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AH Final First 2 Tests

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Wheezing on expiration happens with?

a)

Asthma

b)

Bronchitis

2.

Chest pain happens on affected side. You may have relief laying on that same side with it referring to back, neck, and abdomen. It could be a sign of many things included pleurisy. Pleurisy is lining that seperates the ...?

a)

Lungs

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

3.

Clubbing of the fingers is a sign of what type of hypoxic conditions?

a)

Chronic

b)

Acute

4.

Central cyanosis is bluish skin, a _ sign of hypoxia.

a)

Immediate

b)

Late

c)

Early

5.

With labored breathing, you lose weight due to the work of breathing. Abdominal and intercostal muscle usage happens during which phase?

a)

Inspiration

b)

Expiration

6.

Which one do you hear over the neck?

a)

Stridor

b)

Wheezing

c)

Crackles

d)

Friction Rub

7.

Evaluates gas exchange. Hold bronchodilators, remove dentures, and don't smoke or eat 4-6 hrs before. What test am I?

a)

LFT

b)

PFT

c)

AFT

d)

CFT

8.

Collect before abx first; initials are in 24 hrs; finals in 48-72 hrs. What am?

a)

Biopsy

b)

Culture

c)

Urinalysis

9.

NPO is not required. Pts should be able to hold their breath and not cough. Which am I?

a)

X-Ray

b)

CT

c)

Nuclear Scan

d)

MRI

10.

There may be a loud thumping/humming sound. Pts should be able to lie flat for how long?

a)

60-120 mins

b)

30-90 mins

c)

0-60 mins

11.

Allows you to look directly at the lungs. Pts should be NPO 4-8 hrs to prevent aspiration, remove dentures. Small amounts of blood tinged sputum in first 24 hrs is fine. What am I?

a)

Broncoscopy

b)

Thoracentesis

c)

Biopsy

d)

Echocardiogram

12.

After this procedure, pts should remain NPO until gag reflex returns. I am used for the diagnosis of cancer.

a)

Broncoscopy

b)

Thoracentesis

c)

Biopsy

d)

Echocardiogram

13.

Pts are asked to take a deep breath, hold, and not cough. I can be done at the bedside. What am I?

a)

Broncoscopy

b)

Thoracentesis

c)

Biopsy

d)

Echocardiogram

14.

Pneumonia within 48 hrs of hospitalization?

a)

Community

b)

Hospital Acquired

c)

Ventilation

15.

Anosmia is loss of smell. Ageusia is the loss of _?

a)

Hearing

b)

Taste

c)

Vision

d)

Movement

16.

For pts with pneumonia, the should use incentive spirometer hourly. What type of questions should you ask?

a)

Yes/No

b)

T/F

c)

Open-Ended

d)

Rhetorical

17.

Sepsis would be expected with temp 100+, HR>90, RR>20, and WBC greater than _?

a)

12k

b)

15k

c)

7k

18.

With septic shock, perfusion is?

a)

Adequate

b)

Not adequate

19.

To prevent aspiration, keep HOB at 30-45 degrees, use sedatives sparingly, confirm placement of tubes w/ x-ray and get swallow evaluation done by who?

a)

Respiratory Therapist

b)

Occupational Therapist

c)

Speech Therapist

20.

Emphysema is impaired O2/CO2 exchange; destruction d/t distended alveoli which leads to increase in _?

a)

Oxygenation

b)

Acidosis

c)

Deadspace

d)

Alkalosis

21.

COPD pts experience a great deal of work to breath, lose weight, use accessory muscles, and tend to lean _?

a)

backward

b)

forward

c)

sideways

22.

Cor pulmonale is the enlargement of which side of the heart d/t disease of the lungs?

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Middle

23.

To avoid toxicity in pts with COPD, administer O2 w/ caution. Aim to get O2 to which level or higher? (Select the target)

a)

85%

b)

90%

c)

92%

d)

95%

24.

Cachexia is muscle weakness/wasting. The goal of COPD care is to decrease the work of breathing. Clients are encouraged to eat 6 small meals a day, take SABA before meals, consume extra carbs/protein, and increase fluid intake to 3L unless contraindicated.

How long should a client rest before eating?

a)

15 mins

b)

30 mins

c)

60 mins

d)

45 mins

25.

