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As chemistry

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

ethanol

b)

ethanal

c)

ethanone

d)

methanal

2.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

propan-2-al

b)

propanane

c)

propanone

d)

propanal

3.

Which compound is a structural isomer of Z-but-2-ene?

a)

butane

b)

E-but-2-ene

c)

cyclobutane

d)

methylbut-2-ene

4.

Which equation is a propagation step in the conversion of trichloromethane into tetrachloromethane by reaction with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light?

a)

CHCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + HCl

b)

●CCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4

c)

CHCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4 + ●H

d)

●CCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + ●Cl

5.

How many structural isomers are there with the molecular formula C3H6BrCl?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

6.

How many different alkenes are formed when 2-bromo-3-methylbutane reacts with ethanolic potassium hydroxide?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

7.

An organic compound is found to contain 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen.Which of the following compounds could this be?

a)

Ethanol

b)

Ethanoic acid

c)

Methanol

d)

Methanoic acid

8.

Which one of the following mechanisms is not involved in the reaction sequence below?

CH3CH3 → CH3CH2Cl → CH3CH2OH → CH2=CH2 → CH3CH2Br

a)

electrophilic addition

b)

electrophilic substitution

c)

nucleophilic substitution

d)

free-radical substitution

9.

What is the correct systematic name for

a)

2-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene

b)

2-bromo-3-ethylbut-2-ene

c)

3-bromo-2-ethylbut-2-ene

d)

4-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene

10.

What is the correct systematic name for

a)

2-ethyl-3,4-dimethylpent-2-ene

b)

4-ethyl-2,3-dimethylpent-3-ene

c)

2,3,4-trimethylhex-3-ene

d)

3,4,5-trimethylhex-3-ene

11.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

ethanol

b)

ethanal

c)

ethanone

d)

methanal

12.

What is the name of this compound?

a)

propan-2-al

b)

propanane

c)

propanone

d)

propanal

13.

Which compound is a structural isomer of Z-but-2-ene?

a)

butane

b)

E-but-2-ene

c)

cyclobutane

d)

methylbut-2-ene

14.

Which equation is a propagation step in the conversion of trichloromethane into tetrachloromethane by reaction with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light?

a)

CHCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + HCl

b)

●CCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4

c)

CHCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4 + ●H

d)

●CCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + ●Cl

15.

How many structural isomers are there with the molecular formula C3H6BrCl?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

16.

How many different alkenes are formed when 2-bromo-3-methylbutane reacts with ethanolic potassium hydroxide?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

17.

An organic compound is found to contain 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen.Which of the following compounds could this be?

a)

Ethanol

b)

Ethanoic acid

c)

Methanol

d)

Methanoic acid

18.

Which one of the following mechanisms is not involved in the reaction sequence below?

CH3CH3 → CH3CH2Cl → CH3CH2OH → CH2=CH2 → CH3CH2Br

a)

electrophilic addition

b)

electrophilic substitution

c)

nucleophilic substitution

d)

free-radical substitution

19.

What is the correct systematic name for

a)

2-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene

b)

2-bromo-3-ethylbut-2-ene

c)

3-bromo-2-ethylbut-2-ene

d)

4-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene

20.

What is the correct systematic name for

a)

2-ethyl-3,4-dimethylpent-2-ene

b)

4-ethyl-2,3-dimethylpent-3-ene

c)

2,3,4-trirnethylhex-3-ene

d)

3,4,5-trimethylhex-3-ene

21.

Chlorination of alkanes is an example of

a)

Elimination reaction

b)

Free radical substitution reaction

c)

Nucleophilic substitution reaction

d)

Electrophilic addition reaction

22.

Which of the following cannot react as a nucleophile?

a)

CH3NH2

b)

(CH3)2NH

c)

(CH3)3N

d)

(CH3)4N+

23.

Which among the following does not exhibit geometric isomerism?

a)

1-hexene

b)

2-hexene

c)

3-hexene

d)

4-hexene

24.

The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many isomeric alkanes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

25.

Which of the following is NOT true about nucleophiles?

a)

donates an electron pair to an electrophile to form a chemical bond

b)

all molecules or ions with a free pair of electrons or at least one pi bond can act as nucleophiles

c)

nucleophile are Lewis acids by definition

d)

a nucleophile becomes attracted to a full or partial positive charge

26.

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about electrophiles?

a)

Electrophiles are positively charged or neutral species having vacant orbitals

b)

The electrophiles are attacked by the most electron-populated part of one nucleophile

c)

Electrophiles are Lewis base

27.

