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Biology117 Final

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to Fick's law, a decrease in which of these terms would result in a decreased diffusion rate?

Rate of Diffusion = k A (P2-P1/D)

a)

A

b)

P2-P1

c)

D

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, and C

2.

What have a thicker layer of muscle and fiborous tissue?

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

3.

Flowering occurs in a long-night plant when the hours of darkness the plant experiences exceed the critical period.

(a)  

4.

What confromation is the receptor in after it recieves far red light?

a)

Pfr

b)

Pr

c)

Phototropin

d)

Phosphorylated phototropin

5.

Gibberellins main function is

a)

involved in phototropism

b)

promotes lateral budding

c)

stimulates fruit ripening

d)

stimulates cell division

e)

inhibits seed germination

6.

Ethylenes main function is...

a)

Involved in phototropism

b)

promotes lateral budding

c)

stimulates fruit ripening

d)

inhibits seed germination

7.

Auxin main function is...

a)

involved in phototropism

b)

promotes lateral budding

c)

stimulates cell division

d)

inhibits seed germination

8.

Cytokinins main funcion is...

a)

involved in phototropism

b)

promotes lateral budding

c)

stimulates cell division

d)

inhibits seed germination

9.

Abscisic acid main function is...

a)

stimulates cell division

b)

promotes lateral budding

c)

stimulates fruit ripening

d)

inhibits seed germination

10.

How do water soluable horomones differ from lipid soliable horomones?

a)

Water soluable horomones readily cross the plasma membrane

b)

Water soluable horomones are longer lived in the bloodstream

c)

Water soluable are more structurally complex

d)

Water soluable horomones bind to the receptors on the surface of the cell

11.

Which of the following happens during reception?

a)

Activation of cellular responses

b)

A ligand binds to a recptor on the plasma membrane

c)

Proteins of a signal transduction pathway act as relay molecules

d)

Cells shed and receptors bind

12.

What would happen if T3/T4 levels were abnormally low?

a)

The anterior pituitary would secrete more TSH

b)

The hypothalamus would secrete more TRH

c)

The thyroid would increase prouction of T3/T4

d)

The low levels would inhibit the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

13.

What is the main function of helper T cells?

a)

Activate the cell-mediated and humoral response

b)

Produce cells that create antibodies for a specific antigen when activated

c)

Detect and kill infected body cells

d)

Ingest an antigen and present it to other cells of the immune system

14.

Which type of immune response would occur moe quickly?

a)

A specific response

b)

A non-specific response

15.

Which of the following best describes an antigen?

a)

Secreted proteins produced by plasma cells

b)

Foreign molecules that initiate an immune response

c)

A drug used to treat a bacterial infection

16.

What is the function of B cells?

a)

Detect information and sounds an alarm in the adaptive response

b)

Produce cells that create antibodies for a specific antigen when activated

c)

Detect and kill infected body cells

d)

Ingest an antigen and present it to other cells of the immune system

17.

What is an antigen presenting cell?

a)

A cell that can recognize an antigen floating freely in the body and produce plasma cells

b)

A cell that engulfs an antigen and displays pieces of it to other immune cells

c)

A cell that requires antigen display and sends signals to other immune cells

d)

A cell that produces antibodies

18.

Which of the following happens first in B cell activation?

a)

Helper T cells release cytokines

b)

B cells bind an antigen

c)

B cells present an antigen to the helper T cells

d)

Activated B cells divide by mitosis

19.

Which of the following is a B-cell receptor?

a)

Label A

b)

Label B

c)

Label C

d)

Label D

20.

Vaccines function

a)

by giving an individual a less deadly form of the disease

b)

to help create an individual fight an ongoing infection

c)

to create memory cells

d)

by killing pathogens that can cause infections

21.

Which of the following types of vaccine is correctly mtched to its defintion?

a)

subunit/conjugate= a specific viral protein or carb

b)

inactivated= weakened virus that can no longer cause illnesses

c)

attenuated= virus is unactivated by heat or chemicals

22.

PTH is a polypetitde. You would predict that PTH is...

a)

water soluable

b)

lipid soluable

23.

Two antagonistic horomones maintain homeostasis of blood calcium levels. PTH causes bones to

a)

release Ca2+

b)

absorb Ca2+

c)

produce more Ca2+

24.

PTH causes kidneys to...

a)

Increase uptake of Ca2+

b)

Decrease uptake of Ca2+

c)

Produce more of Ca2+

25.

