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DL 2

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a common bias found within a retrospective cohort study?

a)

Attrition Bias

b)

Publication Bias

c)

Recall Bias

d)

none of the above

2.

What does an I2 statistic of 50% mean regarding studies included in a meta-analysis?

a)

There is no heterogeneity amongst the studies

b)

There is low heterogeneity amongst the studies

c)

There is moderate heterogeneity amongst the studies

d)

There is high heterogeneity amongst the studies

3.

Which of the following is the last step in the systematic review process?

a)

Data synthesis

b)

Define a focused research question

c)

Review full-text articles

d)

Define and conduct a literature search

4.

Which of the following are general guidelines for selecting an article for journal club? [select all that apply]

a)

Choose an article that is engaging and beneficial to the audience

b)

Choose an article that is a review of the topic

c)

Choose an article that aligns with the purpose of the journal club

d)

Choose an article that is relevant to participants

5.

The “R” in the MAARIE framework refers to:

a)

Results

b)

None of the above

c)

Measurement

d)

Resolutions

e)

Returns

6.

There is no standard method of grading evidence in clinical practice guidelines, however many experts utilize the “GRADE” criteria of evidence.  Which of the following levels of evidence reflects support from well-conducted, generalizable randomized controlled trials that are adequately powered?

a)

Level B evidence

b)

Level A evidence

c)

Level E evidence

d)

Level C evidence

7.

Which of the following study designs allows the reader to infer a casual relationship between an exposure and the development of an outcome of interest?

a)

Randomized controlled trial

b)

Case series

c)

Retrospective case-control

d)

Prospective cohort study

8.

When comparing two medications used for Type II Diabetes Mellitus, the number needed to treat (NNT) to achieve goal hemoglobin A1c was calculated.  The NNT for Tradjenta was 4.  The NNT for Pioglitazone was 31.  Which medication would be preferred to achieve goal hemoglobin A1c in a larger number of patients, based on NNT only (not side effect profile)?

a)

Tradjenta

b)

They will both achieve goal hemoglobin A1c in an equal number of patients.

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

This cannot be determined from the information provided.

9.

If the null hypothesis is false and you fail to reject it, you are committing what type of error?

a)

Type II Error

b)

Random Error

c)

Confounding

d)

Type I Error

e)

None of the above

10.

Which of the following study designs is only hypothesis-generating, not hypothesis-proving (meaning you can NOT infer causality).

a)

Retrospective cohort study

b)

Systematic review and meta-analysis

c)

Prospective, double-blind, randomized controlled trial

d)

Phase III pivotal trial

11.

Which of the following assesses the methodological quality of clinical trials included in systematic review and meta analysis?

a)

Chi-squared test

b)

ANOVA

c)

Spearman Correlation

d)

Jadad Score

12.

Fixed effects model are/have: (SATA)

a)

Due to random variation

b)

Different underlying effect for each study

c)

Narrower confidence intervals

d)

Wider confidence intervals

13.

The I2 statistic pertains to:

a)

Heterogeneity amongst the studies

b)

Presence of publication bias

c)

Alpha error

d)

Association between continuous variables

14.

Used most commonly to convey RESULTS of data in a meta-analysis:

a)

Forest plot

b)

Funnel plot

c)

PRISMA diagram

d)

Evidence table

15.

Inclusion of unpublished data minimizes this type of bias:

a)

Investigator

b)

Attrition

c)

Selection

d)

Publication

16.

The “assessment” part of the journal club template includes all BUT:

a)

Statistical analysis

b)

Safety endpoints

c)

Results

d)

Primary endpoint

17.

Which resource can be used to find grey literature?

18.

Which resource can be used to find approval history of a medication?

19.

A randomized controlled trial evaluating pregabalin versus gabapentin for neuropathic pain and found that pregabalin decreased neuropathic pain by 25%, while gabapentin decreased neuropathic pain by 15% (p = 0.001, 95% CI 1.76 to 2.32). Which of the following statements apply to these results?

a)

Statistically significant, but not clinically significant.

b)

Neither statistically nor clinically significant.

c)

Not statistically significant, but clinically significant.

d)

Statistically and clinically significant.

20.

Balances subjects on baseline covariates & produces comparable groups regarding characteristics such as age, gender, race, disease, etc.:

a)

Block randomization

b)

Stratified randomization

c)

Adaptive randomization

d)

Simple randomization

21.