General formula for amines is

a)

R-CH2

b)

R2CH

c)

R-NH2

d)

R-COOH

28.

What kind of molecule is this?

a)

alkane

b)

alkene

c)

alkyne

d)

cycloalkane

29.

What is a functional group?

a)

Atoms or group of atoms that give specific characteristics to a molecule

b)

Group of molecules that make up a group of atoms

c)

Group of molecules that give specific characteristics to an atom

d)

Group of atoms that give specific characteristics to an element

30.

How to determine that a molecule exhibit E/Z isomerism?

a)

Restricted rotation in a carbon-carbon single bond of alkenes

b)

Each carbon of a site of restricted rotation has 2 different atoms or groups attached to it

c)

Exist in cyclic compouds only

d)

Similar chemical properties

31.

Which of the following molecules exhibit geometrical isomerism?

a)

CH2=CHCH3

b)

C6H5CH=CHC6H5

c)

(CH3)2C=CHCH3

d)

CH3CH2N=OH

32.

which compound reacts with Tollen's reagent to give a silver mirror?

a)

butan-2-ol

b)

butanal

c)

butanone

d)

but-2-ene

33.

which compound decolorises bromine water?

a)

butan-2-ol

b)

butanal

c)

butanone

d)

but-2-ene

34.

Which compound effervesces with sodium carbonate?

a)

propan-2-ol

b)

propanoic acid

c)

propanal

d)

propene

35.

3 of the compounds below can turn acidified potassium dichromate (VI) orange to green which are?

a)

propan-1-ol

b)

propan-2-ol

c)

2-methylpropan-2-ol

d)

3,3 dimethylbutan-2-ol

36.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

c

d)

D

38.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.
a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

46.
a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

1, 2, and 3

47.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

2 and 3

48.

What is a structural isomer?

a)

Same molecular formula but different structural formula.

b)

Different functional groups.

c)

Different bonds in the structure.

d)

Change in the position of the functional group.

49.

What are alkanes?

a)

Unsaturated Hydrocarbons

b)

Compound containing a hydroxyl group

c)

Saturated atom containing hydrogen and carbon only

d)

Saturated Hydrocarbons

50.

Through which process would you separate crude oil?

a)

Catalytic Cracking

b)

Fractional Distillation

c)

Thermal Cracking

d)

Steam Distillation

e)

Primary Distillation

51.

Which of these isn't a fraction produce through fractional distillation?

a)

Bitumen

b)

Naptha

c)

Fuel oil

d)

Ethanol

52.

What is crude oil formed from?

a)

Remains of shale gas trapped under the sea bed

b)

Remains of gases trapped in the ozone layer

c)

Remains of plants and animals that died millions of years ago

d)

Remains of animal faeces from millions of years ago

53.

Which bond breaks during cracking?

a)

C-C bond

b)

C-C double bond

c)

C-H bond

d)

C-OH bond

54.

What is cracking?

a)

Process of breaking long chain alkenes into shorter chain alkanes, alkenes and hydrogen

b)

Process of breaking long chain alkanes into shorter chain alkanes, alkenes and hydrogen

c)

Process of separating long chain alkanes into shorter chain alkanes, alkenes and hydrogen

d)

Process of breaking long chain haloalkanes into shorter chain haloalkenes

55.

Which of these is not a condition of catalytic cracking?

a)

Slight pressure

b)

Rhodium catalyst

c)

Zeolite catalyst

d)

High temperature

56.

Which form of cracking produces the highest percentage of alkenes?

a)

Catalytic

b)

Steam

c)

Fractional

d)

Thermal

57.

Which of these statements are incorrect about thermal cracking?

a)

Low pressure

b)

Produces high percentage of arenes

c)

Produces high percentage of alkenes

d)

High temperature

58.

What are the main products of catalytic cracking?

a)

Alkyne

b)

Water

c)

Motor fuels

d)

Aromatic compounds

e)

Ketone

59.

Which of these fractions are most in demand?

a)

LPG

b)

Bitumen

c)

Petrol

d)

Gas oil

60.

Which of these isn't an advantage of cracking?

a)

People don't spend money researching other fuels

b)

Doesn't produce greenhouse gases

c)

Meets demand for short chain hydrocarbons

d)

Isn't too expensive

61.

How many protons, neutrons and electrons are there in 59Co2+?

a)

59p, 32n, 27e

b)

27p, 32n, 32e

c)

27p, 32n, 25e

d)

29p, 30n, 27e

62.