Hyperparathyroidism results in the production of ...

a)

Too much T3/T4

b)

Too little T3/T4

c)

Too much PTH

d)

Too little PTH

26.

Which of the following might provide a cure for a patient with hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Surgically remove most of the parathyroid glands

b)

Surgically remove most of the thyroid gland

c)

Administer a calcium supplement

d)

Administer calcitonin

27.

The insulin horomone pathway is an example of a...

a)

water solubale horomone pathway

b)

lipid soluable horomone pathway

28.

Which of the following is true about types chemical signals in animals?

a)

Autocrine signals act on the same cell that secretes them

b)

Endocrine signal diffuse locally and act on nearby cells

c)

Pararine signal horomnes carried between distal cells by blood or other body fluids

29.

In the pathway controlling thyroid horomone, secretion of T, by the thyroid is an example of...

a)

Endocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Autocrine

d)

Neuroendocrin

30.

Regulation of thyroid horomone production is an example of a ___ pathway

a)

Endocrine

b)

Neuroendocrine

c)

Neuroendocrine -> Endorcine

31.

The thyroid is involed in...

a)

Blood glucose homeostasis

b)

Blood Calcium homeostasis

c)

Osmoregulation

d)

Ovulation

32.

If someone has a hyperactive thyroid then you would predict her blood work would show that she has ___ levels of T4

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Normal

33.

Which of the following happens during transduction?

a)

Activation of cellular responses

b)

A Ligand binds to a receptor on the plasma membrane

c)

Proteins of a signal transduction pathway act as relay molecules

34.

Which of the following is a characteristic of lipid solubale horomone signaling?

a)

Binds to receptors on the surface of the cell

b)

Triggers a protein messengar cascade inside the cell

c)

Forms a horomone-receptor complex that can bind to DNA

35.

An alternative form of a gene that is found in the same location on each member of a homologous pair of chromosomes is called a...

a)

Locus

b)

Allele

c)

Heterzygous

d)

Homozygous

36.

Disruptive selection is for (x). This causes an (y) in genetic diversity.

a)

Extreme Phenotypes

Increase

b)

Extreme Phenotypes

Decrease

c)

Only one phenotype

d)

No phenotype

37.

----- operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Stabilizing selection

c)

Artificial selection

d)

Natural selection

38.

The model below shows which process?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Founders effect

d)

The bottleneck effect

39.

Natural selection creates new alleles

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What variable in the Hardy-Weinberg equation expresses the heterozygous genotype?

a)

q2

b)

p2

c)

2pq

d)

p2 +q2

41.

Which of these are required in order for natural selection to occur?

a)

Heritbale Variation

b)

That some individuals leave more offspring than others

c)

An inner need to evolve

d)

A Catastrophe

42.

According to the Biological Species Concept, a species is a naturally occurring group of organisms that ____

a)

Produce viable and fertile offspring

b)

Interbreed in nature

c)

Cannot produce viable and fertile offspring with other speices

d)

All have an identical appearance

43.

Hybrid Inviability

a)

A black bear and a brown bear mate but the offsprings development ceases in the womb and the pregnancy is naturally aborted

b)

A sparrow and elephant cannot physically mate with one another due to reproductive structure incompatibility

c)

Fruit flies refuse to mate with one another based purely on the fact that mating dance performed by Drosophila is specialized for each species

d)

Two skunks never mate with one another due to their populations having vastly different mating seasons

44.

Mechanical Isolation

a)

A black bear and a brown bear mate but the offsprings development ceases in the womb and the pregnancy is naturally aborted

b)

A sparrow and elephant cannot physically mate with one another due to reproductive structure incompatibility

c)

Fruit flies refuse to mate with one another based purely on the fact that mating dance performed by Drosophila is specialized for each species

d)

Two skunks never mate with one another due to their populations having vastly different mating seasons

45.

Behavioral Isolation

a)

A black bear and a brown bear mate but the offsprings development ceases in the womb and the pregnancy is naturally aborted

b)

A sparrow and elephant cannot physically mate with one another due to reproductive structure incompatibility

c)

Fruit flies refuse to mate with one another based purely on the fact that mating dance performed by Drosophila is specialized for each species

d)

Two skunks never mate with one another due to their populations having vastly different mating seasons

46.

Temporal Isolation

a)

A black bear and a brown bear mate but the offsprings development ceases in the womb and the pregnancy is naturally aborted

b)

A sparrow and elephant cannot physically mate with one another due to reproductive structure incompatibility

c)

Fruit flies refuse to mate with one another based purely on the fact that mating dance performed by Drosophila is specialized for each species

d)

Two skunks never mate with one another due to their populations having vastly different mating seasons

47.

