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AP Biology - Natural Selection and Evolution

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?
a)
p2
b)
2pq
c)
q2
d)
p2 + 2pq
2.
What do you call all of the genes in a population?
a)
Gene pool
b)
Relative Frequency
c)
Genetic Drift
d)
Allele pool
3.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
4.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
5.

In a population of humans, the frequency of no dimples is 0.36. If having no dimples is the recessive phenotype, what is the frequency of the recessive allele?

a)

0.6

b)

0.36

c)

0.64

d)

0.18

6.

If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population express the recessive phenotype, what percent of the population would you predict to be heterozygous?

a)

70%

b)

30%

c)

42%

d)

49%

7.
Determine the expected numbers of organisms with genotype BB if the frequencies are as follows in a population with a total size of 150: f(BB)=0.16, f(Bb)=0.48, and f(bb)=0.36. 
a)
24
b)
72
c)
54
d)
150
8.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
9.

A population's recessive allele frequency 25%. What is the percentage of the Heterozygous genotype?

a)

.5625

b)

.3750

c)

.0625

d)

.25

e)

.5

10.

64% of the population has the recessive phenotype. What is the percentage of the recessive genotype?

a)

.04

b)

.32

c)

.64

d)

.2

e)

.8

11.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is q?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

12.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of Heterozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

13.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
14.
Using the cladogram:  a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
15.
The condition in which there are barriers to successful interbreeding between individuals of different species in the same community is referred to as 
a)
sexual dependency
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
geographic isolation
d)
adaptive radiation
16.
The wing of a bat and a humans' arm have different functions and appear very different.  Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same.  therefore, these structures are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
analogous structures
c)
homology
d)
reproductive isolation
17.
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele a is .4.  What is the percentage of the population heterozygous for this allele?
a)
4 percent
b)
16 percent
c)
32 percent
d)
48 percent
18.
The population of peppered moths in England changed from white to black in 50 years
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
sexual selection
c)
directional selection
d)
disruptive selection
19.
The differences in sparrow songs among sympatric species of sparrows are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
convergent evolution
c)
behavioral isolation
d)
mechanical isolation
20.
Two allopatric species of sparrows have very similar niches when compared to two sympatric species of sparrows.  What would be a good explanation for this?
a)
The allopatric species have no competition with one another so therefore can occupy similar niches
b)
The sympatric species are usually mechanically isolated from one another
c)
The sympatric species diverged from a common ancestor
d)
The allopatric species are behaviorally isolated from one another
21.
Darwin's finches are an example of 
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
22.
The establishment of a genetically unique population through genetic drift
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
23.
The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that resembles the North America wolf, which is a placental mammal.
a)
adaptive radiation
b)
divergent evolution
c)
founder effect
d)
convergent evolution
24.
variations in a population are maintained by
a)
mutations
b)
genetic recombination
c)
gene flow
d)
all of the above
25.
which of the following is NOT a requirement for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
small population
b)
no gene flow
c)
no mutations
d)
no selection
26.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
27.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
sexuality
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
28.
What is suggested by the similarity of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a)
no evolutionary relationships between the groups
b)
recent common ancestry
c)
similar environments in the past
d)
evolution from a distant common ancestor
29.
If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a)
close relative
b)
early ancestor
c)
unrelated organism
d)
embryological stage
30.
Which of the following statements is correct based on the information shown in this cladogram?
a)
the turtle and the frog are more similar to each other than the turtle and the bass
b)
frogs have existed for a longer time that bass
c)
the frog is more closely related to the bass than to the leopard
d)
the bass is exinct
31.
Which of the following evolutionary forces can introduce new genetic variation into a population?
a)
natural selection and non-random mating
b)
natural selection and genetic drift
c)
mutation and genetic drift
d)
mutation and gene flow
32.
A mutation occurs in a particular animal and quickly begins to increase in frequency throughout the population.  Which of the following are you most likely to conclude?
a)
The mutation makes the animal grow larger
b)
The mutation does not confer any benefit or harm to the animal
c)
The mutation makes the animal more susceptible to predators
d)
The mutation increase the probability that the animal will reproduce.
33.
Which of the following is an example of gene flow?
a)
A subordinate wolf successfully challenges the alpha male and mates with pack females
b)
A deer picks up spores from a plant as it grazes and deposits them next to that plant.
c)
A young stallion is driven out of its herd by the alpha stallion and begins its own herd in another location
d)
All of these answers
34.
Which of the following types of reproductive barriers separate a pair of species that could interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
mechanical isolation
c)
habitat isolation
d)
temporal isolation
35.
A migratory bird unknowingly accumulates a few seeds of the hwagha plant in her feathers and drops them in an area where those plants did not live before.  This is an example of
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Predation
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Migration
36.
What explains the inclusion of rabbits?
a)
they are an outgroup
b)
they are the most recent ancestor of primates
c)
they have a short generation time and are easy to study
d)
they possess shared derived characteristics of the included species
37.
A common ancestor for both C and E could be at position __.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
38.
In the early 2000s, White Nose fungus caused a mass die-off of native American bat species. Those bats that survived will continue the population with their own allele frequencies.  What type of genetic drift is this?
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Bottlenose Effect
c)
Bottleneck Effect
d)
Migration Effect
39.
Which statement correctly explains how resistance to penicillin appeared after a few years of its widespread use to fight bacterial infection? 
a)
in order to survive exposure to penicillin, bacteria developed a resistance to the drug 
b)
a few bacteria became resistant to penicillin, and through sexual reproduction , most bacteria acquired the resistance
c)
penicillin never really successfully wiped out populations of bacteria, scientist did not use proper controls in their studies
d)
some bacteria were resistant to penicillin and their population spread rapidly, without competition from bacteria that were killed by penicillin
40.