Proper subject randomization strengthens:

a)

Power

b)

Heterogeneity

c)

External validity

d)

Internal validity

22.

A combination of two endpoints (ex./ myocardial infarction or death to evaluate efficacy of Entresto vs valsartan alone)

a)

Composite endpoint

b)

Safety endpoint

c)

Clinical endpoint

d)

Surrogate endpoint

23.

Odds ratio of negative outcome is 2.5 with Treatment A. Which is correct?

a)

Calculated by dividing the statistic in the non-exposed group by the exposed group.

b)

Odds ratio is used for prospective studies.

c)

Treatment A protects patient from negative outcome 2.5x more than control treatment.

d)

Treatment A predisposes patient to negative outcome 2.5x more than control treatment.

24.

One researcher in a study uses a different reference range when reporting participant lab values. What type of bias does this describe?

a)

Researcher bias

b)

Information bias

c)

Historical bias

d)

Publication bias

25.

A clinical trial designed to determine if ibuprofen is more effective at controlling muscle pain than acetaminophen is an example of a non-inferiority study.

a)

False

b)

True

26.

Drug A has a number needed to harm (NNH) of 15, and Drug B has a NNH of 47. All other factors aside, which medication is preferred?

a)

Drug B

b)

Drug A

c)

Both Drug A and Drug B

d)

none of the above

27.

Multivariate logistic regression analysis in case-control studies controls for:

a)

Internal validity

b)

Confounding variables

c)

Alpha error rate

d)

Selection bias

28.

A relative risk of 1.52 means:

a)

Risk of exposure is increased by 52%

b)

Risk of disease is increased by 52%

c)

Risk of disease is increased by 152%

d)

Risk of exposure is increased by 152%

29.

Study looking at exposure to an iced brown sugar oat milk shaken espresso and serotonin production provides a 95% confidence interval of 0.45 to 1.25. Would you expect the p value to be < 0.05 and the results to be statistically significant?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

not enough information

d)

it depends on the CI

30.

The Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials Statement includes:

a)

Standardized reporting requirements

b)

CONSORT

c)

Provides standards for preparing reports of RCTs

d)

Helps improve accuracy and clarity in medical literature

e)

All of the above

31.

The Jadad scale is a quality assessment scale to evaluate RCTs, what are the items that the Jadad scale includes to assess RCTs?

a)

Sequence generations

b)

Blinding methodology

c)

Withdrawls and drop-outs

d)

all of the above

32.

Internal validity

a)

The study is designed and conducted in an appropriate manner so as to arrive at accurate results

b)

Randomization, measurement and assessment of variables, dropouts, overall methodology

c)

The results of the study are able to be accurately generalized to the larger population

d)

Recruitment and selection of participants, inclusion and exclusion criteria, sample size, setting

33.

External validity

a)

The study is designed and conducted in an appropriate manner so as to arrive at accurate results

b)

Randomization, measurement and assessment of variables, dropouts, overall methodology

c)

The results of the study are able to be accurately generalized to the larger population

d)

Recruitment and selection of participants, inclusion and exclusion criteria, sample size, setting

34.

Randomization in the clinical trial helps minimize many threats to internal validity

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The following are factors which affect Internal Validity but randomization helps prevent them:

a)

Statistical Regression

b)

Selection bias

c)

Maturation

d)

all of the above

36.

The intention of research is to disprove or reject the null hypothesis

a)

True

b)

False

37.

If the study is said to deliver statistical significant results we should reject the null hypothesis

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which is of the following are example when you rejected the Null Hypothesis when the Null Hypothesis was true

a)

False Positive

b)

Type 1 error

c)

Alpha error

d)

Beta error

e)

Type 2 error

39.

Which is of the following are example when you failed to reject the Null Hypothesis when the Null Hypothesis was false

a)

False Negative

b)

Type 1 error

c)

Alpha error

d)

Beta error

e)

Type 2 error

40.

Stratification allows for balanced assignment to groups based on certain characteristics

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Intention-to-treat analysis analyzes the patients according to the groups to which they were originally assigned. A process that reminds us to always analyze patients according to their original group assignment. This method of analysis preserves the prognostic balance afforded by randomization

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Per-protocol analysis includes only patients that comply with treatment protocol and it has the risk of creating imbalance between groups

a)

True

b)

False

43.

