wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

BIO 102 EXAM 2

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 1859, naturalist ______ suggested an explanation for why evolution occurs

a)

Peter Grant

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Charles Lyell

d)

Thomas Malthus

2.

Darwin's main idea of natural selection was:

a)

Both every organism has the potential to produce more offspring than can survive and only those that are most suited to the conditions at the time survive to reproduce are correct

b)

Both that only the oldest live to reproduce and every organism has the potential to produce more offspring than can survive are correct

c)

only those that are most suited to the conditions at the time survive to reproduce

d)

only the oldest live to reproduce

e)

every organism has the potential to produce more offspring than can survive

3.

Darwin better understood the mechanism for natural selection after he read a book by ____ on the rate of growth of populations

a)

Charles Lyell

b)

Alfred Wallace

c)

Jean Lamarck

d)

Thomas Malthus

4.

_____ results from microevolutionary changes that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction

a)

Macroevolutionary change

b)

Selection

c)

Adaptation

d)

Inheritance of acquired traits

5.

Archaeopteryx represents the transition between what two groups?

a)

reptiles and animals

b)

amphibians and reptiles

c)

birds and animals

d)

reptiles and birds

6.

Biochemical changes that occur in organisms through time can help us:

a)

understand how groups of organisms changed through time

b)

all of these

c)

construct molecular family trees

d)

infer relatedness

7.

The evidence for evolution includes which of the following?

a)

the fossil record

b)

the molecular record

c)

all of the choices are correct

d)

anatomical record

8.

Sizes of natural populations remain relatively stable over time because _____ limits population numbers

a)

immigration

b)

birth

c)

emigration

d)

death

9.

Different finches on each of the Galapagos Islands is the result of

a)

All are correct

b)

extinction

c)

population growth

d)

adaptive radiation

10.

In small populations, gene frequencies can change drastically by chance alone. This phenomenon is called:

a)

density-dependent effects

b)

density-independent effects

c)

migration

d)

genetic drift

11.

When only a very few individuals give rise to a new population in a new area of favorable habitat, they might differ in appearance from the other, larger population from which they separated. This effect is called the:

a)

mutation effect

b)

inbreeding effect

c)

outbreeding effect

d)

founder effect

12.

In human infants, there has long been evolution toward having the highest survival rate at a 6-7 pound birth weight. This is an example of:

a)

stabilizing or balancing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)

random chance

13.

When selection operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes, it is referred to as:

a)

disruptive selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

random chance

d)

directional selection

14.

Sickle-cell anemia in humans is an example of:

a)

directional selection

b)

random chance

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

disruptive selection

15.

Two populations of flowers are separated by a mountain range and would not be capable of interbreeding. This is an example of:

a)

geographical isolation

b)

mechanical isolation

c)

ecological isolation

d)

behavioral isolation

16.

Bees may pick up pollen of one species on a certain place on their bodies; if this area does not come into contact with the receptive structures of the flowers of another plant species, the pollen is not transferred.

a)

mechanical isolation

b)

geographical isolation

c)

ecological isolation

d)

temporal isolation

17.

If two species of plants bloom during different seasons in the same habitat, this is known as:

a)

temporal isolation

b)

mechanical isolation

c)

ecological isolation

d)

geographical isolation

18.

The differences produced between breeds produced by artificial selection are more distinctive than differences between wild species

a)

True

b)

False

19.

New gene variations are constantly being introduced into populations through random mutations

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Darwin's evidence that evolution occurs included

a)

unique but similar species on several nearby islands

b)

a distinctive distribution of plants and animals in lands with similar climates that were not physically connected

c)

All of these were Darwin's evidence for evolution

d)

the existence of fossils that closely resembled living specimens

21.

The person responsible for the current scheme for grouping organisms is:

a)

Darwin

b)

Linneaus

c)

Aristotle

d)

Malthus

22.

The scientific names we used to identify organisms are in the form of:

a)

Greek

b)

nicknames

c)

binomials

d)

polynomials

23.

