chelicerates?

a)

They have 8 legs.

b)

They have wings for flight.

c)

Tehy have antennae for sensing.

d)

They have chelipeds for defense.

17.

What is not a common characteristics of all arthropods?

a)

They have jointed appendages.

b)

They molt to grow.

c)

They have an exoskeleton.

d)

They have a cephalothorax.

18.

Which term means complete metamorphosis?

a)

Ametabolism

b)

Holometabolism

c)

Hemimetabolism

d)

Metabolism

19.

Which statement describes eusociality?

a)

Cicadas singing mating calls.

b)

Crabs molting in a group.

c)

A worker ant finding food.

d)

Scorpions competing for sapce.

20.

Which subphylum of arthropods contains crayfish?

a)

Crustacea

b)

Myriapoda

c)

Hexapoda

d)

Chelicerata

21.

Which of the following is not a major function of an arthropod's exoskeleton?

a)

Locomotion

b)

Growth/Development

c)

Protection

d)

Sensing

22.

Flagella inside a sponge keep water moving through its body. Why is this necessary?

a)

It prevents the sponge from floating away

b)

It allows the sponge to feed

c)

It allows the sponge to absorb carbon dioxide

d)

It maintains the water pressure inside the sponge

23.
Sponges get their food by 
a)
going through photosynthesis
b)
decomposing it
c)
sponges do not eat
d)
filter feeding
24.
Most sponges are hermaphrodites.  What does this mean?
a)
sponges can produce their own food
b)
sponges can produce both eggs and sperm
c)
sponges cannot reproduce
d)
sponges can swim around
25.
What is the name of the phylum sponges belong to?
a)
mammals
b)
chordate
c)
cnidarians
d)
Porifera
26.
___________ are tiny hard particles that give a sponge support and can provide protection when they stick out of a sponge.
a)
spongin
b)
bones
c)
buds
d)
spicules
27.

How do sponges obtain food?

a)

filter it from the water

b)

grasp it with tentacles

c)

pry it apart with tube feet

d)

put it in their mouth with jointed legs

28.
What is true about sponges?
a)
They have organs
b)
They have bilateral symmetry
c)
They have a true coelom
d)
They are animals
29.

The cells inside the sponge that have flagella (and absorb food) are called...

a)

Collar cells

b)

Flagella

c)

Osculum

d)

Pores

30.

What is the common name for all Platyhelminthes?

a)

roundworms

b)

flatworms

c)

segmented worms

d)

parasitic worms

31.

Class Trematoda includes which animals?

a)

earthworms

b)

flukes

c)

tapeworms

d)

planarians

32.

Class Cestoda includes which animals?

a)

earthworms

b)

flukes

c)

tapeworms

d)

planarians

33.

Class Turbellaria includes which animals?

a)

earthworms

b)

flukes

c)

tapeworms

d)

planarians

34.

What is the most common location for parasitic flatworm eggs?

a)

muscle tissue

b)

stomach/intestines (digestive system)

c)

feces (poop)

d)

epidermis

35.

What is the most common location for tapeworm cysts?

a)

muscle tissue

b)

stomach/intestines (digestive system)

c)

feces (poop)

d)

epidermis

36.

What is the most common intermediate host of most flukes?

a)

invertebrates (snails, crustaceans)

b)

fish

c)

humans

d)

livestock (cows, sheep, pigs)

37.

Planarians are known for being ...

a)

filter feeders

b)

suspension feeders

c)

the first hunters

d)

herbivores

38.

Which of the following best describes the body cavity of a flatworm?

a)

acoelomate

b)

pseudocoelomate

c)

true coelomate

d)

diploblastic

39.

Which of the following would be the least likely habitat of a flatworm?

a)

desert

b)

wetland

c)

ocean

d)

inside a host

40.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of flatworms?

a)

bilaterally symmetrical

b)

cephalized

c)

complete digestion

d)

dorsoventrally flattened

41.

What is the purpose of flatworm tegument?

a)

it makes them better hunters

b)

it covers parasitic flatworms

c)

its a hard protective covering

d)

it aids in movement

42.

How are parasitic flatworms different from predatory flatworms?

a)

they are acoelomates

b)

they lack eyespots

c)

they are hermaphroditic

d)

they lay eggs

43.