When evaluating a Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) it usually makes the risk/drug look better than when evaluating the same data with the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The drug approval process is standardized and reviewed by the FDA and it includes

a)

all of the above

b)

Phase I – IV testing

c)

Investigational New Drug (IND) application

d)

Preclinical testing

45.

Which of the following are characteristics of the of preclinical testing

a)

In vitro or in animals

b)

FDA decides if it is safe to test in humans

c)

Determine acute and subacute toxicity

d)

Before filing an IND, must develop a pharmacologic profile of the drug

e)

all of the above

46.

IND application in the drug approval process includes which of the following

a)

Clinical trials in humans may only be conducted after an IND has been approved by the FDA and investigational review board (IRB)

b)

none of the above

c)

Pretesting in humans after a signed consent

d)

IRB approves clinical trial protocol on how the study will be conducted

47.

A Phase 1 trial average 6 months – 1 year in duration and also involves

a)

Purpose:

Determine safety and toxicity

b)

Also test various dosage forms and develop pharmacokinetic data

c)

Low doses are used in a small number of healthy subjects (20 – 80 patients)

d)

First use in humans

e)

all of the above

48.

Phase II Trials Purpose is to Evaluate efficacy of the agent and which of the following

a)

Average 2 years in duration

b)

Help to develop preliminary evidence before larger trials

c)

Continue to evaluate safety

d)

all of the above

e)

Small number of subjects with the disease or condition that the drug is proposed to treat (100 – 200 patients)

49.

Phase III Trials Purpose is to Further define efficacy and safety of the agent, and which of the following:

a)

Some Phase III trials are pivotal studies that serve as the basis for the New Drug Application (NDA) for marketing approval

b)

Average 3 years in duration

c)

Usually multicenter studies that treat 600 – 3,000 patients

d)

New agent is compared to current therapy

e)

all of the above

50.

A New Drug Application (NDA) is submitted to the FDA after Phase III trial and Includes all data from animal and human testing, as well as pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic information and manufacturing processes

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Which of the following are characteristics of the application review process

a)

FDA has 60 days to file the NDA for review

b)

Reviewers will approve application and issue a complete response letter

c)

FDA evaluates the professional labeling and manufacturing facilities

d)

If the FDA files the NDA, a review team (advisory committee) is assigned to evaluate the research

e)

all of the above

52.

The following are characteristics of Phase IV trials

a)

May be requested by the FDA or initiated by the sponsor to gather more data on safety and efficacy

b)

Rare adverse effects may develop

c)

Long term safety and efficacy data

d)

all of the above

53.

During Phase IV Trials the FDA may initiate further restrictions on medication uses to ensure that benefits outweigh risks requiring before or after a drug is approved a Risk Evaluation Mitigation Strategies (REMS) developed by drug sponsors which may include:

Medication guide (patient package insert)

Communication plan for health care providers

Elements to assure safe use (ETASU) – training, limitations on use, monitoring, enrollment of patients in a registry

REMS must be assessed for adequacy at least by 18 months, 3 years, and 7 years after approval

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Why is important to include unpublish date in studies?

a)

Minimizes publication bias since Published studies are more often of a positive nature than unpublished studies

b)

Includes more data from which to draw a conclusion, but has not been peer-reviewed

c)

Overall result is published data overestimates efficacy and underestimates harm

d)

About 50% of studies submitted to the FDA in support of drug approvals are not published after 5 years

e)

all of the above

55.

Scientific reviews of clinical trials are found in Drugs@FDA and done by FDA regulatory agencies which developed a narrative summary of the clinical trials that form the basis for approval of regulated drugs

a)

True

b)

False

56.

An abstract of the article is an overview or synopsis of the study which addresses the objective, methods, results, and conclusions of the study

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which are the two purposes of the introduction of an article

a)

Discussing the study rational

b)

Study purpose - What are the outcomes of the study

c)

Cite the appendixes of the study

d)

Relate the subjects to the conclusions of the study

58.

In the Methods section of a study we can find how the study was designed, type of subjects enrolled, comparative therapy, outcomes measure, statistics methods which at the end will reflect the internal validity of the study

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Methods section of a study include:

Study design

Inclusion/Exclusion Criteria

Intervention/Control groups

Follow up

Endpoints

Power Analysis

Statistical Analysis

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Study Results are usually summarized with a visual table including specific outcomes and p values, hazard ratios and confidence intervals

a)

True

b)

False

61.

