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Bio Final Exam

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 2hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What represents the most basic level of biological organization that can carry out all properties of life?

a)

cell

b)

atom

c)

tissue

d)

molecule

e)

organism

2.

How does a prokaryotic cell differ from a eukaryotic cell?

a)

prokaryotic cell has no membrane-enclosed organelles

b)

prokaryotic has plasma membrane

c)

prokaryotic contains organelles

d)

prokaryotic has nucleus

e)

prokaryotic has DNA

3.

the smallest unit of an element that contains all the characteristics of that element

a)

molecule

b)

organelle

c)

cell

d)

atom

e)

none

4.

A major interacting system that includes organisms and their nonliving environment

a)

biosphere

b)

ecosystem

c)

community

d)

population

e)

both a and b

5.

Most accurate organization of life

a)

biosphere, ecosystem, communities, populations, organisms, cells, organelles, atoms

b)

ecosystems, biosphere, communities, populations, organisms, cells, organeles, atoms

6.

binary fission in prokaryotes does not require the

a)

replication of dna

b)

elongation of the cell

c)

separation of daughter cells by septum formation

d)

assembly of the nuclear envelope

7.

Chromatin is composed of

a)

rna and protein

b)

dna and protein

c)

sister chromatids

d)

chromosomes

8.

what is a nucleosome

a)

a region in the cell's nucleus that contains euchromatin

b)

a region of the dna wound histone proteins

c)

a region of a chromosome mad up of multiple loops of chromatin

d)

a 30 nm fiber foud in chromtin

9.

What is the role of cohesin roteins in cell division

a)

they organize the dna of the chromosomes into highly condensed structures

b)

they hold the dna of the sister chromatids together

c)

they help the cell divide into two daughter cells

d)

they connect microtubles and chromosomes

10.

the kintochere is a structure that functions to

a)

connect the centromere to microtubles

b)

connect centrioles to microtubles

c)

aid in chromosome condensation

d)

aid in chromosome cohesin

11.

Separation of sister chromatids occurs during

a)

prophase

b)

prometaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

12.

why cytokinesis an important part of cell division

a)

responsible for the proper separation of gentic information

b)

proper separation of the cytoplasmic contents

c)

triggers the movement of a cell through the cell cycle

d)

it allows cells to halt at checkpoints

13.

in comparing somatic cells and gametes, somatic cells are

a)

diploid with half the number of chromosomes

b)

haploid with half the number of chromosome

c)

diploid with twice the number of chromosomes

d)

haploid with twice the number of chromosomes

14.

what are homologous chromosomes

a)

the two halves of a replicated chromosomes

b)

two identical chromosomes from one parent

c)

two genetically identically chromosomes, one from each parent

d)

two genetically identically similar chromosomes, one from each parent

15.

crossing over involves each of the following with the exception of

a)

the transfer of DNA between two non-sister chromatids

b)

the transfer of DNA between two sister chromatids

c)

the formation of the synaptonemal complex

d)

the alignment of homologous chromosomes

16.

During anaphase 1

a)

sister chromatids separate and move to the poles

b)

homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles

c)

homologous chromosomes align at the middle of the cell

d)

all the chromosomes align independently at the middle of the cell

17.

at metaphase 1 the kinetochores of sister chromatids are

a)

attached to microtubles from the same pole

b)

attached to microtubles from opposite poles

c)

held together with cohesion proteins

d)

not attached to any microtubles

18.

what occurs during anaphase of meiosos 11

a)

the homologous chromosomes align

b)

sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles

c)

homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles

d)

the haploid chromosomes line up

19.

how does DNA replication differ between mitosis and meiosis

a)

DNA replication takes less time in meiosis because the cells are haploid

b)

during meiosis, there are only one round of replication for two division

c)

during mitosis, there is only one round of replication every other division

d)

DNA replication is exactly the same in mitosis and meiosis

20.

which of the following is not a distinct feature of meiosis

a)

pairing and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes

b)

attachment of sister kinetochores to spindle microtubles

c)

movement of sister chromatids to the same poles

d)

suppression of DNA replication

21.

if an intestinal cell of a grasshopper contains 24 chromosomes, a grasshopper sperm cell would contain __ chromosomes.

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

e)

48

22.

which of the following phases of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prophase in terms of nuclear changes?