Species X and Species Y live in the same area in the same environment but they occupy different niches. Because of this they rarely encounter each other. This is an example of what type of barrier (which leads to speciation)?

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Ecological isolation

d)

Mechanical isolation

e)

Temporal isiolation

41.

When multiple frog species often occupy the same area in an ecosystem but are isolated with each species because they have developed different mating times and or mating seasons. This is an example of what type of Isolation?

a)

Gametic isolation

b)

Temporal isolation

c)

Mechanical isolation

d)

Behavioral isolation

e)

Geographical isolation

42.

Often times a mountain, a river, an island or large space between populations can result in this type of Isolation?

a)

Gametic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Mechanical isolation

d)

Geographical isolation

e)

Ecological isolation

43.

The eastern and western Meadow Lark are seperate species as they contain sperate mating calls with prevents them from being attracted to each other. This is an example of what type of Isolation?

a)

Gametic isolation

b)

Geographic isolation

c)

Mechanical isolation

d)

Ecolological isolation

e)

Behavioral isolation

44.

A lot of female snails can not physically reproduce with different male snails even if they are closely related because their genetalia (sex organs) do not fit with each other. This is an example of....

a)

Mechanical isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Gametic isolation

d)

Ecological isolation

e)

Geographical isolation

45.

This type of reproductive isolation (barrier) happens before any type of fertilization of the egg and sperm.

a)

Pre-zygotic barrier

b)

Post-zygotic barrier

46.

Allopatric or Sympatric speciation?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

47.

Allopatric or Sympatric speciation?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

48.

Allopatric or Sympatric speciation?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

49.
What type of evolution where there is a sudden, rapid change then no change for a long time?
a)
Co-Evolution
b)
Punctuated Equilibrium
c)
Divergent Evolution
d)
Convergent Evolution
50.

Evolution occurring gradually and slowly over long periods of time

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Stasis

c)

Punctuated Equilibrium

d)

Gradualism

51.

Evolution occurring quickly due to catastrophic events

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Gradualism

c)

Statsis

d)

Punctuated Equilibrim

52.

According to evolutionary theory, all living things have a common

a)

Purpose

b)

Function

c)

Ancestor

d)

Phone Number

53.
the type of evolution that Darwin believed in
a)
natural selection
b)
gradualism
c)
punctuated equilbrium
d)
commensalism
54.
a model that describes evolution as a slow, ongoing process by which one species changes to a new species. 
a)
osmosis
b)
gradualism
c)
homologous
55.