What mass of aluminium can theoretically be obtained from 10.2 Tonnes of alumina Al2O3? (1 Tonne = 1000 kg)

a)

540 kg

b)

5.40 Tonnes

c)

4.16 Tonnes

d)

2700 kg

63.

Calculate the number of electrons lost when 3.27 kg of zinc is oxidised to zinc(II) ions.


Avogadro constant = 6.02 x 1023

a)

3.01 x 1025

b)

1.20 x 1026

c)

6.02 x 1025

d)

None of these

64.

Calculate the mass of bromine which could theoretically be obtained by the electrolysis of 400cm3 of 0.2 mol dm-3 copper(II) bromide.

a)

12.8 g

b)

40.0 g

c)

6.40 g

d)

25.6 g

65.

What volume of 1.20 mol dm-3 hydrochloric acid is required to react exactly with excess calcium carbonate to produce 227 cm3 of carbon dioxide gas measured at STP?


Assume that 1 mol of CO2 has a volume of 24 dm3.

a)

15.8 cm3

b)

12.5 cm3

c)

7.88 cm3

d)

25.0 cm

e)

None of these

66.

P4 + 6Cl2 --> 4PCl3

The reaction of 75.0g P4 with excess chlorine gas produces 110g PCl3 in lab. Find the theoretical yield and calculate percent yield for the reaction.

a)

82 %

b)

64%

c)

27%

d)

33%

67.

Calculate the % atom economy for the production of sodium chloride using the following reaction:


Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl (aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)


Give your answer to 2sf.

(a)  

68.

Which of these is the correct formula for ammonium carbonate?

a)

(NH3)2CO3

b)

NH4CO3

c)

(NH4)2CO3

d)

N(CO3)3

69.

Which two of the following have a crystal structure which could be described as "molecular"?

a)

Ice

b)

Magnesium

c)

Graphite

d)

Iodine

e)

Ammonium nitrate

70.

Which are the strongest type of intermolecular forces present between molecules of fluoromethane, CH3F?

a)

Van der Waals

b)

Permanent-dipole-permanent-dipole attractions

c)

Permanent-dipole-induced-dipole attractions

d)

Hydrogen bonds

71.

A compound is a colourless, viscous liquid at room temperature which does not conduct electricity but is miscible with water. What type(s) of bonds are likely present in this compound?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Ionic bonds and non-polar covalent bonds

c)

Polar covalent bonds

d)

Non-polar covalent bonds

72.

Which of these repel each other the most strongly?

a)

Bonding pair- bonding pair

b)

Bonding pair- lone pair

c)

Lone pair- lone pair

73.

Electronegativity is the power of an atom to attract...

a)

... an electron in another atom

b)

... the electrons in its outer shell

c)

... the pair of electrons in a covalent bond

d)

None of these

74.

Which are the strongest type of intermolecular forces present between molecules of dichloromethane, CH2Cl2?

a)

Van der Waals

b)

Permanent-dipole-permanent-dipole attractions

c)

Permanent-dipole-induced-dipole attractions

d)

Hydrogen bonds

75.

Which of the following can be explained by hydrogen bonding? (Select at least two answers)

a)

The unusually high boiling point of ammonia

b)

The high solubility of hydrogen halides

c)

The high conductivity of solutions of strong acids

d)

The unusually low density of ice

e)

The fact that sodium hydroxide is a solid at room temperature

76.

What are "standard conditions"?

a)

100 Pa and a stated temperature (usually 298oC)

b)

100 kPa and a stated temperature (usually 298K)

c)

100 kPa and 298K

d)

101 kPa and 273K

e)

1 atmosphere and a stated temperature (usually 273K)

77.

H2 (g) + ½ O2 (g) --> H2O (g) represents the...

a)

standard enthalpy change of combustion of hydrogen

b)

standard enthalpy change of formation of water

c)

Both of these

d)

Neither of these

78.
 For which of these processes is the value of ΔH expected to be positive?
1.  The temperature increases when calcium chloride dissolves in water.
 2.  Steam condenses to liquid water
3.  Water boils
4.  Dry ice sublimates
a)
4 only
b)
1 only
c)
3 and 4 only
d)
2 and 3 only
79.

Match the definition to the correct term.

The enthalpy change that accompanies a reaction in the molar quantities shown in a chemical reaction under standard conditions with all reactants and products in their standard states.

a)

The enthalpy of formation

b)

The enthalpy of reaction

c)

The enthalpy of combustion

d)

The enthalpy of neutralisation

80.

What does this equation represent?

Cl (g) + e- → Cl- (g)

a)

1st ionisation enthalpy of chlorine

b)

1st electron affinity of chlorine

c)

Atomisation enthalpy of chlorine

d)

None of these

81.