The science that deals with the naming and grouping of organisms is:

a)

biology

b)

herpetology

c)

taxonomy

d)

physiology

24.

Choose the highest, most inclusive category

a)

order

b)

genus

c)

family

d)

phylum

25.

To what class does the Eastern Gray Squirrel belong?

a)

Chondrichthyes

b)

Mammalia

c)

Amphibia

d)

Aves

26.

A branching tree that represents the evolutionary relationships among a number of species is, in scientific terms, called a(n):

a)

phylogenetic tree

b)

androgeny

c)

family tree

d)

pedigree

27.

A group of organisms at a particular level in a system of classification is called a(n):

a)

taxon

b)

outgroup

c)

ingroup

d)

category

28.

Cladograms will group birds with reptiles because these groups share:

a)

derived characteristics

b)

many similar characteristics

c)

a common ancestor

d)

all of these

29.

Extreme thermophiles belong in what group?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Fungi

d)

Eukarya

30.

The kingdoms within Eukarya:

a)

include the animals, plants, fungi, and protists

b)

exclude the prokaryotes

c)

all are correct

d)

evolved as a result of endosymbiosis in an early ancestral cell

31.

Which of the following is not an example of a member of Archaea?

a)

methanogens

b)

halophiles

c)

purple bacteria

d)

thermophiles

32.

Which of the following kingdoms can do photosynthesis?

a)

some protist

b)

some fungi

c)

all archaea

d)

all bacteria

33.

Mold and Yeast are....

a)

Fungi

b)

Bacteria

c)

Protista

d)

Archaea

34.

In classification, the taxonomic group just below family is:

a)

order

b)

genus

c)

class

d)

species

e)

Phylum

35.

Which of the following sets of kingdoms contain organisms that are capable of photsynthesis?

a)

Protista and plantae

b)

Archaea and animalia

c)

Bacteria and fungi

d)

Fungi and protista

e)

Animalia and plantae

36.

According to the fossil record, prokaryotes have been on the earth for more than

a)

10 billion

b)

20 billion

c)

2 billion

d)

5 billion

37.

Bacteria reproduce by

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

bacteria dont reproduce

d)

binary fission

38.

The simplest and most abundant form of life on earth today are the:

a)

molds

b)

viruses

c)

protists

d)

fungi

e)

prokaryotes

39.

Key roles performed by bacteria on earth include

a)

all of these

b)

cycling nutrients and minerals in ecosystem

c)

causing illness in humans and animals

d)

producing oxygen for the atmoshpere

40.

Viruses contain ____ as their genetic material

a)

protein

b)

dna and rna

c)

dna or rna

d)

carbohydrate

41.

______ consist of a core of segments of dna or rna surrounded by a protein coat

a)

bacteria

b)

archaea

c)

viruses

d)

protist

42.

Discovery that viruses act more like a chemical than an organism came from work with the:

a)

vibrio cholerae virus

b)

HIV virus

c)

tobacco mosaic virus

d)

SARS

43.

The viruses that can infect bacterial cells are:

a)

cold viruses

b)

bacteriophages

c)

influenza viruses

d)

AIDS virus strains

44.

Which of the following diseases can be considered among the most devastating of all time?

a)

influenza

b)

measles

c)

herpes

d)

chicken pox

45.

Which of these kingdoms is the most diverse?

a)

animal

b)

fungi

c)

plant

d)

protists

46.

The primary characteristics of protists is that they are

a)

not animals, plants, or fungi

b)

photosynthetic

c)

eukaryotic

d)

unicellular

47.

amoebas move by

a)

flagella

b)

gliding mechanisms

c)

cilia

d)

all of these

e)

pseudopodia

48.

All protists are eukaryotic

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Protists that have unique, double shells of silica and chlorophylls a and c called

a)

brown algae

b)

diatoms

c)

red algae

d)

green algae

50.

A group of protists that use cilia to move include the

a)

amoeba

b)

Spirogyra

c)

trypanosoma

d)

paramecium

51.

There are ____ different described species of fungi

a)

74,000

b)

550

c)

4 million

d)

2,000

52.