El alumno presenta un severo

cuadro clínico de infestación por nematodo. El Dr.

Gonzales diagnóstico elefantiasis. ¿Qué parásito es el

responsable de la patología antes citada?

a)

Filaria

b)

Ascaris

c)

Necator

d)

Oxiuro

44.
A tapeworm lives inside of a host's body. This means that tapeworms are _______________. 
a)
Ectoparasites
b)
Endoparasites
c)
Free-living
d)
Flukes
45.
How many types of tapeworms are known to infect humans?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
46.
The bodies of flatworms are flattened ___________________. 
a)
Laterally
b)
Bilaterally
c)
Radially
d)
Dorso-ventrally
47.
What is a definitive host? 
a)
An organism that any parasite can live on.
b)
The last organism that a parasite uses to live.
c)
The organism that parasitic eggs are laid on. 
d)
An organism that parasites find easily. 
48.
Which of the following terms does not relate to flatworm reproduction?
a)
Dimorphism 
b)
Hermaphroditic 
c)
Monoecious
d)
Cross-fertilization
49.
A brightly colored flatworm, swimming with a wavelike motion, likely belongs to which class?
a)
Cestoda
b)
Trematoda 
c)
Turbellaria 
d)
Monogenea 
50.
The small segments behind a scolex that reproduce quickly, making a tapeworm longer and longer are called...
a)
Cilia
b)
Hooks
c)
Proglottids
d)
Snaps
51.
What is cephalization? 
a)
Having male and female parts.
b)
A concentration of sense organs and nervous system at the anterior end of the body. 
c)
Feeding off of another organism.
d)
Breathing through the skin.
52.
What structure protects parasitic flatworms in harsh environments like a digestive system?
a)
Neodermis
b)
Proglottids
c)
Flukes
d)
Cilia
53.
Which of the following is not a class of the Phylum Platyhelminthes?
a)
Nematoda
b)
Trematoda
c)
Cestoda
d)
Turbellaria 
54.
What is the radula used for?
a)
Locomotion
b)
Feeding
c)
Swimming
d)
Digging
55.
The protective membrane that surrounds the visceral mass on all mollusks is called...
a)
Radula
b)
Mantle
c)
Nephridia
d)
Visceral Shield 
56.

Which TYPE of mollusk is most intelligent?

a)

Bivalve

b)

Gastropod

c)

Cephalopod

57.

Which TYPE of mollusk has two shells?

a)

Bivalve

b)

Gastropod

c)

Cephalopod

58.
Which class of Mollusks include squid, cuttlefish and octopus?
a)
Gastropods
b)
Bivalves
c)
Cephalopods
d)
Polyplacophora
59.
Cephalopods move by
a)
using jet propulsion
b)
waving their tentacles back and forth.
c)
crawling along on a single muscular foot.
d)
clapping their shells together.
60.
What does the term echinoderm mean?
a)
tube feet
b)
star shaped
c)
spiny skin
d)
stomach foot
61.
Echinoderms have an internal skeleton and a system of fluid-filled tubes called a(n)...
a)
water vascular system
b)
nervous system
c)
notochord
d)
ampulla
62.
Sea stars feed by
a)
Injecting poison that digests the prey 
b)
Everting their stomach to digest prey
c)
Chewing their prey with jaws and teeth
d)
squeezing their prey until it dies
63.

What is the process of regeneration?

a)

When an animal sheds its exoskeleton.

b)

When an animal can clean the ocean floor.

c)

When an animal can regrow a body part.

d)

When an animal recycles plastic bottles and cans.

64.

This structure is present in all embryos and may or may not be present in adults.

a)

Notochord

b)

Vertebrates

c)

Metamorphosis

d)

Gnatho

65.

Which organisms are in the class Agnatha?

a)

Lampreys

b)

frogs

c)

snakes

d)

birds

66.