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

s phase

d)

interphase

e)

anaphase

23.

a biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the lab and found that the quantity of DNA in a cell doubled

a)

between prophase and anaphase of mitosis

b)

between g1 and g2 phase of the cell cycle

c)

during the m phase of the cell cycle

d)

between prophase 1 and prophase 2 of meiosis

e)

between anaphase and telophase of mitosis

24.

which of the following is not a function of mitosis in humans?

a)

repair of wounds

b)

growth

c)

production of gametes from diploid cells

d)

replacement of loss or damaged cells

e)

multiplication of somatic cells

25.

A micrograph of a dividing cell from a mouse showed 19 chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids. During which of the following stages of nuclear division could this picture have been taken?

a)

Prophase of mitosis

b)

Telophase II of meiosis

c)

Prophase I of meiosis

d)

Anaphase of mitosis

e)

Prophase II of meiosis

26.

It is difficult to observe individual chromosomes during interphase because

a)

the DNA has not been replicated yet.

b)

they have uncoiled to form long thin strands of chromatin

c)

they leave the nucleus and are dispersed to other parts of the cell

d)

homologous chromosomes do not pair up until division starts

e)

the spindle must move them to the metaphase plate before they become visible

27.

Haploid sex cells have half the number of chromosomes of the original parent cell.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Homologous pairs are normally present in haploid cells

a)

true

b)

false

29.

In animals, a fertilized sex cell is diploid.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

The series of cellular events that occur during prophase of mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis II are identical.

a)

true

b)

false

31.

Binary fission is a precisely orchestrated sequence of events that ensures each bacterial daughter cell has identical genetic materal.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

The G1-S checkpoint of the cell-cycle ensures that DNA replication is finished before the cell begins nuclear of division of somatic cells.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Identical twins are the result of two egg cells being fertilized by two sperm cells and being implanted in the uterus of the female at the same time.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

A fertilized egg cell is diploid in chromosome number

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Crossing over and genetic recombination occurs in Prophase II of Meiosis II.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

Which of the following is true about land plants?

a)

Green algae called charophytes are their closest relatives

b)

They are defined as having terrestrial ancestors, even though some are now aquatic

c)

They do not include photosynthetic protists (algae)

d)

They are defined as embryophytes

e)

All of the above

37.

In which of the following processes does the fusion of gametes give rise to the diploid sporophyte, which produces haploid spores by meiosis?

a)

Cell cycle

b)

Mitosis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Alternation of generations

e)

all of the above

38.

Plant gametes are produced within multicellular organs called

a)

sporangia

b)

gametangia

c)

chloroplasts

d)

grana

e)

endosperm

39.

Female gametangia, called _______________, produce eggs and are the site of fertilization

a)

Archegonia

b)

Antheridia

c)

Sporangia

d)

Marchantia

e)

Apical meristems

40.

Which of the following is true of charophytes?

a)

They are the ancestors of green algae

b)

They are examples of seedless vascular plants.

c)

They are the closest living algal relatives of land plants.

d)

They share some features in common with land plants, namely spores surrounded by sporopollenin and alternation of generations.

41.

Assuming that they all belong to the same plant, arrange the following structures from largest to smallest.

1. antheridia 2. gametes 3. gametophytes 4. gametangia

a)

1, 4, 3, 2

b)

3, 1, 2, 4

c)

3, 4, 2, 1

d)

3, 4, 1, 2

e)

4, 3, 1, 2

42.

In plants, which of the following are produced by meiosis?

a)

haploid sporophytes

b)

haploid gametes

c)

diploid gametes

d)

haploid spores

e)

diploid spores

43.

Which of the following is a land plant that has flagellated sperm and a sporophyte-dominant life cycle?

a)

fern

b)

moss

c)

liverwort

d)

charophyte

e)

hornwort

44.

Which of the following is most important in making the typical seed more resistant to adverse?

a)

a different type of sporopollenin

b)

an internal reservoir of liquid water

c)

integument(s)

d)

ability to be dispersed

e)

waxy cuticle

45.

Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive).

1. sporophyte 2. microspores 3. microsporangia 4. pollen cone 5. pollen nuclei

a)

1, 4, 3, 2, 5

b)

1, 4, 2, 3, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 5, 4

d)

4, 1, 2, 3, 5

e)

4, 3, 2, 5, 1

46.