Gradualism occurs when geologic and climatic conditions are _______________.

a)

stable

b)

unstable

c)

long

d)

short

56.

Which form of evolution can occur quickly?

a)

gradualism

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

allopatric speciation

d)

sympatric speciation

57.

Gradualism and punctuated equilibrium

a)

can exist together

b)

must exist together

c)

never exist together

d)

must happen after each other

58.

Prokaryote is a ________ grouping.

a)

Paraphyletic

b)

Polyphyletic

c)

Monophyletic

d)

Nonphyletic

59.

The yellow, blue, and read bubbles represent different phylogenies. How would you describe the yellow bubble?

a)

monophyletic

b)

paraphyletic

c)

polyphyletic

d)

anaphyletic

60.
A group that includes ALL of the organisms descended from a common ancestor that share common features. Like Mammals
a)
Cladogram
b)
Monophyletic
c)
Paraphyletic
d)
Taxonomic Character
61.
A group of organisms descended from a common ancestor that EXCLUDES some of the descendants. Like birds are excluded from the group Reptiles, even though they are descended from a common ancestor
a)
Cladogram
b)
Monophyletic
c)
Paraphyletic
d)
Taxonomic Character
62.

Which group is the outgroup?

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

green

63.

What is an outgroup?

a)

A set of organisms under study

b)

A more distantly related group of organisms that serves as a reference group

c)

A grouping that includes a common ancestor and all the descendants

64.

The yellow, blue, and read bubbles represent different phylogenies. How would you describe the red bubble?

a)

monophyletic

b)

paraphyletic

c)

polyphyletic

d)

anaphyletic

65.

A group of species that includes an ancestral species and all its descendants.

a)

Cladogram

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Clade

d)

Taxonomy

66.

A taxonomic category above the kingdom level. The three domains are Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.

a)

Scientific Name

b)

Archaea

c)

Domain

d)

Clade

67.

Domain of unicellular prokaryotes that have cell walls that do not contain peptidoglycan

a)

Domain

b)

Archaea

c)

Fungi

d)

Taxonomy

68.

The name given to each species, consisting of its genus and its species label

a)

Scientific Name

b)

Dichotomous Key

c)

Cladistics

d)

Binomial Nomenclature

69.

Kingdom composed of heterotrophs; many obtain energy and nutrients from dead organic matter

a)

Fungi

b)

Binomial Nomenclature

c)

Clade

d)

Parsimony

70.

The scientific study of how living things are classified

a)

Taxonomy

b)

Clade

c)

Scientific Name

d)

Derived Character

71.

Classification system in which each species is assigned a two-part scientific name

a)

Scientific Name

b)

Derived Character

c)

Binomial Nomenclature

d)

Clade

72.

An approach to systematics in which organisms are placed into groups called clades based primarily on common descent.

a)

Binomial Nomenclature

b)

Cladogram

c)

Cladistics

d)

Parsimony

73.

Diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships among a group of organisms

a)

Cladogram

b)

Scientific Name

c)

Binomial nomenclature

d)

Derived Character

74.

trait that appears in recent parts of a lineage, but not in its older members

a)

Binomial Nomenclature

b)

Cladistics

c)

Derived Character

d)

Scientific Name

75.

the principle that looks for the simplest, and probably most likely, scientific explanation that fits the evidence.

a)

Scientific Name

b)

Parsimony

c)

Binomial Nomenclature

d)

Cladistics

76.

technique that uses the fossil record and rates of molecular change to deduce the time in geologic history when two species diverged

a)

Cladistics

b)

Scientific Name

c)

Parsimony

d)

Mutation Clock

77.

Molecular Clocks help us to explain:

a)

If you know rate of change, you can determine how long ago two sequences diverged

b)

What the last common ancestor of humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas was.

c)

Frequencies can change by purely random processes

d)

Protein can fold into shapes dependent on their amino acid sequences

78.

