wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Adv Science - 2nd Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Thermal Energy is

a)

the energy of electrons moving through a circuit

b)

the energy stored due to its position

c)

the energy of particles in motion which can be described as heat

d)

the energy of moving downhill

2.

Three ways that heat is transferred in thermal energy are:

a)

conduction, convection, and radiation

b)

temperature, heat, density

3.

Heat transfer by convection happens when:

a)

there is a circulation of hot air/water rising and cold air/water sinking

b)

there is space that heat travels through in waves outwardly

c)

two objects are touching and heat moves from one object into the next object.

4.

Heat transfer by radiation happens when:

a)

there is a circulation of hot air/water rising and cold air/water sinking

b)

two objects are touching and heat moves from one object into the next object

c)

there is space that heat travels though in waves outwardly

5.

Heat transfer by conduction happens when:

a)

there is a circulation of hot air/water rising and cold air/water sinking

b)

there is space that heat travels through in waves outwardly

c)

two objects are touching and heat moves from one object into the next object

6.

Holding a hot cup of cocoa is an example of which type of heat transfer?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

7.

Lava in a lava lamp rising and falling as its heated and cools is an example of:

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

8.
What  is the formula to calculate heat energy required to raise the temperature of any substance?
a)
Q = m Cp ∆T
b)
Q = m Cp
c)
Q =  ½ m v
d)
m = Q Cp
9.
A sample of iron receives 50.J of heat energy that raises the temperature of the iron 25.0°C. If iron has a specific heat of  0.10 J/g°C, what is the mass of the iron sample?
a)
25 g
b)
30 g
c)
20 g
d)
50 g
10.
The specific heat(c) of copper is 0.39 J/g °C. What is the temperature change(∆t) when 100 Joules of heat(Q) is added to 20 grams?
a)
12.82 °C
b)
24.12°C
c)
351 °C
11.
What unit do you use to measure Thermal Energy?
a)
J/Kg ºC
b)
Kg
c)
ºC
d)
J
12.
A high specific heat means...
a)
It heats up quickly with energy added
b)
It requires more energy to change temperature
13.
You have 20 g of water with specific heat of 4.18 J/gŸ°C.  The temperature changes from 25° C to 20° C.  How much heat energy (Q) moves from the water to the surroundings?
a)
418 Joules
b)
209 J
c)
83 J
d)
4.18 J
14.
The temperature of an unknown piece of metal with a mass of 30.00 g changes from 25.0 °C to 35.0 °C when the metal absorbs 350.0 J of energy. What is the specific heat of the metal?
a)
1.17 J/g°C
b)
-1.17 J/g°C
c)
0.857 J/g°C
d)
-0.857 J/g°C
15.
When you stretch a rubber band, you are storing __________ energy. 
a)
kinetic 
b)
potential
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
16.
which point has the most potential energy
a)
G
b)
f
c)
b
d)
a
17.
Which 2 letters have the most kinetic energy
a)
W & Y
b)
X & Z
18.
How much pontential energy is at the top of a hill on a rollar coaster ride
a)
100%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
20%
19.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
20.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy. 
a)
Potential 
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
21.

Which passenger has the most potential energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.

How much gravitational potential energy does a 100kg (220lb.) skydiver have if they jump from 4000 meters?

a)

3920000 J

b)

294 J

c)

180000 J

d)

1225 J

23.

A 6kg cat misjudges a jump and falls 5 meters. How much gravitational potential energy does the cat have? (The cat is fine by the way.)

a)

294 J

b)

180000 J

c)

1225 J

d)

3920000 J

24.

What is the kinetic energy of a 1,600kg Mustang travelling at 15 m/s (33mph)

a)

180000 J

b)

294 J

c)

1225 J

d)

3920000 J

25.

A 50kg (100lb) person is running at 7m/s (about 16 mph). How much kinetic energy do they have?

a)

1225 J

b)

180000 J

c)

294 J

d)

3920000 J

26.