A fruit is most commonly

a)

a mature ovary

b)

a thickened style

c)

an enlarged ovule

d)

a modified root

e)

a mature female gametophyte

47.

With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?

a)

Egg – n

b)

megaspore – 2n

c)

microspore – n

d)

zygote – 2n

e)

sperm – n

48.

Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?

a)

alternation of generations

b)

ovules

c)

integuments

d)

pollen

e)

dependent gametophytes

49.

Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except

a)

seeds

b)

pollen

c)

vascular tissue

d)

ovaries

e)

ovules

50.

Land plants are composed of all of the following tissue types except

a)

mesoderm

b)

epidermis

c)

meristem

d)

vascular

e)

ground tissue

51.

Vascular plant tissue includes all of the following cell types except

a)

vessel elements.

b)

sieve cells.

c)

tracheids.

d)

companion cells.

e)

cambium cells.

52.

One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that

a)

only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem

b)

root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not.

c)

a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots.

d)

vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves.

e)

leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not.

53.

Gas exchange, which is necessary for photosynthesis, can occur most easily in which leaf tissue?

a)

epidermis

b)

palisade mesophyll

c)

spongy mesophyll

d)

vascular tissue

e)

bundle sheath

54.

Plants contain meristems whose major function is to

a)

attract pollinators.

b)

absorb ions.

c)

photosynthesize

d)

produce more cells

e)

produce flowers.

55.

Pores on the leaf surface that function in gas exchange are called

a)

hairs.

b)

xylem cells

c)

phloem cells.

d)

stomata.

e)

sclereids.

56.

Which of the following plant structures is not matched to its correct function?

a)

Stomata – allow gas transfer

b)

tracheids – allow the movement of water and minerals

c)

cuticle – prevents desiccation

d)

all the choices are matched correctly

57.

Which of the following would NOT be found in a bryophyte?

a)

mycorrhizal associations

b)

rhizoids

c)

tracheid cells

d)

photosynthetic gametophytes

58.

Which of the following correctly compares what happens to a spore mother cell as it gives rise o a spore with what happens to a spore as it gives rise to a gametophyte?

a)

The spore mother cell and h spore both go through meiosis.

b)

The spore mother cell and the spore both go through mitosis

c)

The spore mother cells go through mitosis, and h spore goes through meiosis.

d)

The spore mother cell goes through meiosis, and the spore goes through mitosis

59.

The lack of seeds is a characteristic of all

a)

lycphytes

b)

conifers

c)

trachophytes

d)

gnetophyes

60.

Which of the following adaptations allows plants to pause their life cycle until environmental conditions are optimal?

a)

stomata

b)

phloem and xylem

c)

seeds

d)

. flowers

61.

In the pine tree, the micrspores ad megaspores ae produced by the process of

a)

fertilization

b)

mitosis

c)

fusion

d)

meiosis

62.

Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the male portion of the plants

a)

megaspore

b)

antheridium

c)

pollen grains

d)

microspore

63.

The integument of the ovule will develop into the

a)

embryo

b)

endosperm

c)

fruit.

d)

seed coat

64.

In double fertilization, one sperm produces a diploid____, and the other produces a triploid____.

a)

zygote; primary endosperm

b)

primary endosperm; microspore

c)

antipodal; zygote

d)

polar nuclei; zygote

65.

Which of the following would likely not contribute to the surface area available for water absorption from the soil by a plant root system?

a)

root hairs

b)

endodermis

c)

mycorrhizae

d)

fungi associated with the roots

e)

fibrous arrangement of the roots

66.

Root hairs are most important to a plant because they

a)

anchor a plant in the soil.

b)

store starches

c)

increase the surface area for absorption.

d)

provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

e)

contain xylem tissue.

67.

Which of the following plant tissue types conducts fluids and dissolved substances:

a)

Dermal

b)

Ground

c)

Vascular

d)

all

e)

none

68.

____________ cells in plants act as stem cells do in animals

a)

chollenchyma

b)

scheried

c)

sieve

d)

primordial

e)

meristems

69.

Lateral meristems are found in plants that

a)

exhibit primary growth

b)

exhibit secondary growth

c)

exhibit both primary and secondary growth

d)

none of the above

70.