The Discussion section of a study include the following:

Evaluate and/or interpret the results

Begins with summary of key findings

Discuss internal and external validity

Comparison of study results to other trials

Discuss limitations of study

Clinical importance of results and how they can be used in practice

Conclusions should align with results of the trial

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The acknowledgment of the studies include individuals contributing to the trial and financial support, and this section is a good place to asses publication bias

a)

True

b)

False

63.

The steps order of a systematic approach to answer a drug information question is:

Obtain requestor demographic information (like name, credentials, phone number)

Categorize the question

develop an appropriate search strategy and conduct that search

Critically evaluate and synthesize the information

Formulate a response in the correct format, appropriately citing all references

Follow-up and document as needed

a)

True

b)

False

64.

All of the following are consider advantages of tertiary resources, EXCEPT:

a)

They are easy to use

b)

They are convenient

c)

They become out of date quickly

d)

You may be able to stop your search after reviewing tertiary sources

65.

Which of the following are secondary literature sources (SATA)

a)

PubMed

b)

Google scholar

c)

Cochrane Library

d)

Embase

e)

CINAHL

66.

Intention to treat analysis may be preferred to minimize attrition bias in RCT for which of the following reasons:

a)

It preserves the original patient randomization scheme

b)

It maximizes the external validity of the study

c)

It underestimates the results of the active control or placebo group

d)

It mimics the perfect world scenario to allow broader sensitivity analysis

67.

Formal criteria for the assessment of RCT must include which of the following variables? (SATA)

a)

Blinding

b)

Sequence generation

c)

Study sponsorship

d)

Subject dropout or withdrawals

68.

Cohort and Case control studies aim to evaluate the effects of exposure on disease risks, either retrospectively or prospectively, Which of the following is false regarding the characteristics of observational studies?

a)

Observational studies allow researchers to observe exposures that would be unethical to purposely administer to patients to for the purpose of research

b)

Observational studies can be conducted quickly and relatively unexpensive compared to prospective RCTs

c)

Observational studies allow you to observe multiple outcomes or exposures in one trial

d)

Observational studies are not prone to many sources of bias

69.

A case-control study design is preferred for the study of which of the following measures?

a)

Rare exposures

b)

Common diseases

c)

Rare outcomes

d)

All of the above

70.

In a clinical trial a drug's calculated NNH is found to be lower than the NNT. Therefore the drug should never be used in clinical practice

a)

False

b)

True

71.

Why are incident cases preferred over prevalent cases in a case control study?

a)

Incident cases are newly diagnosed and less prone to recall bias than prevalent cases

b)

Incident cases are newly diagnosed and less prone to attrition bias than prevalent cases

c)

Prevalent cases are preferred as they are less prone to selection bias than incident cases

d)

Prevalent cases are preferred as they are less prone to history bias than incident cases

72.

Which of the following study designs first identifies subjects who have the disease or outcome of interest, compares them to similar people who do not, then attempts to establish an association between an exposure and the outcome of interest

a)

Crossover study

b)

Retrospective cohort

c)

RCT

d)

Case control study

73.

In a case study, the exposure occurs more frequently among the control group (subjects with disease) and less frequently among the cases (those with the disease). Which of the following OR values represents this scenario?

a)

0.6

b)

1.0

c)

3.4

74.

Cohort studies are consider the strongest observational study design due to which of the following factors?

a)

Ability to tailor study outcomes to answer a specific study aim or question

b)

Ability to conduct them either prospectively or retrospectively

c)

ability to study rare exposure or side effects

d)

ability to collect data relatively quickly and inexpensively

75.

This type of randomization results in groups of equal size

a)

Simple randomization

b)

block randomization

c)

stratified randomization

d)

adaptive randomization

76.

Why are prospective cohorts preferred over retrospective cohorts in clinical practice

a)

Investigator can collect data quickly and relatively inexpensive

b)

Investigator can determine what and how variables maybe be collected

c)

investigator can make interventions with patients over time to tailor the study outcomes

d)

All of the above are correct regarding prospective cohorts compare the retrospective cohorts

77.