What does this equation represent?

Cl2 (g) → 2Cl (aq)

a)

Enthalpy of solution

b)

Enthalpy of hydration

c)

Bond disassociation enthalpy

d)

None of these

82.

The table shows the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔfHθ, for some of the substances in the reaction


C2H6(g) + 6F2(g) ⟶ C2F6(g) + 6HF(g) ΔHθ = −2898 kJ mol−1


What is the standard enthalpy of formation, in kJ mol−1, for HF(g)?

a)

−1638

b)

−273

c)

+273

d)

+1638

83.

Nitric acid is produced industrially from ammonia, air and water using the following sequence of reactions:


Which is the enthalpy change (in kJ mol−1) for the following reaction?


4NH3(g) + 7O2(g) → 4NO2(g) + 6H2O(g)

a)

−679

b)

−794

c)

−1024

d)

−1239

84.

This question is about the reaction given below.


CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)


Enthalpy data for the reacting species are given in the table.


The standard enthalpy change for this reaction of carbon monoxide and steam is

a)

+42 kJ mol−1

b)

−42 kJ mol−1

c)

+262 kJ mol−1

d)

−262 kJ mol−1

85.

When 0.10 g of propane was burned the quantity of heat evolved was 5.0 kJ. The enthalpy of combustion of propane in kJ mol−1 is

a)

−800

b)

−1500

c)

−2200

d)

−2900

86.
What is the Kc expression for this reaction?
   2 NO(g)  +  O2(g) ⇌  2 NO2(g)
a)
Kc = [NO2]2 / [NO]2 [O2]
b)
Kc =  [NO]2 [O2] / [NO2]2
c)
Kc = [NO]2 [O2] [NO2]2
d)
Kc = [NO2]2 / [NO]2 +  [O2]
87.
Given: 2A(g) <=> 2B(g) + C(g). At a particular temperature, Kc = 16000.
Raising the pressure, by decreasing the volume of the container, will...
a)
cause the value of Kc to increase
b)
cause the value of Kc to decrease
c)
have no effect on the value of Kc as temperature does not change
d)
favour the forward reaction
88.
If the equilibrium constant is much less than one (K << 1) then
a)
Equilibrium is not established.
b)
Equilibrium lies to the right (products are favored)
c)
Equilibrium lies to the left (reactants are favored)
d)
Neither products or reactants are favored.
89.
The following reaction :    
SO2 (g) +  NO2 (g) <=> SO3 (g) + NO (g)  
had reached a state of equilibrium, was found to contain  
0.40 mol L-1 SO3 , and 0.30 mol L-1 NO,
0.15 mol L-1NO2 , and 0.20 mol L-1 SO2.
Calculate the equilibrium constant  for this reaction. 
a)
4
b)
.42
c)
.25
d)
1
90.

Which statement about Kp is correct for this reaction in the gas phase?


W + X + Y2 ⇌ WXY + Y

ΔH = −46 kJ mol−1

a)

The value of Kp is independent of pressure.

b)

The value of Kp increases as pressure increases.

c)

The value of Kp increases as temperature increases.

d)

The value of Kp is independent of temperature.

91.

The following information concerns the equilibrium gas-phase synthesis of methanol.


CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g)


At equilibrium, when the temperature is 68 °C, the total pressure is 1.70 MPa.The number of moles of CO, H2 and CH3OH present are 0.160, 0.320 and 0.180, respectively. Thermodynamic data are given.


With pressures expressed in MPa units, the value of the equilibrium constant, Kp, under these conditions is

a)

1.37

b)

1.66

c)

2.82

d)

4.80

92.

The relevant standard electrode potentials for this cell are shown below.

Cr3+(aq) + 3e- ⇌ Cr(s) E= − 0.74 V

Ag+(aq) + e− ⇌ Ag(s) E = + 0.80 V

Calculate the emf of the cell shown in the diagram.

a)

+1.54 V

b)

-1.54 V

c)

+ 0.06 V

d)

- 0.06 V

93.

Which species will oxidise Fe2+(aq) to Fe3+(aq)?

a)

Br2 (aq)

b)

Cl-(aq)

c)

I2 (aq)

d)

Mn2+(aq)

94.

Consider the galvanic cell reaction Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Cu (s) + Zn2+ (aq) When the cell is running spontaneously, which is the only true statement?

a)

The copper electrode loses mass and the zinc electrode is the cathode.

b)

The copper electrode gains mass and the copper electrode is the cathode.

c)

The zinc electrode gains mass and the zinc electrode is the anode.

d)

The zinc electrode loses mass and the zinc electrode is the cathode.