Genetic Drift explains:

a)

If you know rate of change, you can determine how long ago two sequences diverged

b)

What the last common ancestor of humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas was.

c)

Frequencies can change by purely random processes

d)

Protein can fold into shapes dependent on their amino acid sequences

79.

Homology explains:

a)

If you know rate of change, you can determine how long ago two sequences diverged

b)

What the last common ancestor of humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas was.

c)

Frequencies can change by purely random processes

d)

Protein can fold into shapes dependent on their amino acid sequences

80.

Traits, such as human height, that are controlled by more than one gene are known as

a)

single-gene traits.

b)

polygenic traits.

c)

recessive traits.

d)

dominant traits.

81.

The type of selection in which individuals of average size have greater fitness than small or large individuals have is called

a)

disruptive selection.

b)

stabilizing selection.

c)

directional selection.

d)

neutral selection.

82.

If coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have produced the graph below?

a)

disruptive selection

b)

directional selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

genetic equilibrium

83.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
84.
Yellow toucan birds seek out one another to make babies together and tend to avoid the green toucan birds.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene flow
d)
Mutation
85.
Five hundred years after the deer had established a flourishing population in the park, a few of them venture back to their original woods and have babies with the deer there.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Mutations
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Gene flow
86.
Bats are common in Texas, especially in rocky regions. Bats with longer hang claws have demonstrated higher fitness because of their ability to cling to rock while resting.
a)
Adaptation
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene Flow
d)
Mutation
87.
7 Wild Mustangs were taken from the prairies of Iowa after a Texan Rancher purchased them and provided them with their own pasture. Those 7 Mustangs eventually became 122.
a)
Genetic Drift (small popultaion)
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene flow
d)
Mutations
88.
What does the picture represent?
a)
Founder Effect
b)
Mutations
c)
Bottleneck effect
d)
Gene Flow
89.
What does the image represent?
a)
Founder effect
b)
Bottleneck effect
c)
Mutation
d)
Natural Selection
90.
What does the image represent?
a)
Gene flow
b)
Gene drift
c)
Mutation
d)
Adaptation
91.
In convergent evolution, organisms share physical similarities because they 
a)
have a common ancestor
b)
live in the same enviornment
c)
develop homologous structures
d)
are closely related 
92.
a)
The image shows analogous structures.
b)
The image shows convergent evolution.
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation. 
d)
The image shows organisms that are not closely related.
93.
a)
The image shows convergent evolution. 
b)
The image shows divergent evolution. 
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation.
d)
The image shows analogous structures.
94.
a)
The image shows convergent evolution.
b)
The image shows divergent evolution.
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation.
d)
The image shows homologous structures.
95.
Flying fish, flying birds, and bats are examples of which of the following?
a)
convergent evolution & homologous structures
b)
convergent evolution & analogous structures
c)
divergent evolution & homologous structures
d)
divergent evolution & analogous structures
96.
a)
A=convergent B=divergent C=adaptive radiation
b)
A=adaptive radiation B=convergent C=divergent
c)
A=divergent B=convergent C=adaptive radiation
d)
A=divergent B=adaptive radiation C=convergent
97.

How do fossils support evolution?

a)

Individual species disappear and reappear in the fossil record over time.

b)

Organisms in the fossil record are identical to living organisms.

c)

The fossil record provides evidence that all organisms developed at the same time.

d)

The fossil record provides evidence that organisms have changed over time.

98.

What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale?

a)

The bones are analogous structures to the fins of living fish.

b)

The bones are vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor.

c)

The bones are homologous structures to the wings of butterflies.

d)

The bones are fossil structures from an extinct ancestor.

99.

Which of the following would best determine whether two plant species share a recent common ancestor?

a)

Flowering times

b)

DNA sequences

c)

Stem lengths

d)

Habitat distribution

100.

Which of the following provide evidence for evolution? (Select all that apply)

a)

physical features

b)

molecular features, such as DNA

c)

geographical information

d)

fossils

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