What is a characteristic of the class Agnatha?

a)

do not have jaws

b)

go through metamorphosis

c)

can fly

d)

have feathers

67.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the class Amphibia?

a)

do not have jaws

b)

goes through metamorphosis

c)

can fly

d)

have feathers

68.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the class Chondrichthyes?

a)

They have a cartilage skeleton (not bone)

b)

they have a bone skeleton

c)

they do not have jaws

d)

they go through metamorphosis

69.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the class Mammalia?

a)

They have mammary glands to produce milk.

b)

They go through metamorphosis.

c)

They do not have jaws.

d)

They can fly.

70.

How many chambers does a fish heart have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

71.

The ciliated, free-swimming larva of the cnidarian is called a _______________.

a)

blastula

b)

planula

c)

meusa

d)

polyp

72.

Pharyngeal slits, endoskeleton derived from mesoderm and ventral heart are characteristics for

a)

Annelida

b)

Chordata

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Nematoda

73.

What was the first mammal like?

a)

Tree-dwelling, shrew-like insect eater

b)

land dwelling, lion-like, carnivore

c)

Tree-dwelling, shrew-like, herbivore

d)

land-dwelling, rhino-like, omnivore

74.

What is the purpose of canines?

a)

Bite

b)

Stab

c)

Chew

d)

Grind

75.

The extra stomach in herbivores that has bacteria to break down plant matter is called the

a)

Endotherm

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Rumen

d)

Ramen

76.

What structure in mammals provides nourishment for mammals after they are born?

a)

Mammary Glands

b)

Plancenta

c)

Claspers

d)

Cloaca

77.

The only mammal that can truly fly is the...

a)

Cardinal

b)

Bat

c)

Penguin

d)

Pterodactyl

78.

Why didn't mammals flourish until the cenozoic era?

a)

Dinosaurs were the dominant species

b)

It was too cold

c)

There was not enough land mass for them

d)

They all lived in the water

79.

When you cross two parents, each parent is responsible for passing _______ of their two alleles for each individual trait.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

80.

Grey (G) fur is dominant to brown (g) fur in mice. What would be the genotype of a mouse that is homozygous dominant?

a)

GG

b)

Gg

c)

gg

d)

GGG

81.

How many human genetic disorders are known?

a)

1

b)

100

c)

Thousands

d)

None

82.

In which ways can genetic engineering can improve crops

a)

Make them pest or drought resistant

b)

Make them more nutritious

c)

Make them larger

d)

All answers are correct

83.
When DNA is manipulated and moved from one source to another it is known as
a)
genetic engineering
b)
electrophoresis
c)
gene therapy
d)
GMO
84.
Plasmids, yeast, and viruses are known as ____________.
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
vectors
c)
genetically modified organisms
d)
bacteria
85.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
86.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
87.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
88.

Which among the following statement is not true?

a)

All stages of embryonic and fetal development are vulnerable to environmental charges

b)

Disturbance may result to overt bizarre teratogenicity or subtle metabolic disorders that are expressed in postnatal life

c)

The environment has the capacity to charge gene expression without changing the genome

d)

None of the above

89.

They are non genetic factors that interfere with normal embryonic and fetal differentiation and morphogenesis

a)

Teratogens

b)

Epigenetics

c)

Sensitivity

d)

All of the above

90.

Which among the following is used to treat skin condition and cancer

a)

Thalidomide

b)

Thalomide

c)

Luminol

d)

Retinoic Acid

91.

How many affected infants were born to women who had taken thalidomide

a)

over 6500 infant

b)

over 8000 infants

c)

over 2500 infants

d)

None of the above

92.

AER stands for

a)

Airial established restricition

b)

Apical Ectodermal Ridge

c)

Aesthetic Endodermal Reticulata

d)

None of the above

93.

Which among the following is considered an effect of DU in the biological system

a)

Radiation

b)

Nausea

c)

Vomiting

d)

None of the above

94.

The order of development is as follows:

a)

fertilisation > gastrulation > cleavage > organogenesis

b)

fertilisation > cleavage > gastrulation > organogenesis

c)

fertilisation > cleavage > organogenesis > gastrulation

d)

cleavage > fertilisation > gastrulation > organogenesis

95.

Which is an example for microlecithal egg?

a)

Amphioxus egg

b)

Frog egg

c)

Chick egg

d)

lizard egg

96.

       The group of cell or the tissue which produce a signal that determines fate of second group of cell or tissue is known as

a)

responder

b)

enhancer

c)

inhibitor

d)

inducer

97.