Which of the following study types best allows readers to infer real-world effectiveness of medications

a)

RCT

b)

Prospective cohort studies

c)

Retrospective case controls studies

d)

Retrospective cohort studies

78.

The ideal NNT = 1

a)

True

b)

False

79.

One kind of bias that can be observed in retrospective trials relates to errors in the measurement of collection of data, misclassification of data, or data which is missing from patient charts, leading to a bias in the intervention effects, What type of bias would this best represent?

a)

Information bias

b)

Selection bias

c)

Researcher bias

d)

History bias

80.

Which of the following reasons are considered advantages of using secondary (pre-existing) databases for retrospective studies?

a)

Researchers must contact the treatment team to obtain informed consent for patient records

b)

Use of pre-existing data speeds up the data collection and publication process

c)

Medical records data are 100% complete and accurate

d)

Investigators are able to measure exposures before disease occurs, which enhances validity and reliability

81.

Select the appropriate population for which a rate ratio should be calculated

a)

Fixed cohort

b)

case control

c)

open cohort

d)

All of the above are appropriate

82.

What is the correct interpretation of a relative risk of 0.35

a)

There is a 35% reduction in the risk of the outcome

b)

There is a 65% reduction in the risk of the outcome

c)

There is a 35% reduction in the risk of the exposure

d)

There is a 65% reduction in the risk of the exposure

83.

All the patients, the treatment team, and external study personnel are blinded to the study assignment and results. This best describes which type of blinding?

a)

Open-label

b)

Single-blind

c)

Double-blind

d)

Triple-blind

84.

All the patients, the treatment team, and external study personnel are aware to the study assignment and results. This best describes which type of blinding?

a)

Open-label

b)

Single-blind

c)

Double-blind

d)

Triple-blind

85.

What is the purpose of conducting multivariate logistic regression analysis in case-control studies?

a)

To control for cofounding variables not accounted for by the case matching

b)

To minimize testing bias

c)

To allow inference of casualty in observational studies

d)

It is required in order to calculate the odds ratio

86.

This type of randomization allows study investigators to select for key patient characteristics and ensure equal numbers of these characteristics in both groups

a)

Simple randomization

b)

block randomization

c)

stratified randomization

d)

adaptive randomization

87.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the internal validity of RCT

a)

The study is designed and conducted in an appropriate manner so as to arrive at accurate results

b)

The results of the study are able to be accurately generalized to the larger population

c)

Both statements describe the internal validity of a randomized control trial

88.

This type of bias may occur if investigators are not able to objectively assess treatment differences. It can be minimized by having non-study personnel assess outcomes or by blinding

a)

Attrition bias

b)

Detection bias

c)

Performance bias

d)

Selection bias

89.

The hawthorne effect most accurately describe which of the following principles?

a)

Regression to the mean due to multiple testing over the course of a research study

b)

Modification of behaviors because patients know they are being observed

c)

Preferential treatment of study versus placebo group due to biased investigators

d)

All of the above statement are true

90.

What does a risk ratio > 1 represents

a)

Exposure to a medication decreases the risk of developing the outcome studied

b)

Risk are equivalent between exposed and unexposed

c)

Exposure to a medication increases the risk of developing the outcome studied

d)

Exposure to a medication is not related to the outcome studied

91.

Which of the following treats to the internal validity of a study is not correctly matched with its definition?

a)

Maturation = patient experiences progression of disease over time during the study period

b)

History = Patient experiences an external event which may impact the study outcome

c)

Selection = patient picks which group they would like to be in during the study period

d)

Testing = patients know they are being tested so they modify behaviors during the study period

92.

What is the major limitation of the RCT

a)

Methodologically strong research design

b)

Lacks generalizability to all practice settings

c)

Can infer cause and effect relationship

d)

There are no major limitations of RCTs

93.

When evaluating outcome measures in case-control studies, what is critical to ensure appropriate exposures? (SATA)

a)

Length of look-back period

b)

Length of follow-up

c)

How were cases and controls selected

d)

Are the tools used to measure exposure and outcome accurate?

94.

What is the correct interpretation of a non-inferiority study design?

a)

Study drug is no worse than current treatment

b)

Study drug is equivalent to current treatment

c)

Study drug is not better than current treatment

d)

Study drug is better then current treatment

95.