Determination of bacterial species using the biological species concept is impossible because these organisms do not mate using sexual reproduction.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Mechanical isolation is considered a post-zygotic reproductive barrier

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following is an example of a post-zygotic reproductive barrier?

a)

Mallard and pintail ducks mate at different times of the year

b)

Hybrid offspring of two species of jimsonweeds always die before reproducing

c)

Pollen of one kind of tobacco cannot fertilize another kind

d)

Two species of leopard frogs have different mating calls

50.

Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in allopatric speciation?

a)

Genetic isolation, genetic drift, and divergence

b)

Genetic isolation, divergence, and genetic drift

c)

Divergence, genetic drift, and genetic isolation

d)

Divergence, genetic isolation, and genetic drift

51.

All over the world, natural habitats are being fragmented into tiny islands by suburbs, ranches, farms, and roads. How could this lead to speciation?

a)

Peripatric Speciation

b)

Allopatric Speciation

c)

Artificial Speciation

d)

Sympatric Speciation

52.

The driving force behind natural selection is...

a)

An organisms inner need to change

b)

Human Interference

c)

The environment

d)

All of the above

53.

What distinguishes a morphospecies?

a)

It is reproductively isolated from other species

b)

It has distinctiv characteristics, such as size, shape, or coloration

c)

It represents a distinct branch in a phylogeny of populations

d)

It is a fossil from a distinct time in Earths history

54.

A forest fire destroys the majority of individuals in a population of ants. Those that survive have no special traits that lead to their ability to live but, are a random sample. The surviving ants reproduce, but the traits of the next generation are much different from the original. This is an example of...

a)

The founder effect

b)

Gene Flow

c)

The bottleneck effect

d)

Mutation changing a population

55.

What variable in the Hardy-Weinberg equation expresses the HOMOZYGOUS DOMINANT genotype?

a)

p2 +q2

b)

q2

c)

2pq

d)

p2

56.

Why are Northeast Pacific populations of transient and resident killer whales thought to represent different ecotypes rather than different species?

a)

Transient and resident killer whales differ in feeding culture but can mate and produce viable offspring in captivity

b)

Transient and killer whales have different patters of communication

c)

Transient whales prey on marine mammals, while resident killer whales prey on Chinook salmon

d)

Transient and resident whales learn specific methods of hunting from older whales in their pods

57.

A few individuals of a population become separated and begin populating a new area. The resultant genetic make-up of this new population would be a consequence of ____

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Bottleneck Effect

c)

Founder Effect

d)

None of the above

58.

A photoheterotroph would use (x) as an energy source and (y) as a carbon source.

a)

Oxygen

Organic Molecules

b)

Light

Organic Molecules

c)

Water

Organic Molecules

d)

Carbon Dioxide

Organic Molecules

59.

Gram negative cells appear dark purple after gram staining due to a high amount of peptidoglycan on the exterior surface of their cell walls

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A scientist engineers a virus that contains the gene thought to provide bacterial resistance to the antibiotic vancomycin.  The scientist then takes a culture of bacteria and divides it in two.  One portion is allowed to incubate with the previously mentioned virus, while the other is not.  Both bacterial cultures are then placed onto petri plates whose media contain vancomycin.  Only the culture grown previously with viruses shows growth of bacterial colonies. 

How did these bacteria FIRST come to have resistance to this antibiotic?

a)

Transformation

b)

Conjugation

c)

Transduction

61.

A strain of bacteria utilize organic molecules for both the creation ATP and also to synthesize new cell materials.  What is the general name a bacterial cell with the described metabolism?

a)

Chemoautotroph

b)

Chemoheterotroph

c)

Photoautotroph

d)

Photoheterotroph

62.

A strain of bacteria utilize inorganic molecules for the creation ATP, but use CO2 as a source of carbon to synthesize new cell materials.  What is the general name a bacterial cell with the described metabolism?

a)

Chemoautotroph

b)

Chemoheterotroph

c)

Photoautotroph

d)

Photoheterotroph

63.

You observe a single cell organism under the microscope and notice that it lacks a nuclear membrane. What other information would be useful in classifying this organism into one of the three domains?

a)

Its cell wall lacks petidogylcan

b)

Its cell membrane contains fatty acid

c)

It contains a circular chromosome

d)

It can exchange genetic information by transduction, transformation, and conjugation.

64.

____ is the process when bacteria or archaea naturally take up DNA from the environment that has been released by cell lysis or secreted.

a)

conjugation

b)

transduction

c)

transformation

d)

transmutation

65.