I reduce respirations, increase alveolar ventilation, and help expel air during expiration, which technique am I?

a)

Diaphragmatic Breathing

b)

Pursed Lip Breathing

c)

Pulmonary Rehab

d)

Tripod Position

26.

I prolong exhalation, prevent colapse of bronchioles, and control rate/depth of expiration, which technique am I? Note: I can reduce feeling of panic.

a)

Diaphragmatic Breathing

b)

Pursed Lip Breathing

c)

Pulmonary Rehab

d)

Tripod Position

27.

I am a 6 wk program. Pts engaged in practices and training to improve their quality of life.

a)

Diaphragmatic Breathing

b)

Pursed Lip Breathing

c)

Pulmonary Rehab

d)

Tripod Position

28.

I aim to decrease the work of breathing. Pts sit with their arms on the table or sit with arms on knees.

a)

Diaphragmatic Breathing

b)

Pursed Lip Breathing

c)

Pulmonary Rehab

d)

Tripod Position

29.

Pt is experiencing respiratory failure? Select all that apply

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Infection

30.

Asymetric chest movement with absence of breath sounds on one side.

a)

PE

b)

HF

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

COPD

31.

For asthma, which are not abortive. This meds are for maintenance/long-term tx.

a)

Albutereold

b)

Salmeterol

c)

Leukotriene Modifiers

d)

Corticosteroids

32.

The pt can't take albuterol and other SABA, what would be an alternative?

a)

Anticholinergic

b)

Antihistamine

c)

Antibiotic

d)

Leukotriene Modifiers

33.

Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory. After administration with a spacer, what should happen?

a)

Rinse mouth

b)

Brush teeth

c)

Clean spacer

d)

Lean forward

34.

Pts w/ asthma will speak in words, not sentences and sit forward. What helps their smooth muscles relax?

a)

PO Mg Sulfate

b)

IV Mag Sulfate

c)

PO Ca Sulfate

d)

IV Ca Sulfate

35.

Pt has pulmonary congestion, crackles, S3, and gallop. Which condition might I be?

a)

Left-sided HF

b)

Right-sided HF

36.

There is some congestion, but JVD, edema, and hepatomegaly, ascites, and weight gain are tell-tale signs. Which condition might I be?

a)

Left-sided HF

b)

Right-sided HF

37.

I am an early diastolic condition associated with low pitch and poor systolic function or volume overload. The mitral valve pushes blood into a full ventricle. Which heart sound might I be?

a)

S3

b)

S4

c)

S2

38.

I am a late diastolic condition d/t poor diastolic funciton. The atrial kick squeezes blood into a stiff ventricle. Which heart sound might I be?

a)

S3

b)

S4

c)

S2

39.

There is an increase in RR and decrease in PaO2, which stage of heart failure is the patient experiencing?

a)

Early

b)

Later

c)

Further Progression

40.

With treatment for acute decompensated HF there is an increase in O2, reduction in fluid, and improvement of ventricular function. Ultimately, the hearts contractility will increase. Which meds are inotropic?

a)

Milrinone

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Salmeterol

d)

Aspirin

41.

A pt with PE should change their position. Which best represents the new position?

a)

Raise HOB to 30-45 degrees

b)

Lay supine

c)

Upright, legs dangling

42.

HF pts should limit Na to 2g/day, get exercise up to 30 mins/day, and wait 2 hrs after eating for activity. Which is the best diagnostic tool?

a)

EKG

b)

Echocardiogram

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Cardiac Catheterization

43.

Which help with cholesterol or TG?

a)

ACE

b)

ARB

c)

BB

d)

CCB

e)

Statin

44.

Which slow HR?

a)

ACE

b)

ARB

c)

BB

d)

CCB

e)

Statin

45.

With atherosclerosis, pts need to focus on _.

a)

modifiable factors

b)

oxygenation

c)

improving qualify of life

d)

decreasing anxiety

46.

With angina pectoris, relief w/ rest or NTG is?

a)

Stable

b)

Unstable

c)

Acute

47.

Female pts may have a varied set of s/s like pressures, squeezing, upper body pain, cold sweat, and nausea, they may be suffering from what?

a)

Heart Attack

b)

Stroke

c)

PE

d)

Flatulence

48.