The process of synthesis of yolk in eggs?

a)

Neurogenesis

b)

Notogenesis

c)

Vitellogenesis

d)

Organogenesis

98.

Which of the following does not affect the rate of Active Transport?

a)

Temperature

b)

Surface area to volume ratio

c)

pH

d)

Glucose concentration

99.

Which of these vitamins is associated with the coenzyme Biocytin?

a)

Nicotinic acid

b)

Thiamine

c)

Biotin

d)

Pyridoxine

100.
The enzyme known as ‘catalase’ is involved in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide molecules into separate water and oxygen molecules. During this reaction, what happens to the ‘catalase’?
a)
The enzyme would become products: O2 and H20
b)
The enzyme would be fully used up and discarded.
c)
The enzyme would remain unchanged in any way.
d)
The enzyme would become a new type of enzyme.
101.

Which of the following ratios of the surface area to volume would have the fast rate of diffusion

a)

1.2:1

b)

1:1

c)

7:1

d)

.7:1

102.

Select the correct order

a)

veliger, pediveliger, spat, trocophore

b)

trocophore, veliger, pediveliger, spat

c)

spat, veliger, pediveliger, trocophore

d)

trocophore pediveliger, veliger, spat

103.

Where would you find grouper ready to spawn?

a)

mangroves

b)

shallow water reefs

c)

deep water reefs

d)

offshore near surface

104.

Which organism would be most likely have their young affected by Global Warming

a)

Whales

b)

Sea Turtles

c)

Tuna

d)

Sharks

105.
The study of animal behavior
a)
biology
b)
ecology
c)
ethology
d)
behaviorology
106.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a stimulus?
a)
Sight
b)
Sound
c)
Smell
d)
foraging 
107.
Which of the following is an example of COURTSHIP behavior?
a)
growling at foe
b)
barking for attention
c)
nursing young
d)
showing bright feathers
108.
What is the MAIN reason animals engage in play behavior?
a)
to socialize
b)
to strengthen family bonds
c)
to learn about each other
d)
to learn skills like hunting
109.

Which is an example of innate behavior?

a)

pond ducks flocking to be fed

b)

bears leaning to catch fish

c)

human babies speaking words

d)

birds chirping when hatched

110.

Which is an example of a behavior?

a)

blood flowing through veins

b)

a dog avoiding a foul odor

c)

tree branch providing shade

d)

. a rabbit’s fur turning white

111.

This type of innate behavior occurs when an animal carries out a specific set of actions, in sequence, in response to a stimulus.

a)

imprinting

b)

fixed action pattern

c)

habituation

d)

classical conditioning

112.

Ctenophora is commonly called as:

a)

Flatworms

b)

Sea Anemone

c)

Comb Jellies

d)

Cnidaria

113.

Which of the following is NOT an animal instinct?

a)

A puppy tries to get milk from its mother

b)

A bee knows its job in the hive

c)

A baby deer tries to learn to walk right away

d)

A dolphin learns how to hunt by watching its parents

114.

What animal uses "thermal vision"?

a)

Dogs

b)

Cats

c)

Rabbits

d)

Snakes

115.
What animal adaptation is helping this animal increase its chance of survival?
a)
camouflage
b)
mimicry
c)
emitting smells
116.
What internal stimulus causes us to react when our body is low on energy?
a)
hunger
b)
sleepiness
c)
shivering
117.
Why do dogs pant?
a)
to cool down
b)
to heat up 
c)
he is hungry
118.
Can eat less food because it doesn't need to maintain a constant body temperature.
a)
fish and reptiles
b)
amphibians and birds
c)
mammals and birds
119.

These cells are small and flat

a)

Cuboidal

b)

Columnar

c)

Squamous

d)

Pseudostratified

120.

Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissues?

a)

covering exposed surfaces

b)

lining internal passageways

c)

producing glandular secretions

d)

contracting to produce movement

121.
Lines ducts and glands
a)
Columnar
b)
Cuboidal
c)
Simple Squamous
d)
Transitional
122.
Used in places where diffusion needs to occur, such as blood vessels and air sacs in the lungs
a)
Cuboidal
b)
Columnar
c)
Simple Squamous
d)
Stratified Squamous
123.
Absorbs nutrients in the digestive tract
a)
Columnar
b)
Cuboidal
c)
Simple Squamous
d)
Pseudostratified
124.