____ is one of the two fundamental nutritional needs of all organisms

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

sunglight

c)

oxygen

d)

chemical energy

66.

Bioremediation involves ____

a)

introducing bacteria to clean up polluted sites

b)

introducing microbes to a new environment that lacks them

c)

using bacteria to produce energy rich molecules that can replace fossil fuels

d)

using bacteria to enrich the wastewater in a sewage treatment plant

67.

The endosymbiosis theory is used to explain the evolution of the eukaryotic cells to contain mitochondria and chloroplats

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Secondary endosymbiosis gave rise to (w) that contains (x) membranes. Secondary endosymbiosis involved an (y) cell engulfing a (z) cell.

a)

Chloroplasts

Only Two

Eukaryotic

Eukaryotic

b)

Mitochondria

Three or More

Eukaryotic

Eukaryotic

c)

Chloroplasts

Three or More

Eukaryotic

Eukarytoic

d)

Mitochondria

Only Two

Prokaryotic

Prokaryotic

69.

Which of the following observations supports the hypothesis that mitochondria evolved before chlorplasts?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts divide in a way similar to the DNA sequence of some aerobic bacteria

b)

All eukaryotes have mitochondria, but not all eukaryotes have chlorplasts

c)

The DNA sequence of mitochondria is similar to the DNA sequence of some aerobic bacteria

d)

Mitochondria are similar in size and shape to some bacteria

70.

The mitochondria, organelles that synthesize ATP, and the chloroplasts, organelles, that synthesize glucose sugar, were thought to have evolved from ____.

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Portists

d)

Fungi

71.

Fill in the blanks. In plants, spores are ____ and produced using _____.

a)

Diploid / Meiosis

b)

Haploid / Meiosis

c)

Diploid / Mitosis

d)

Haploid / Mitosis

72.

Which groups of land plants require water in order for sperm to fertilize the egg?

a)

nonvascular seedless plants

b)

gymnosperms

c)

angiosperms

d)

vascular seedless plants

73.

Which of the following characteristics are found in ALL land plants?

a)

spores

b)

presence of nucleus

c)

cell wall made of cellulose

d)

vascular tissue

e)

pollen

74.

Which of the following best explains why cuticles are an important adaptation in land plants?

a)

It prevents the entry of carbon dioxide required for photosynthesis

b)

It can close to prevent water loss

c)

It prevents water loss from leaves

d)

It allows diffusion of oxygen out of the plant

75.

Which of the following characteristics are used to distinguish bacteria and archaea as prokaryotes (and not eukaryotes)?

a)

Lack of organelles

b)

Susceptibility to antibiotics

c)

Circular chromosomes

d)

Lack of nuclear membrane

76.

A strain of bacteria utilize inorganic molecules for the creation ATP, but use CO2 as a source of carbon to synthesize new cell materials. What is the general name a bacterial cell with described metabolism?

a)

Chemoheterotroph

b)

Photoheterotroph

c)

Chemoautotroph

d)

Photoautotroph

77.

____ is the process when bacteria or archaea naturally take up DNA from a virus that has picked up DNA from another prokaryote.

a)

Conjugation

b)

Transduction

c)

Transformation

d)

Transmutation

78.

_____ is the process when bacteria or archaea naturally take up DNA from the environment that has been released by cell lysis or secreted.

a)

Conjugation

b)

Transduction

c)

Transformation

d)

Transmutation

79.

Amoeba are single-celled protists that capture food by forming structures called pseudopodia

a)

Hetertroph

b)

Autotroph

80.

Paramecium are single-celled ciliates that feed through an oral groove

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

81.

Volvox is a colonial green algae (contains chloroplasts)

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

82.

Phytoplankton are aquatic photosynthesizers and are key producers of oxygen

a)

Heteroroph

b)

Autotroph

83.

Biologists are interested in studying protists because

a)

They provide clues about origins of membrane-bound organelles

b)

They offer insight into the evolutionary relationships of plants, animals, and fungi

c)

They provide evidence that domains archaea and bacteria are closely related

84.

Which best explains why the kingdom protists is a paraphyletic group?

a)

It contains descendants from more than one ancestor

b)

It contains an ancestor and all the ancestors descendants

c)

It contains an ancestor but does not include all the ancestors descendants

85.