A lichen is made up of an ____ and a ____-

a)

animal/fungus

b)

fungus/protist

c)

alga/fungus

d)

fungus/plant

53.

Fungi which are never observed to produce sexual spores are known as

a)

Imperfect Fungi

b)

None

c)

Clubless fungi

d)

Monk fungi

54.

The fungal phyla are distinguished primarily by

a)

their mode of sexual reproduction

b)

their habitat

c)

whether they make spores or not

d)

their color

e)

their size

55.

A mass of fungal hyphae is called a

a)

gametophyte

b)

sporophyte

c)

mycelium

d)

plant body

56.

In order to disperse water throughout themselves more effectively, plants evolved

a)

pores

b)

vascular tissues

c)

circulatory systems

d)

stomata

57.

There are an estimated _____ species of plants alive today

a)

1,000

b)

8,500

c)

15,000

d)

300,000

58.

The first successful land plants, even though they lacked vascular tissue, were probably the

a)

mosses

b)

coniferous trees

c)

liverworts and hornworts

d)

ferns

59.

Seedless vascular plants, like ferns, require ____ for fertilization

a)

water

b)

bees

c)

wind

d)

animals

e)

all of the following

60.

Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts do not reach large size because

a)

they do not have specialized vascular tissue to transport water very high

b)

they lack chlorophyll

c)

photosynthesis does not take place at a very fast rate

d)

alternation of generation does not allow the plants to grow very tall before reproduction.

61.

The first vascular plants occurred in the fossil record ____ years ago

a)

100,000

b)

4.5 billion

c)

400 million

d)

1 million

62.

During the sporophyte generation in the life cycle of a fern, the plant releases _____ that germinate and become gametophytes

a)

haploid spores

b)

haploid gametes

c)

diploid spores

d)

diploid gametes

63.

Which group has the tallest living specimens today?

a)

vascular plants

b)

mosses

c)

liverworts

d)

hornworts

64.

What is not a group of gymosperms?

a)

grasses

b)

ginkgos

c)

conifers

d)

sago palms (cycads)

65.

What kinds of angiosperms have reverted to wind pollinations?

a)

grasses

b)

pines

c)

magnolias

d)

all are correct

66.

Monocots typically have leaves with ____ veins and flowers with ____ parts per whorl

a)

netlike; 6

b)

netlike; 4 to 5

c)

parallel; 3

d)

parallel; 4 to 5

e)

netlike; 3

67.

The primary function of fruit is

a)

provide nutrients to the endosperm

b)

promote seed germination

c)

promote seed dispersal

d)

promote seed development

68.

The flower structure that holds pollen is called a(n)

a)

ovary

b)

style

c)

stigma

d)

receptacle

e)

anther

69.

In most angiosperms, pollen is dispersed by ____

a)

water

b)

insects

c)

wind

d)

birds

e)

humans

70.

Which part of a flower is green and leaf-like?

a)

sepals

b)

petals

c)

carpels

d)

stamens

71.

The part of the flower which eventually becomes the fruit is the

a)

ovary

b)

stigma

c)

petal

d)

ovule

72.

Chordates can be characterized by having

a)

all

b)

notochord

c)

bilateral symmetry

d)

nerve cord

73.

Both roundworms and rotifers are pseudocoelomates

a)

true

b)

false

74.

The first animal group to show extracellular digestion was the

a)

cnidarians

b)

flatworms

c)

sponges

d)

roundworms

75.

The first animal group to show extracellular digestion was the

a)

cnidarians

b)

flatworms

c)

sponges

d)

roundworms

76.

What term does not apply to platyhelminthes?

a)

bilateral symmetry

b)

acoelomate

c)

mostly parasitic

d)

notochord

77.

Cnidarians and ctenophorans differ from other eumetazoans by having

a)

bilateral symmetry

b)

gills

c)

radial symmetry

d)

major organ systems

78.

the type of body cavity seen in the roundworms that develops between mesoderm and endoderm layers is a

a)

acoelom

b)

mantle

c)

coelom

d)

pseudocoelom

79.

the subkingdom of animals that lack symmetry and have no true tissues or organs is the

a)

eumetazoa

b)

chordata

c)

parazoa

d)

vertebrata

80.

animals in which the anus develops before the mouth in the embryo are

a)

coelenterates

b)

deuterostomes

c)

protostomes

d)

coelomic

81.