CO2 enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the

a)

cuticle.

b)

epidermal trichomes.

c)

stoma

d)

phloem.

e)

walls of guard cells

71.

Cork cambium produces the outer bark of woody plants

a)

true

b)

false

72.

The dermal tissue forms the plant epidermis and the outer protective covering of the plant.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

Ground tissue consists of parenchyma, collenchyma and schlerenchyma cells.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

Like roots, stems contain ground, vascular and dermal tissue

a)

true

b)

false

75.

Leaves are initiated as primordia by the lateral meristems.

a)

true

b)

false

76.

Roots are the reproductive structure of angiosperm plants.

a)

true

b)

false

77.

Most Eudicots leaves have a flattened petiole.

a)

true

b)

false

78.

Which of the following is not connective tissue?

a)

Collagen

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Bone

d)

Cartilage

e)

Skin

79.

_____detect and integrates information about changes and controls responses to those changes

a)

nervous tissue

b)

Muscle tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue

d)

Connective tissue

e)

Bone tissue

80.

The outer most skin layer is the ________.

a)

Dermis

b)

Cuticle

c)

Epidermis

d)

Pericardium

e)

Hypodermis

81.

Protein digestion begins in the _______

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestines

d)

Colon

e)

Esophagus

82.

An organ is defined as

a)

one or more cell types that perform specific functions

b)

a cell that is unique is its function.

c)

various cells that perform different functions.

d)

two or more tissues organized and capable of carrying out a specific task.

e)

none

83.

A heart attack can best be described as

a)

a sudden, harmful contraction of the heart muscles

b)

an invasion of heart tissue by pathogens such as bacteria

c)

a death of cells in the heart brought about by blockage of a coronary artery

d)

a failure of the nervous system to bring about heart contractions

e)

a rapid, harmful expansion of blood volume supplied by the heart

84.

_______have ducts that deliver their secretions onto an internal or external surface.

a)

endocrine glands

b)

exocrine glands

c)

adipose tissue

d)

lungs

85.

_____ is mostly plasma.

a)

Irregular connective tissue

b)

Blood

c)

Cartilage

d)

bone

86.

Blood that enters the right atrium of a human heart:

a)

contains a large amount of oxygen

b)

a small amount of oxygen

c)

comes from the lungs

d)

is under high pressure

e)

both a (contains a large amount of oxygen) and c (comes from the lungs)

87.

Deoxygenated blood returning from all parts of the body enters the heart through the

a)

superior and inferior vena cava

b)

aorta

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

veins

e)

a(superior and inferior vena cava) and d (veins)

88.

Vessels that carry blood away from the heart

a)

artery

b)

vein

c)

capillary

d)

aorta

e)

both a (artery) and d (aorta)

89.

The pulmonary arteries branches into the

a)

body capillaries

b)

heart capillaries

c)

veins

d)

arterioles then lung capillaries

e)

none

90.

Blood pressure is highest in _____.

a)

veins

b)

arteries

c)

venules

d)

capillaries

91.

Which of the following functions in blood clotting?

a)

plasma

b)

serum

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

e)

red blood cells

92.

Which of the following helps to protect the body from disease?

a)

plasma

b)

serum

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

e)

red blood cells

93.

Which of the following functions in oxygen transport?

a)

plasma

b)

serum

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

e)

red blood cells

94.

Small mass of tissue located at the entrance of the right atrium that initiates the heart beat

a)

atrioventricular node

b)

right atrioventricular valve

c)

aortic valve

d)

sinoatrial node

95.

A ____________ is a blood clot that breaks loose and travels in the blood.

a)

thrombus

b)

platelet

c)

embolus

d)

none

96.

Which of the following are stage of food processing that involves the chemical and physical break down of food into molecules small enough for the body to absorb?

a)

ingestion

b)

digestion

c)

absorption

d)

elimination

97.

Signaling molecule that increases appetite that is secreted by the brain and lining of the empty stomach

a)

Testosterone

b)

Leutinizing hormone

c)

ghrelin

d)

leptin

98.

The ____ valve guards the opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

a)

tricuspid

b)

bicuspid

c)

semilunar

d)

atrial

e)

mitral

99.

Both smooth muscle fibers and cardiac muscle fibers

a)

have striations.

b)

are under involuntary control.

c)

are multinucleate

d)

have a comparable resistance to fatigue.

e)

have a comparable intermediate speed of contraction.