95.

The following cell has an EMF of +0.46 V.


Cu | Cu2+ || Ag+ | Ag


Which statement is correct about the operation of the cell?

a)

Metallic copper is oxidised by Ag+ ions.

b)

The silver electrode is the anode.

c)

The silver electrode gradually dissolves to form Ag+ ions.

d)

Electrons flow from the silver electrode to the copper electrode via an external circuit.

96.

Which element is in the f-block of the Periodic Table?

a)

Palladium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Platinum

d)

Plutonium

97.

Which of these decreases down Group 2?

a)

First ionisation energy

b)

Atomic radius

c)

Number of protons

d)

Reactivity with water

98.

Which statement about barium sulfate is correct?

a)

It is soluble in water at a temperature of 100 °C.

b)

It is used in medicine because it does not dissolve in body fluids.

c)

It is a pale yellow solid.

d)

It reacts with acidified barium chloride solution.

99.

Which products are formed when magnesium reacts with steam?

a)

Magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen

b)

Magnesium hydroxide and oxygen

c)

Magnesium oxide and hydrogen

d)

Magnesium oxide and oxygen

100.

Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is produced when some fossil fuels are burned. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Sulfur dioxide can be removed from waste gases in a power station by an acid-base reaction with calcium oxide.

b)

Sulfur dioxide is insoluble in water.

c)

Sulfur dioxide is a basic oxide.

d)

Sulfur dioxide is an ionic compound.

101.

Which one of the following is not a correct trend down Group VII?

a)

The first ionisation energy of the atom decreases.

b)

The oxidising power of the element increases.

c)

The electronegativity of the atom decreases.

d)

The boiling point of the element increases.

102.

Which statement about astatine is correct?

a)

Astatine has a greater electronegativity than bromine

b)

Astatine is a better oxidising agent than bromine

c)

Astatine has a greater boiling point than bromine

d)

Astatine has a greater first ionisation energy than bromine

103.

The boiling points of the halogens increase down Group VII because

a)

covalent bond strengths increase.

b)

bond polarities increase.

c)

the surface areas of the molecules increase.

d)

electronegativities increase.

104.

Which is the formula of the main aluminium-containing species present when aluminium oxide is added to an excess of water?

a)

[Al(H2O)6]3+(aq)

b)

Al(H2O)3(OH)3(s)

c)

[Al(H2O)2(OH)4]−(aq)

d)

Al2O3(s)

105.

Which element forms an ionic oxide that reacts with strong alkalis?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Sulfur

106.

Which element is in the d-block of the Periodic Table?

a)

Selenium

b)

Antimony

c)

Tantalum

d)

Lead

107.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

The first ionisation energies of the elements in Period 3 show a general decrease from sodium to chlorine.

b)

The electronegativities of Group 2 elements decrease from magnesium to barium.

c)

The strength of the intermolecular forces increases from hydrogen fluoride to hydrogen chloride.

d)

The ability of a halide ion to act as a reducing agent decreases from fluoride to iodide.

108.

Which of these elements has the highest second ionisation energy?

a)

Na

b)

Mg

c)

Ne

d)

Ar

109.

Which elements are shown in increasing order of the stated property?

a)

Atomic radius: phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine.

b)

First ionisation energy: sodium, magnesium, aluminium.

c)

Electronegativity: sulfur, phosphorus, silicon.

d)

Melting point: argon, chlorine, sulfur.

110.

Which is the correct order of melting points of these Period 3 elements?

a)

phosphorus > sulfur > chlorine > argon

b)

argon > chlorine > phosphorus > sulfur

c)

sulfur > phosphorus > chlorine > argon

d)

chlorine > phosphorus > sulfur > argon

111.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the trend in atomic radius across Period 3 of the Periodic Table?

a)

radius increases because the atoms have more electrons

b)

radius decreases because nuclear charge increases

c)

radius increases because shielding (screening) increases

d)

radius decreases because shielding (screening) decreases

112.

Which is the correct classification for the element yttrium (Y)?

a)

s block

b)

p block

c)

d block

d)

f block

113.

The diagram shows how a property of Period 3 elements varies across the period. What is the property?

a)

Atomic radius

b)

Electronegativity

c)

First ionisation energy

d)

Melting point

114.

Which of these Period 3 elements has the highest melting point?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Sodium

d)

Sulfur

115.

Which element has the highest first ionisation energy?

a)

Aluminium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Silicon

d)

Sulfur

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