All of the following are correct about protostomes except

a)

the mesoderm splits to form the coelom

b)

the developmental fate of each cell in the embryo is fixed when that first cell appears

c)

embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern

d)

the blastopore becomes the animal's anus

82.

the advantage of bilateral symmetry is that it allowed for the evolution of

a)

reproductive structures

b)

cephalization

c)

appendages

d)

parasites

83.

Of the mollusks, the octopuses are in the class of

a)

deuterstomes

b)

cephalopods

c)

gastropods

d)

bivalves

84.

Mammals that have live births but continue to incubate newborns in a pouch are

a)

rodents

b)

marsupials

c)

monotremes

d)

primates

85.

The type of fish represented by the most living species on earth today are the

a)

coelacanths

b)

bony fish

c)

sharks

d)

rays and skates

86.

The function of the notochord is taken over by the _____ in vertebrates

a)

brain

b)

ribs

c)

spinal cord

d)

backbone

87.

the very first vertebrates were

a)

bony fish

b)

fish with jaws

c)

fish without jaws

d)

cartilaginous fish

88.

amniotic eggs evolved as a means to

a)

protect the embryo while the parent sits on the egg

b)

prevent the embryo from drying out

c)

allow the parent to gather food, not sit on the nest

d)

protect embryo from predators

89.

Which of the following is the correct evolutionary sequence?

a)

birds-reptiles-fish-amphibians

b)

fish-amphibians-reptiles-birds

c)

fish-birds-amphibians-reptiles

d)

reptiles-birds-fish-amphibians

90.

Bony fishes possess a lateral line system to

a)

cleanse the blood from toxins

b)

store urine until excreted

c)

regulate their buoyancy

d)

detect changes in water pressure

e)

regulate oxygen in blood

91.

An example of a modern day jawless fish is

a)

perch

b)

lampreys

c)

shark

d)

angelfish

92.

reptiles were better adapted to land than amphibians because they

a)

thoracic breathing

b)

had watertight skin to help retain water

c)

had amniotic eggs

d)

had all of these things

93.

choose the best definition of the term "ecology"

a)

the study of communities of organisms

b)

the study of plants and animals in their ecosystems

c)

the study of animals in their habitat

d)

the study of interactions of organisms with each other and with their habitat

94.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?

a)

wind

b)

bacteria

c)

water

d)

rocks

95.

all of the different kinds of interacting organisms living within a certain area make up a

a)

community

b)

species

c)

ecosystem

d)

population

96.

Life exists on earth because of the constant flow of light energy from the sun that is transformed into chemical

a)

True

b)

False

97.

which of the following represents r-selected populations

a)

roaches

b)

humans

c)

dogs

d)

elephants

98.

Which of the following examples best represents K-selected populations?

a)

mice

b)

elephants

c)

cockroaches

d)

dandelions

99.

No two species with the same entire niche can coexist

a)

true

b)

false

100.

which of the following is an example of a biome?

a)

meadow

b)

brewton

c)

stream

d)

tundra

101.

Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?

a)

stream

b)

wildebeasts

c)

elephants

d)

zebras

102.

What is carrying capacity?

a)

resources limit the population from expanding

b)

biome

c)

community

d)

ecosystem

103.

when the energy flow through an ecosystem is measured at each trophic level, _____ of the available energy passes from one level to the next

a)

1% to 2%

b)

5% to 20%

c)

25% to 35%

d)

36% to 45%

e)

46% to 55%

104.

the loss of ___ that occurs at each trophic level places a limit on how many top-level carnivores a community can support

a)

water

b)

light

c)

CO2

d)

energy

e)

O2

105.