Which tissue assists in support and protection of organs and limbs?

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscle

d)

nerve

125.

A form of connective tissue in which the cells are specialized for the synthesis and storage of energy-rich reserves of fat, or lipid.

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Areolar tissue

126.

A scientist has encountered a new organism in the kingdom Animalia with the following characteristics: jointed legs, exoskeleton, segmented body, and bilateral symmetry. What is it?

a)

Annelida

b)

Arthropoda

c)

Cnidaria

d)

Mollusca

127.

Animals are thought to be most closely related to ___________________

a)

choanoflagellates.

b)

charophytes.

c)

chytrids.

d)

fungi.

128.

Major trends in the evolution of animals include _________________

a)

cephalization, the development of a definite head region.

b)

the development of types of symmetry.

c)

variation in coelomic cavities.

d)

all of the above.

129.

A scolex is ______________

a)

the anterior attachment organ of a tapeworm.

b)

the feeding organ of a fluke.

c)

an appendage of a sandworm.

d)

the egg of a sea star.

130.
Study of mammals
a)
anatomy
b)
zoology
c)
mammalogy
d)
physiology
131.
Which scientist is responsible for the idea of transformation?
a)
Darwin
b)
Lamarck
c)
Lyell
d)
Wallace
132.
According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
a)
commensalism
b)
inbreeding
c)
migration
d)
evolution by natural selection
133.

Sponges, Jellies, Flatworms and Roundworms all get their oxygen through:

a)

simple diffusion

b)

gills

c)

lungs

d)

Amazon Prime

134.

How many openings do Cnidarians have to their Gastrovascular Cavity?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

135.
What do you call a big group of fish that move in the same direction?
a)
Shoals
b)
School
c)
Packs
d)
Bank
136.

Fish hearts have _____ chambers

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

1

137.

This structure is used to detect vibrations in the water.

a)

olfactory sacs

b)

nictitating membrane

c)

lateral line

d)

spiracles

138.

This structure is used to detect vibrations in the water.

a)

olfactory sacs

b)

nictitating membrane

c)

lateral line

d)

spiracles

139.

Fish that live in the open ocean have dark backs, silvery sides and a white belly; this is know as

a)

Cryptic coloration

b)

Counter shading

c)

Disruptive coloration

d)

Warning coloration

140.

Hagfish are a part of which Class?

a)

Myxini

b)

Osteichthyes

c)

Petromyzontida

d)

Agnatha

e)

Chondrichthyes

141.

Lamprey's are in which Class of fish?

a)

Myxini

b)

Agnatha

c)

Osteichthyes

d)

Petromyzontida

e)

Chondrichthyes

142.

Which Class are sharks classified in?

a)

Agnatha

b)

Petromyzontida

c)

Myxini

d)

Osteichthyes

e)

Chondrichthyes

143.

How many years ago did fish first appear?

a)

500,000

b)

5 million

c)

50 million

d)

500 million

144.

Fish olfactory sacs help fish

a)

Balance

b)

See

c)

Smell

d)

Detect electric impulses

145.

There are about _____ different types of fish.

a)

10,000

b)

30,000

c)

1,000,000

d)

1,000

146.

What is the name of the internal structure that controls a bony fish's depth in the water?

a)

Liver

b)

Air Pocket

c)

Lung Bladder

d)

Swim Bladder

147.

The very slow motion of the Continents

a)

Biography

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Dispersal

d)

Exotic Species

148.

What is the study of the distribution of species in geographic space and through time?

a)

Biology

b)

Geology

c)

Geography

d)

Zoogeography

149.
Which BEST describes why latitudes closest to the equator have warmer climates?
a)
they are at lower elevations
b)
they receive more solar energy
c)
they are nearer to ocean currents
d)
they get more winds that carry energy in the form of heat
150.

The tendency of birds and mammals to be larger as latitude increases.

a)

Bergmann's rule

b)

Allen's rule

c)

Jordan's rule

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