Which vasodilate; increase blood flow to the heart?

a)

NTG

b)

BB

c)

CCB

d)

Aspriin

e)

Heparin

49.

Which decreases oxygen demand?

a)

NTG

b)

BB

c)

CCB

d)

Aspriin

e)

Heparin

50.

Which decrease workload by lowering HR and BP?

a)

NTG

b)

BB

c)

CCB

d)

Aspirin

e)

Heparin

51.

You're not at the hospital and pt has chest pain. You give NTG, what do you do next?

a)

Wait 5 mins

b)

Call 911

c)

Give 2nd dose

d)

Give 3rd dose

52.

With ACS, there is alot going on. Cardiac catheterization allows visual inspection of vessels, what is the biomarker?

a)

Troponin

b)

Elevated ST

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

ALT/LFT

53.

Which is the widow maker? Found at the anterior wall of the heart. I am not the common one.

a)

LAD

b)

RCA

54.

I result in abnormal biomarkers and ST changes in at least 2 leads. Which one am I?

a)

NSTEMI

b)

STEMI

c)

USA

55.

PQRST is done with which type of assessment?

a)

Breathing

b)

Pain

c)

Health

d)

Mental

56.

MONA is used for patients dealing with _?

a)

Malaise

b)

Chest Pain

c)

Respiration

d)

Perfusion

57.

STEMI protocol requires quick action w/ best response in _ minutes.

a)

30 mins

b)

60 mins

c)

90 mins

d)

120 mins

58.

Atorvastatin is used for cholesterol and triglycerides, monitor which organ's function?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Spleen

d)

Gallbladder

59.

NTG pills _ be put in a container with other meds.

a)

cannot

b)

can

c)

may

60.

Which one am I?

Note: Pts may have low K.

a)

PAC

b)

PVC

c)

SVT

61.

Which one am I?

Note: Pts may have low K and low Mg.

a)

PAC

b)

PVC

c)

SVT

62.

Vagal stimulation may cause _?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Rhythm

63.

Pts may be diagnosed at an early age. They may be thin or experienced recent weight loss. This type of diabetes is due to loss of _ cell function in the pancreas. Which one am I? Note: Pts may develop DKA with this type of diabetes.

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

64.

Pts can develop HHS with this type of diabetes, develop the condition later in life, and are often obese. Oh yeah, they take metformin too. Which type of diabetes am I?

a)

T2

b)

T1

65.

A pts BG should be monitored for 1-2 hrs, insulin will be held unless BG = 200+, and we discontinue metformin 24-48 hrs prior to, what is the pt being prepared for?

a)

surgery

b)

discharge

c)

room change

d)

paracentesis

66.

For pts with peripheral neuropathy, what should you do if a wound hasn't healed in 24 hrs?

a)

ask for staples or stiches

b)

contact provider

c)

apply a dressing

d)

assess for infection

67.

What would a pt with anemia get?

a)

Packed RBC

b)

PLT

c)

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

68.

The pt won't stop bleeding, what would they get?

a)

Packed RBC

b)

PLT

c)

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

69.

Obtain blood from bank after the IV is setup, confirm prescription for blood, and do all of the other checks for type and match. What should happen before going to get the blood?

Note: change tubing after every 2 units; run pure RBC for 2+ hrs; blood runs for 4 hrs max; monitor for first 15 mins

a)

Educate about s/s of reaction

b)

Get informed consent from pt

c)

Warm blood

70.

After a PLT transfusion, how long should you wait to order the PLT count?

a)

30 mins

b)

60 mins

c)

24 hrs

d)

48 hrs

71.

The donor's blood is not compatible w/ the pt; this type of reaction is seen w/ as little as 10 mL of packed RBC. Which am I?

a)

Acute hemolytic reaction

b)

Chronic hemolytic reaction

c)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

72.

Antibiodies create a reaction that occurs with pts that have past transfusions. Fever onset may be in 2 hrs; antipyretics help with the fever

a)

Acute hemolytic reaction

b)

Transfusion allergic reaction

c)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

73.