Herbivores are at what trophic level within an ecosystem?

a)

level 1

b)

level 2

c)

level 3

d)

level 4

106.

the total amount of energy fixed by photosynthetic organisms minus the energy used in their own metabolic activities is

a)

primary productivity

b)

secondary productivity

c)

net primary productivity

d)

net secondary productivity

107.

plants obtain the carbon used in the manufacture of organic compounds from

a)

organic compounds in the soil

b)

carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

c)

fossil fuels

d)

carbon dioxide in the soil

108.

certain bacteria are capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into a form other organisms can use through a process known as

a)

combustion

b)

nitrogen oxidation

c)

nitrogen fixation

d)

nitrogen reduction

109.

humans intrude into the nitrogen cycle by

a)

disposing of human manure rather than allowing it to recycle

b)

manufacturing nitrogen compounds to apply to agricultural fields

c)

tying up nitrogen in human body mass because of overpopulation

d)

use of antibiotics that destroy important bacteria in the nitrogen cycle

110.

The british isles experience warmer weather than other areas of the same latitude because of

a)

vast forests that shelter the islands from winds

b)

warm, moist Gulf Stream

c)

mountain ranges protecting the islands

d)

industry causing a localized greenhouse effect

111.

highly productive lakes with an abundance of organic material are called

a)

oligotrophic lakes

b)

thermally stratified

c)

eutrophic lakes

d)

dimictic lakes

112.

a ____ is a type of major land ecosystem determined mostly by the features of the climate in the area. many are actually named for the dominant plants or lack of.

a)

biome

b)

community

c)

biosphere

d)

land formation

113.

the type of ecosystem that can be found bordering the tropics worldwide that is characterized by huge herds of grazing animals is

a)

savanna

b)

prairie

c)

taiga

d)

temperate rain forest

114.

circling the globe at northern latitudes is ___, with coniferous trees and long, cold winters

a)

tundra

b)

taiga

c)

temperate deciduous forests

d)

chaparral

115.

all are detritivores except

a)

worms

b)

vulture

c)

fungi

d)

arthropods

116.

the tropics are warmer than the temperate regions because

a)

there is less wind there to cool it

b)

they are at a higher altitude and closer to the sun

c)

the sun's rays strike at a direct angle

d)

they are closer to the moon

e)

the sun strikes at an oblique angle

117.

where is an estuary found?

a)

below the top 300 meters of the sea where there is no light

b)

at the top 100 meters of the sea

c)

small temporary pond of water

d)

water that forms at the mouth of a river where it meets the sea

118.

when you eat a hamburger you are the

a)

primary consumer

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

d)

secondary consumer

e)

tertiary consumer

119.

which element is related to the formation of acid rain?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbon

c)

nitrogen

d)

potassium

120.

acid rain can lead to the destruction of

a)

trees

b)

fish

c)

aquatic invertebrates

d)

all of these choices are correct

121.

Which of the following does global warming effect?

a)

rain patterns

b)

agriculture

c)

sea levels

d)

all of these are correct

122.

trapping of heat in the earth's atmosphere by certain gases called the ____ effect

a)

thermostat

b)

global warming

c)

green house

d)

furnace

123.

Which of the following is the most important cause of extinction?

a)

species overpopulation

b)

habitat loss

c)

introduced species

124.

Which of the following gases is related to the development of the ozone hole?

a)

methane

b)

chlorofluorocarbons

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

125.

_____ catalyzes the reaction that converts O3 into O2

a)

CH4

b)

DDT

c)

CO2

d)

CFC

126.

which of the following is a non-replaceable resource?

a)

biodiversity

b)

groundwater

c)

top soil

d)

all of these choices

127.

Which of the following is closest to today's human population number?

a)

6.7 billion

b)

5 billion

c)

4.6 billion

d)

9.8 billion

128.

Which is not an alternative energy source?

a)

solar

b)

wind

c)

coal

d)

nuclear

129.

if all humans lived at the standard of living in the developed world, two additional planet Earth's would be needed.

a)

true

b)

false

130.

the increasing concentration of a chemical as it moves through the links in a food chain is called

a)

chemical amplification

b)

biological magnification

c)

biological amplification

d)

trophic magnification