100.

The semilunar valves prevent blood from moving:

a)

from the atria back into the veins.

b)

from the ventricles back into the atria.

c)

from the arteries back into the ventricles.

d)

moving backwards in the capillaries.

e)

moving backward in the arteries.

101.

Digestion of starches begins in the:

a)

mouth.

b)

stomach

c)

duodenum

d)

jejunum.

e)

. large intestine

102.

A group of associated tissues is known as a(n):

a)

cell

b)

organ

c)

organ system

d)

organism

e)

tumor

103.

Bile is produced in the ____ and stored in the ____

a)

. pancreas; liver.

b)

gallbladder; duodenum.

c)

liver; gallbladder

d)

liver; liver

e)

gallbladder; gallbladder

104.

In the accompanying figure, an inadequate supply of which cell may be responsible for anemia?

a)

cell type A only

b)

cell type B only

c)

cell type C only

d)

cell type D only

e)

both cell type A and cell type C

105.

The characteristic that enables efficient gas exchange in capillaries is

a)

the very short total length of the capillaries

b)

their proximity to the heart.

c)

thick walls of connective and muscle tissue.

d)

thin walls that are only one epithelial cell layer wide.

e)

the long total length of the capillaries.

106.

___are teeth adapted primarily for piercing prey and tearing food

a)

bicuspids

b)

canines

c)

incisors

d)

molars

e)

premolars

107.

Coordinating body functions via chemical signals is accomplished by

a)

the respiratory system.

b)

the endocrine system.

c)

the immune and lymphatic systems

d)

the integumentary system

e)

the excretory system

108.

In a typical nerve cell, the nucleus is found in the

a)

cell body.

b)

synaptic terminals.

c)

axonal region.

d)

dendritic region.

e)

synapse.

109.

Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because

a)

only those animals use those nutrients

b)

the nutrients are subunits of important polymers.

c)

these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients

d)

the nutrients are necessary coenzymes.

e)

only certain foods contain them

110.

Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body, a process known as

a)

ingestion

b)

digestion

c)

hydrolysis

d)

absorption

e)

elimination

111.

In the digestive system, peristalsis is

a)

a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine.

b)

voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation.

c)

the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel

d)

a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration.

e)

smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus.

112.

Salivary amylase digests

a)

proteins

b)

starches

c)

monosaccharides

d)

glucose

e)

maltose

113.

Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The agents that help emulsify fats are produced in

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

8

e)

9

114.

Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above. The highest rate of nutrient absorption occurs at location(s)

a)

3

b)

4

c)

1,4

d)

3,4

e)

1,3,4

115.

The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the

a)

large intestines

b)

stomach

c)

pharynx

d)

rectum

e)

epiglottis

116.

Blood that enters the right atrium of a human heart:

a)

contains a large amount of oxygen

b)

a small amount of oxygen

c)

comes from the lungs

d)

is under high pressure

e)

both a (contains a large amount of oxygen) and c (comes from the lungs)

117.

Which of the following sequences correctly traces the passage of food through the human digestive tract?

a)

Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

b)

Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, pharynx

c)

Esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

d)

Pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

e)

Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

118.

The gaseous component of internal, external, and cellular respiration is the transport and use of :

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

sodium

d)

oxygen

119.

Cleansing inhaled air involves

a)

hairs

b)

cilia

c)

mucus

d)

all

120.

Which of these is incorrect concerning inspiration?

a)

Rib cage moves up and out

b)

Diaphragm contracts and moves down

c)

Pressure in the lungs decreases, and air comes rushing in

d)

The lungs expand because air comes rushing in

121.

Lungs are paired, cone-shaped organs

a)

enclosed by the pleurae

b)

composed of alveoli

c)

prevented from closing by surfactant

d)

all

122.

In tracing the path of air in humans, you would list the trachea

a)

directly after the nose

b)

directly before the bronchi

c)

before the pharynx

d)

directly before the lungs

e)

both a (directly after the nose) and c are correct (before the pharynx)

123.

Which of these is anatomically incorrect?

a)

The nose has two nasal cavities

b)

The pharynx connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx

c)

The larynx contains the vocal cords

d)

The trachea enters the lungs

e)

The lungs contain many alveoli

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