This type of reaction is due to plasma proteins in the blood. You may administer antihistamines and other meds prior to transfusion. Pt may develop urticaria, what reaction am I?

a)

Acute hemolytic reaction

b)

Transfusion allergic reaction

c)

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction

74.

A transfusion overload has s/s of dyspnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, JVD, crackles, and more. What is a best practice to avoid this complication? Select all that apply.

a)

Diuretic prior to transfusion

b)

Diuretic btw transfusions

c)

Diuretic post-transfusion

75.

Barium would result in a white stool. Which allows evaluation of the upper GI?

a)

Barium Enema

b)

Barium White

c)

Barium Swallow

76.

Barium would result in a white stool. Which allows evaluation of the lower GI?

a)

Barium Enema

b)

Barium White

c)

Barium Swallow

77.

Which requires that you check for shellfish/iodine allergy?

a)

X-Ray

b)

CT Scan

c)

EEG

d)

LFT

78.

With this exam, loss of gag reflex is expected; pts will be NPO until it returns. You can see the esophageal, gastric, and duodenal mucosa. Which am I?

a)

TEE

b)

EGD

c)

CT

d)

EKG

79.

I am the distruction of the mucosal barrier that protects the stomach tissue; I am caused by H. Pylori. There is relief w/ eating. What am I?

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

b)

Gastritis

c)

Celiac Disease

d)

Peritonitis

80.

There is an erosion of the membrane in the stomach and close regions. It feels like a full, gnawing pain or burning. A 72-hr diet diary may be helpful. If a pt developed orthostatic hypotension, a provider should be notified. Which am I?

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

b)

Gastritis

c)

Celiac Disease

d)

Peritonitis

81.

I am an immune response to products that contain gluten. S/S: diarrhea, steatorrhea, abdominal pain/distention, fart, and weight loss. What am I?

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

b)

Gastritis

c)

Celiac Disease

d)

Peritonitis

82.

I am inflammation of the peritoneum - diffuse, constant, and more intense. Movement aggravates my pain. Pts suffer from a variety of effects including dehydration. Vitals are required every 4 hrs; pts sometime receive TPN. What am I?

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

b)

Gastritis

c)

Celiac Disease

d)

Peritonitis

83.

Pre-umbilical pain in the lower right quadrant; I present as a low-grade fever and rebound tenderness. There will likely be elevated WBC and C-reative protein. Post-op put pt in high fowlers. What am I?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Diverticular Disease

c)

Intestinal Obstruction

d)

Crohn's Disease

e)

Ulcerative Colitis

84.

I am a sac-like formation that could result in fistulas. Avoid triggers like popcorn and peanuts. Diagnosis can be made with a colonoscopy. What am I?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Diverticular Disease

c)

Intestinal Obstruction

d)

Crohn's Disease

e)

Ulcerative Colitis

85.

Pt complains of wavelike/colicky pain and passage of blood and mucus w/ no stool or flatus. What am I?

Note: Loops in the larger organ can be seen in abdominal wall.

a)

Intestinal Obstruction

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Vein Occclusion

d)

Artery Blockage

86.

Which describes the auscultation of bowel sounds w/ a pt that has a large bowel obstruction?

a)

Hyperactive then hypoactive

b)

Hypoactive then hyperactive

87.

I am a regional enteritis that provides relief w/ bowel movement. Can present anywhere in the GI tract. Pts have fistulas and/or abdominal mass. What am I?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Diverticular Disease

c)

Intestinal Obstruction

d)

Crohn's Disease

e)

Ulcerative Colitis

88.

Ulcerative/inflammatory disease of the large intestine only; can result in sever bleeding, and fistulas. If fluid runs out (IV) hang 10% dextrose (at night). Goal = normal bowel sounds w/ relief of pain/cramping. What am I?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Diverticular Disease

c)

Intestinal Obstruction

d)

Crohn's Disease

e)

Ulcerative Colitis

89.

Bubble on abdominal wall for small intestine; stool will be liquidy.

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Colostomy

90.

Drink fluids only until I work, pts can better regulate function.

a)

Ileostomy

b)

Colostomy

91.

Think Humalog; pts must eat in 5-15 or they could experience severe hypoglycemia. Peaks in1 hr; duration is 2-4 hrs. What am I?

a)

Rapid

b)

Regular

c)

Basal

d)

NPH

e)

Very-Long

92.