A brand new anti-diabetic medication, Gawronglutide, is being marked to prevent progression of diabetic nephropathy and reduce the risk of diabetes related kidney transplant. Gawronglutide has been shown to reduce nephropathy and transplant by 15%, while metformin reduces the risk of nephropathy and transplant by 11%(95% CI 1.18-2.86) which of the following statements best represents the significance of these results

a)

Clinically but not statistically significant

b)

Statistically but clinical significant

c)

Both statistically and clinically significant

d)

Neither statistically nor clinically significant

96.

Acase control study examined the effect of prescription antibiotic use during pregnacy and childhood cancer. Cases were randomly chosen from children with cancer from a cancer registry in the US and countries similar from the US population. Exposure to prescription antibiotics during pregnancy was determine from interviews with the child's mother. The study reported odds ratio of 2.1 and suggested that there was association of antibiotic use in pregnancy and childhood cancer. This study and its claims is subject to which type of bias(es) SATA

a)

Recall bias

b)

Selection bias

c)

Participation bias

d)

Matching bias

97.

Which of the following is a common bias found within a systematic review and meta-analysis

a)

Publication bias

b)

Attrition bias

c)

Recall bias

d)

none of the above

98.

What does an I2 statistic of 10% mean regarding studies included in a meta-analysis

a)

There is a moderate heterogeneity amongst the studies

b)

There is a low heterogeneity amongst the studies

c)

There is a high heterogeneity amongst the studies

d)

There is not heterogeneity amongst the studies

99.

Which of the following is the first step in a systematic review

a)

Data syhtnesis

b)

Review full-text articles

c)

Define a focused research question

d)

Define and conduct a literature search

100.

All of the following are general guidelines for selecting an article for journal club except

a)

Choose an article that is a review of the topic

b)

choose an article that is relevant to the participants

c)

choose an article that aligns with the purpose of the journal club

d)

choose an article that is engaging and beneficial to the audience

101.

The presenter of the journal club should try to keep the audience involved by

a)

asking questions

b)

incorporating clinical questions into the presentation

c)

referring to tables and figures

d)

all of the above

102.

The M in MAARIE framework refers to

a)

none of the above

b)

Measurement

c)

Masking

d)

Methods

103.

Which of the following is found on a forest plot? (SATA)

a)

Confidence intervals

b)

I squared statistic

c)

Pooled results

d)

Baseline characteristics

104.

Which of the following only reports the presence or absence of heterogeneity in a meta-analysis

a)

I squared statistic

b)

Cochrane's Q statistic

c)

Higgings I statistic

d)

None of the above

105.

What should be included in a systematic review (SATA)

a)

Grey literature

b)

Unpublished data

c)

Published data

d)

All of the above

106.

Which of the following is utilized to test for possible bias in a meta-analysis

a)

Forest Plot

b)

PRISMA diagram

c)

Funnel Plot

d)

Jadad score

107.

Which of the following properly addresses the issues of how well a study was conducted?

a)

Internal Validity

b)

None of the above

c)

Verification Validity

d)

External Validity

108.

A study compared a group of lifeguards that had developed cancer on their cheeks and noses to a group of lifeguards without this type of cancer and assessed their prior exposure to zinc oxide or absorbent sunscreen lotions. What type of study is this?

a)

Prospective cohort     

b)

Prospective case-control

c)

Retrospective cohort

d)

Retrospective case-control

109.

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes primary literature?    

a)

Summarized Review

b)

Original Research

c)

Searchable Database

110.

1.       Which of the following resources may be used to access the package insert for a medication? [select all that apply]    

b)

PubMed

d)

DailyMed

111.

Which of the following is/are considered secondary resource(s)?    

a)

A Review Article (non-systematic)

b)

Facts and Comparisons

c)

PubMed

d)

EMBASE

112.

Which of the following is a strength of a case series study design?  

a)

Case series evaluate causality

b)

Strict and detailed protocols are used to evaluate case series' outcomes

c)

The findings of a case series can be directly related to routine clinical practice

d)

Case series have high internal validity

113.

A case report is efficient and cost-effective due to its simple study design.   

a)

False

b)

True

114.

A case series provides strong evidence similar to other observational study designs such as case-control or cohort studies.     

a)

True

b)

False

115.

The major bias seen in a case report are:

a)

Reporting and Recall Bias

b)

Selection and Measurement Bias

c)

Sampling and Participation Bias

d)

Design and Interviewer Bias