All of kingdom fungi forms one, large monophyletic group

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Heterokaryotic cells in fungi are considered to be diploid

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Fungi are...

a)

Photoheterotrophs

b)

Photoautotrophs

c)

Chemoheterotrophs

d)

Chemoautotrophs

88.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ALL animals?

a)

All animals have true tissues and organs

b)

Multicellular organisms

c)

Heterotrophic

d)

Together they form a monophyletic group

89.

Triploblasty is an example of ____

a)

Monophyletic Group

b)

Paraphyletic Group

c)

Homoplasy

d)

Homology

90.

Which part of a root are actively pushed through soil as the root grows?

a)

Zone of cellular maturation

b)

Zone of cellular elongation

c)

Zone of cellular division

91.

The current diameter of a tree trunk is 12 inches. The trunk diameter increases at a rate of 2 inches per year. An insect burrows into the trunk and lays its eggs in the secondary xylem, I inch out from the center of the tree. How far from the center will the dormant eggs be located in two years?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

92.

Which of the following are functions of the shoot systems?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Regulate gas exchange and water loss

c)

Structural support

d)

Anchorage

93.

Which of the following plant cells secrete the cuticle?

a)

Phloem

b)

Parenchyma

c)

Epidermal Cells

d)

Mesophyll

94.

In which plant tissue does the majority of photosynthesis occur?

a)

Vascular Tissue

b)

Ground Tissue

c)

Dermal Tissue

95.

The vascular cambium of a tree produces both secondary xylem and secondary phloem.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which of the following lists the portion of a mature 60ft tree that contains the OLDEST tissues?

a)

The trunk at soil level

b)

A branch 3 feet from the top of the tree

c)

The tips of the roots

d)

The trunk 5ft off the ground

97.

Which statement best characterizes secondary growth?

a)

It results from cell division in the vascular and cork cambia

b)

It increases length of the plant stem

c)

It results from divisions in the apical meristem

d)

It often produces phloem cells to the inside and xylem cells to the outside of the vascular cambia

98.

Which of these plant cells or tissues can provide structural support for the plant?

a)

Vascular Tissue

b)

Sclernchyma

c)

Collenchyma

d)

Parenchyma

99.

Epidermis

a)

Gas exchange or absorption of water

b)

Transports sugar

c)

Provides structural support

d)

Transports water up a plant

100.

Phloem

a)

Gas exchange or absorption of water

b)

Transports sugar

c)

Provides structural support

d)

Transports water up a plant

101.

Collenchyma

a)

Gas exchange or absorption of water

b)

Transports sugar

c)

Provides structural support

d)

Transports water up a plant

102.

Xylem

a)

Gas exchange or absorption of water

b)

Transports sugar

c)

Provides structural support

d)

Transports water up a plant

103.

According to the pressure-flow hypothesis, which direction are sucrose and water following in the phloem when roots are the sources and leaves are sinks?

a)

Water and sucrose flow up the stem

b)

Water flows up the stem and sucrose flows down the stem

c)

Water flows down the stem and the sucrose flows up the stem

d)

Water and sucrose flow down the stem

104.

In a plant cell that are sources of sugar are

a)

A tissue where sugar enters the phloem

b)

A tissue sugar exits the phloem

c)

A tissue that either produces sugar by photosynthesis or by breaking down stored starge

105.

The transport of a water column up a tall tree can be explained by...

a)

Root pressure that pushes water up the xylem

b)

Cohesive and adhesive forces of the water column under evaporative roots

c)

A water potential gradient that is highest in the leaves and lowest in the roots

d)

Energy expediter by the tree to create a positive pressure that pulls the water up

106.

Which of the following BEST explains why water moves up xylem tissue by bulk flow?

a)

Pressure potential but not solute potential affect the water potential in the xylem because xylem cells lack a cell membrane at maturity

b)

Pores in the sieve plants of the cell walls of adjacent xylem cells decrease the pressure potential, which affects the water potential in the xylem

c)

The pits in tracheids increase the pressure potential but not the solute potential, which decreases the potential pressure

d)

The water potential in the xylem is highest in the shoot and lowest at the root

107.

Which of the following statements does not agree with the cohesion-tension theory in plants?

a)

Cohesion among water molecules allows for water to be pulled from the roots to the shoots of a plant

b)

ATP is required to move water from the soil into the roots tissues

c)

None of the above

d)

Transportation at leaves provides the tension necessary to move water through xylem tissues

108.

Like animal cells, plant cells will burst when in the presence of a hypotonic solution.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Water flows from areas of (x) water potential to areas of (y) water potential

a)

High

Low

b)

Hypo

Low

c)

Iso

Low

d)

Hypo

Iso