The clear type, this type of insulin can be given in combo or monotherapy - think Humulin-R. Don't give w/ glargine and glulisine. NPH is cloudy. Which one am I?

a)

Rapid

b)

Regular

c)

Basal

d)

NPH

e)

Very-Long

93.

Type 1 diabetics usually use it, some T2 can use it too. It is a long-acting insulin.

Which am I?

a)

Rapid

b)

Regular

c)

Basal

d)

NPH

e)

Very-Long

94.

Think Novolin; I appear white/cloudy with onset in 2-4 and peak in 4-12 hrs. Roll me in btw hands while drawing medication.

Which am I?

a)

Rapid

b)

Regular

c)

Basal

d)

NPH

e)

Very-Long

95.

Some options are Glargine or Detimir. I function over 24 hrs. Which am I?

a)

Rapid

b)

Regular

c)

Basal

d)

NPH

e)

Very-Long

96.

Pts have a loss of cognitive function, subtle memory loss, or difficulty completing normal activities. What can they be showing signs of?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Alzheimer's

c)

Raynaud's

d)

Crohn's

97.

Changes may need to take place at home to ensure safety and prevent falls. Ocurs in men more than women. I am a disorder of the CNS that affects movement. What am I?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Alzheimer's

c)

Parkinson's

d)

Crohn's

98.

If a pt is on 3 HTN meds without success and needs a 4th, to get it under control, what may they be experiencing?

a)

Resistant HTN

b)

Compliant HTN

c)

HTN Crisis

d)

HTN Emergency

e)

HTN Urgency

99.

Pt has a 180/120, or one without the other. There is no sign of organ damage (or potential), what might I be?

a)

Resistant HTN

b)

Compliant HTN

c)

HTN Crisis

d)

HTN Emergency

e)

HTN Urgency

100.

BP is high, high. There is sign of worsening organ damage. What might I be?

a)

Resistant HTN

b)

Compliant HTN

c)

HTN Crisis

d)

HTN Emergency

e)

HTN Urgency

101.

During a hypertensive crisis, with aortic disection, reduce BP to <120 in 1st hr. With severe preeclampsia, reduce BP to <140 in first hr. In other cases, reduce BP by no more than _ in the first hr. What percentage is recommended?

a)

25%

b)

35%

c)

50%

d)

15%

102.

A pt is dealing with a great deal of cramping/pain or claudication with some degree of exercise. What might the pt be suffering from?

a)

PAD

b)

CAD

c)

PE

d)

HTN

103.

ABI is the ratio of the BP at the right ankle divided by the BP in the right _?

a)

carotid

b)

ankle

c)

arm

d)

leg

e)

wrist

104.

What medication would be given for claudication?

a)

Cliostazol

b)

Aspirin

c)

Methadone

d)

Glargine

105.

Bypass grafting often involves which arteries? Select all that apply.

a)

Radial

b)

Brachial

c)

Femoral

d)

Popliteal

106.

Which one uses a balloon?

Note: Stents/grafts reduce the risk of re-stenosis. With some procedures, pts can go home same day or next day.

a)

Angiography

b)

Angioplasty

c)

Cardiogram

d)

Cardioplasty

107.

Nursing care for PAD would recommend raising limb to?

a)

level of the heart

b)

above the heart

c)

below the heart

108.

With DVT, best practice for nursing care would expect that the legs are _ the heart at bedrest.

a)

level of the heart

b)

above the heart

c)

below the heart

109.

Arterial leg ulcers result in unrelenting, ischemic pain at rest. Venous ulcers present heavy/aching pain and can be painless. Which are at medial side of hallux or 5th toe?

Note: The other is medial/laterla to malleolus

a)

Arterial leg ulcer

b)

Venous leg ulcer

110.

Which procedure allows for diagnosis of varicose veins?

a)

Duplex ultrasound

b)

MRI

c)

CT Scan

d)

Vascularoscopy

111.

I am swelling/redness and pain. i can present with a fever. At specific spots, I display as redness w/ pitting/orange-peel appearance. What am I?

a)

Cellutitis

b)

Fistula

c)

Melanoma

d)

Hives