A cheetah can run briefly with a speed of 31.0 m/s. Suppose a cheetah with a mass of 47.0 kg runs at this speed. What is the cheetah’s kinetic energy?

a)

1457 Joules

b)

22,584 Joules

c)

15 Joules

d)

45,167Joules

27.
A moving 10 kilogram object has 20 Joules of kinetic energy. What is its velocity?
a)
2 m/s
b)
4 m/s
c)
200 m/s
d)
10 m/s
28.

The Royal Gorge Bridge is situated 321 m above the Arkansas River in Colorado. If the gravitational potential energy associated with a tourist on the bridge is 173,000 J with respect to the river, what is the tourist’s mass?

a)

17300 kg

b)

54 kg

c)

82 kg

d)

540 kg

29.

What is the KE at point B?

a)

14 J

b)

12 J

c)

6 J

d)

8 J

30.

What is the Total Energy of the system?

a)

14 J

b)

12 J

c)

6 J

d)

8 J

31.

What is the KE at point D?

a)

14 J

b)

12 J

c)

6 J

d)

8 J

32.

Airplanes fly in which layers of the atmosphere

a)

troposphere and stratosphere

b)

troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere

c)

troposphere, stratosphere, and thermosphere

d)

exosphere

33.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

a)

exosphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

exosphere

34.

The ozone layer found in the stratosphere is important because

a)

it blocks UV light

b)

it increases temperature

c)

it blocks rain

d)

it makes weather

35.

As altitude increases in the troposphere, the temperature

a)

increases (gets hotter)

b)

does not change

c)

decreases (gets colder)

36.

When you climb a high mountain, you lose your breath more easily because

a)

the air pressure is greater

b)

the air is denser

c)

amount of oxygen decreases

d)

amount of oxygen increases

37.

Which of the lists below shows gases from most to least abundant in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

oxygen, nitrogen, argon

b)

argon, nitrogen, oxygen

c)

nitrogen, oxygen, argon

38.

At which location would air pressure be the greatest?

a)

mountain top

b)

flying in an airplane

c)

sea level (on the ground)

39.
A severe storm that involves strong winds and forms over warm water is:
a)
tornado
b)
thunderstorm
c)
hurricane
d)
blizzard
40.
A severe storm which involves a funnel cloud forming from a cumulonimbus cloud:
a)
hurricane
b)
tornado
c)
thunderstorm
d)
blizzard
41.
Humidity is the...
a)
Amount of Water Vapor in the Air
b)
Amount of Wind in the Air
c)
Amount of Precipitation in the Air
d)
Amount of Pressure in the Air
42.
Because the earth is spinning on its axis, the global winds appear to curve. This is known as the __________ ________.
a)
Coriolis Effect
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
Climate Effect
d)
Atmosphere Effect
43.
What layer does weather occur in?
a)
mesosphere
b)
troposphere
c)
thermosphere
d)
stratosphere
44.
 A fast moving cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass is called a _________________
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
45.
A warm air mass overtakes a slow-moving cold air mass is called a _____________________.
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
46.
Cold and warm masses meet, but neither can move the other is called a ______________________
a)
warm front
b)
cold front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
47.
A huge body of air that has similar temperature and humidity at any given height is called an __________________________.
a)
front
b)
jet stream
c)
air mass
d)
cyclone
48.
Which of the following air masses would be characterized as warm and dry?
a)
Maritime tropical
b)
Continental tropical
c)
Maritime polar
d)
Continental polar
49.
In the winter, Continental polar air masses bring what type of air to North America?
a)
dry and warm
b)
humid and cold
c)
dry and cold
d)
humid and warm
50.
Which type of air mass brings cool, humid weather to the West Coast of the United States?
a)
maritime tropical
b)
continental tropical
c)
maritime polar
d)
continental polar
51.

Winds that blow from 300 latitude to the equator are called...

a)

westerlies

b)

polar easterlies

c)

trade winds

d)

horse latitudes

52.

Winds that blow from 300 latitude to 600 latitude are called...

a)

polar easterlies

b)

westerlies

c)

trade winds

d)

doldrums

53.

Winds that blow from the North and South pole toward 600 latitude are called...

a)

trade winds

b)

westerlies

c)

polar easterlies

d)

horse latitudes

54.

Most of Earth's largest deserts are located at...

a)

0 degrees latitude

b)

30 degrees latitude

c)

60 degrees latitude

d)

90 degrees latitude

55.

The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day is called

a)

Ocean current

b)

tide

c)

Wave

56.

The measure of the amount of dissolved salt in a given amount of water is called _____.

a)

solubility

b)

salinity

c)

density

d)

proximity

57.

As the depth of ocean water increases, the temperature

a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

fluctuates depending on the pressure.

d)

stays the same.

58.

When temperature decreases, the density of liquid water _________________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

59.
Deep Ocean currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
60.

Water becomes more dense when temperature _____________ and salinity ______________.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

decreases, decreases

c)

increases, decreases

d)

increases, increases

61.

The ________________ is the barrier that separates the temperature differences in the ocean.

a)

halocline

b)

thermocline

c)

hadocline

d)

abyssalcline

62.

What is the name of the world wide current that distributes nutrients and oxygen to different parts of the ocean due to the uneven heating of the earth?

a)

global conveyor belt

b)

gulf stream

c)

EAC

d)

North American Jet stream

63.

The movement of deep, cold, nutrient filled water to the surface of the ocean is..

a)

Ocean Current

b)

Upwelling

c)

Deep Currents

d)

Surface Currents

64.

The Twilight Zone is ______ meters below sea level.

a)

0-200

b)

200-1,000

c)

1,000-4,000

65.

Most visible light is in the ____ Zone.

a)

Sunlight

b)

Midnight

c)

Twilight

66.
If there are two forces going in the same direction how would you find the net force?
a)
Subtract
b)
Add
c)
Neither
d)
Multiply
67.
8 N to the left , and 4 N to the right. Find the net force. Is this balanced?
a)
12 N Right  No
b)
4 N Left  No
c)
12 N Right  Yes
d)
4 N Left  Yes
68.
Which one is balanced?
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
both
d)
neither
69.
What is the magnitude (size) and direction of the net force?
a)
15 N to the left
b)
15 N to the right
c)
1 N to the left
d)
1 N to the right
70.
According to Newton's second law, if you increase the force applied to an object :
a)
it accelerates more
b)
it doesn't move
c)
you get more inertia
d)
it decelerates
71.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  What was the force?
a)
25 Newtons
b)
20 Newtons
c)
200 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
72.
According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will
a)
remain in motion.
b)
eventually come to a stop.
c)
change its momentum.
d)
accelerate.
73.
What law?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
74.
This person bought coffee and put it on the seat next to them. If they stopped quickly and the coffee spilled which law would that represent?
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
75.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

All of the above

76.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

All of the above

77.

Your car has a mass of 2500 kg and a force of 5000 N. How fast will it accelerate?

a)

20 m/s2

b)

2 m/s2

c)

0.5 m/s2

d)

120 N

78.

If a person is pushing a cart with a force of 40N and it accelerates at 0.5m/s², what is the mass of the cart?

a)

40.5kg

b)

80kg

c)

0.0125kg

d)

20kg

79.
What force ultimately slows the roller coaster to a stop?
a)
Applied
b)
Normal
c)
Friction
d)
Magnetic
80.
The unit of force is
a)
m/s
b)
m/s^2
c)
newton
d)
kg

Similar Resources on Wayground

8th grade science review

80 questions

8th grade science review

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

2022-2023 Benchmark Practice

75 questions

2022-2023 Benchmark Practice

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Evolution Unit Study Guide

76 questions

Evolution Unit Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th - 8th Grade

Fresh & Ocean Water Test Review

75 questions

Fresh & Ocean Water Test Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Unit 9: Heredity Study Guide

75 questions

Unit 9: Heredity Study Guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Physical Science 2025 Spring Final Exam review

77 questions

Physical Science 2025 Spring Final Exam review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade

Unit 1-4 REVIEW

84 questions

Unit 1-4 REVIEW

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade