WorksheetsCLINICAL FINAL REVIEW
Total questions: 119
Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Individuals outside of health-care facilities are increasingly at risk for becoming colonized with which resistant microorganism?
a)
MRSA-methicillin/oxacillin-resistant S. aureus
b)
VRE-vancomycin-resistant enterococci
c)
ESBLs-extended-spectrum becta-lactamases
d)
PRSP-penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae
2.
The period of time from exposure until the first symptoms of disease appear is known as which pathogenic stage?
a)
Prodromal stage
b)
Invasion Period
c)
Incubation period
d)
Convalescent period
3.
Which type of humoral immunity occurs when immunity is transferred from the mother to her unborn fetus?
a)
Active immunity
b)
Passive immunity
c)
Natural passive immunity
d)
Artificial active immunity
4.
The microorganism requires a means of exit from the host in order to continue the cycle of infection. Which of the following is not a means of exit?
a)
Coughing up blood
b)
Vaginal Secretions
c)
Defacation of feces
d)
Inhalation
5.
What is the mission of the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
a)
To ensure workplace safety and a healthy environment in the workplace
b)
To regulate a written safety protocol plan for physicians' offices
c)
To regulate privacy issues in patient information disclosure
d)
To regulate needlesticks through production of safety devices
6.
What guideline should be followed when working with blood or blood products?
a)
Employees should use appropriate PPE
b)
Employees should verify the patient does not have a contagious disease
c)
Employees are not qualified to work with blood or blood products
d)
Employees should use gloves only when the patient has an infectious disease
7.
According to OSHA regulations, under which of the following circumstances could a medical assistant recap a needle?
a)
The medical assistant should never recap a needle.
b)
When an antiseptic cleaner is used
c)
When the patient is disease free
d)
When the patient does not have a contagious disease
8.
OSHA guidelines prohibit medical assistants from which of the following activities in an exam room where potentially infectious materials are present?
a)
Chewing gum, Handling contact lenses
b)
Rubbing eyes
c)
Applying cosmetics
d)
All of these are correct
9.
OSHA requires storing regulations for biohazardous materials in the office. While handling specimens, which of the following routes of exposure can spread infection through absorption in a crack in the skin?
a)
Inhalation
b)
Transcutaneous
c)
Urethral
d)
IV infusion
10.
Hand washing is the first step in the prevention of infectious transmission of microorganisms in the exam room. Which of the following requires hand washing with soap and water?
a)
Before leaving for the day
b)
Before and after using restroom and application of gloves
c)
Before and after contact with each patient
d)
All of these nigga duh
11.
In the event of an accident involving broken glass, which of the following procedures for clean up would be appropriate?
a)
Pick up the glass with gloved hands and place in a sharps container.
b)
Wear utility gloves, use a dustpan, and brush up shattered glass.
c)
Scrape with wet paper towel
d)
Wait for housekeeping
12.
The sphygmomanometer is used for which of the following purposes?
a)
To obtain blood pressure
b)
To examine interior of the eye
c)
To elicit a blood pressure
d)
to listen to body sounds
13.
A clean exam room boosts the patient's confidence and supports the impression that the exam room is properly prepared. Which of the following tasks would be performed by the medical assistant in putting the room in order?
a)
Returning supplies and equipment to the proper storage site
b)
Pushing the exam step in on the table
c)
Placing the stool in the proper position
d)
Allllllllll of these (nuts)
14.
Which of the following is a primary symptom of physical abuse?
a)
Patient has bruises shaped in unusual patterns
b)
Patient avoids direct eye contact
c)
Patient has difficulty speaking
d)
Patient lacks cognition
15.
You are a medical assistant working at a busy office practice. You've been assigned to interview and obtain a history for a 75-year-old female who is hard of hearing. You will be required to chart the information you collect. When caring for a patient with a hearing impairment, which guideline should the medical assistant observe with regard to the Patient's Bill of Rights?
a)
The patient should know the immediate and long-term costs of treatment choices.
b)
The patient should know whether treatment is experimental.
c)
The patient should receive information necessary to give informed consent prior to the start of any procedure or treatment.
d)
The patient should receive every consideration of his or her privacy.
16.
You are a medical assistant working at a busy office practice. You've been assigned to interview and obtain a history for a 75-year-old female who is hard of hearing. You will be required to chart the information you collect. How can the medical assistant document exactly what the patient said?
a)
The MA can begin the sentence with the words, "the patient states."
b)
The MA can have the patient sign the documentation.
c)
The MA can end the documentation with the words, "per patients."
d)
The MA can place quotation marks around the patient's words.
17.
Why is it important to observe a child's nonverbal behavior in an interview?
a)
The child may not be able to speak at all.
b)
The child may not be able to speak English.
c)
The caregiver might not be able to speak english
d)
The child may be a victim of abuse or neglect.
18.
An 8-year-old child is accompanied by his mother on a routine office visit for immunizations. The child appears very thin, pale, and doesn't make eye contact with you. His mother explains he is very shy and has been sick lately but your records do not indicate a sick child visit.What should you do if during your interview with the child, you develop a suspicion of physical and psychological abuse?
a)
Ask the mother if she abuses the child.
b)
Ask the mother if anyone else abuses the child.
c)
Ask the child if his mother abuses him.
d)
Report your suspicions to the physician.
19.
Tachypnea would be characterized by which of the following respiratory rates in the adult patient?
a)
30 respirations per minute
b)
10 respiration per minute
c)
15 respirations per minute
d)
20 resperations per minute
20.
Which of the following blood pressures would be considered hypertensive for the adult patient?
a)
90/60 mm Hg
b)
130/82 mm Hg
c)
120/70 mm Hg
d)
95/70 mm Hg
21.
When obtaining respirations on a patient, the medical assistant observes difficult and painful breathing. Which of the following terms should be used to document the observation?
a)
Dyspnea
b)
Tachypnea
c)
Hyperpnea
d)
Hypopnea
22.
After plotting the weight and length on the growth chart, the medical assistant may follow the line upward to the right edge to obtain which of the following?
a)
Growth percentiles
b)
Body mass index
c)
Risks of childhood obesity
d)
Physician recommendations
23.
When obtaining a blood pressure, the medical assistant must be aware of factors that would affect the reading. Which of the following would NOT require a waiting period of relaxation for the patient before measuring blood pressure?
a)
The patient is exercising in physical therapy.
b)
The patient just climbed two flights of stairs to reach the office.
c)
The patient is obese.
d)
The patient has been chatting with the staff since arriving.
24.
A 68-year-old female has been a patient for 2 years at the clinic where you work as a medical assistant. She suffers from both hypertension and obesity and is taking a diuretic medication (HCTZ, or hydrochlorothiazide) daily. The medical assistant should balance the patient scale prior to weighing the patient:
a)
to ensure the patient weighs less than the last visit.
b)
because each patient that is weighed will cause the balance to be high.
c)
because proper functioning scales ensure accurate results.
d)
because scales are digital and must be balanced to 0.
25.
Which position is most appropriate for a patient with severe hypotension?
a)
Dorsal recumbent
b)
Knee-chest
c)
Trendelenburg's
d)
Lithotomy
26.
Which position is most appropriate for a patient who has difficulty breathing?
a)
Semi-Fowler's
b)
Knee-chest
c)
Supine
d)
Sims
27.
What is the first step to avoid prejudice when dealing with individuals?
a)
Avoid judging people by their appearance or lifestyle
b)
Do not react negatively toward others
c)
Treat all people with equal respect
d)
Honestly examine and evaluate your own personal prejudices
28.
During the inspection phase of the patient exam, what does the ‘gait' refer to?
a)
How the patient walks
b)
The patient's general well being
c)
The patient's nourishment level
d)
The patient's distress level
29.
What information can the physician obtain from listening to the patient's breath pattern?
a)
Lung condition
b)
Pathologic condition, such as overuse of voice box
c)
Pathologic condition, such as otitis media
d)
The patient's general well being
30.
The role of the medical assistant DURING the general physical exam is to:
a)
diagnose the patient's disease.
b)
prepare the exam room.
c)
assist the physician during the exam.
d)
disinfect the room after use.
31.
The __________position is most appropriate for a patient undergoing a breast exam.
a)
Dorsal recumbent
b)
Knee-chest
c)
Lithotomy
d)
Supine
32.
Which of the following is the medical assistant's responsibility while assisting the gynecologist with a Pap smear?
a)
Explaining to the patient exactly what the physician is doing
b)
Arranging the instrument tray and handing instruments to the physician
c)
Providing detailed instructions to the patient about the trimesters of pregnancy
d)
Inserting the cytobrush
33.
What is the purpose of assisting a pregnant patient onto the examination table?
a)
To ensure the patient doesn't lose balance and fall
b)
To ensure the patient does as instructed
c)
To ensure the patient doesn't leave prior to the exam
d)
To ensure the patient doesn't get on the wrong exam table
34.
The medical assistant's responsibility while assisting the obstetrician with an abdominal ultrasound is to:
a)
explain to the patient exactly what the physician sees.
b)
obtain vital signs, height, and weight for the physician.
c)
provide support to the patient during the exam.
d)
provide detailed prenatal care instructions to.
35.
The purpose of directing the patient to breathe deeply through the mouth while the physician performs a Pap smear is to:
a)
help the patient's abdominal muscles relax.
b)
gain patient cooperation and alleviate apprehension.
c)
facilitate the bimanual examination.
d)
facilitate better viewing of the cervix.
36.
Which procedure is commonly performed in a gynecologic office?
a)
Urinalysis
b)
Mammograms
c)
Psychological evaluations
d)
Depression screening
37.
Which procedure is most commonly performed in a pediatrician's office?
a)
Completing growth charts
b)
Performing pap smears
c)
Performing hemoccult cards
d)
Performing depression screening
38.
Which of the following are indicators of a cardiovascular defect in a newborn infant?
a)
Pale skin and low pulse
b)
Bright red skin and excessive crying
c)
Lethargy and excessive crying
d)
Blue lips and fingernails
39.
What is the specialty that provides care to children and adolescents?
a)
Internal medicine
b)
Pediatrics
c)
Obstetrics
d)
Gynecology
40.
You are preparing routine vaccinations for a child in the office. When you enter the room, you notice the child is coughing and has a runny nose. You ask the mother how long the child has had these symptoms and she tells you that the child has had a cold for several days. You should:
a)
give the vaccinations and tell the mother to watch the child closely for several hours.
b)
give the vaccinations and make a note in the patient record that the child has a cold.
c)
don't give the vaccinations, as the child has a virus and vaccines are not recommended.
d)
ask the physician what to do.
41.
What can a medical assistant do if the child does not cooperate during a visual exam?
a)
Have the physician yell at the child.
b)
Enlist the help of the caregiver.
c)
Provide the child with the correct answers.
d)
Give up and wait until next year.
42.
Which of the following diseases or disorders is treated in a surgery office?
a)
Hysterectomy
b)
Hypovolemic shock
c)
Removal of an atypical mole
d)
Upper respiratory infections
43.
Which of the following diseases or disorders is treated in an endocrinology office?
a)
Type 2 diabetes
b)
Diplopia
c)
Upper respiratory infections
d)
Urinary tract infections
44.
Which of the following allergy skin tests is performed by drawing blood from a vein and sending the specimen to an outside lab for analysis?
a)
RAST test
b)
Percutaneous test
c)
Intradermal test
d)
Intracutaneous test
45.
A _________ is an examination performed in an endocrinology office.
a)
blood glucose exam
b)
distant vision acuity exam
c)
electrocardiogram
d)
fracture reduction
46.
Prior to allergy testing, the medical assistant should inform the patient to:
a)
stop taking aspirin three to ten days prior to testing.
b)
stop taking antihistamines three to ten days prior to testing.
c)
stop taking MOIA medication two to three days prior to testing.
d)
stop taking calcium channel blockers one to two days prior to testing.
47.
Which of the following diseases or disorders is treated in an ophthalmology office?
a)
Blepharitis
b)
Hypovolemic shock
c)
Urinary Tract Infections
d)
Upper Respiratory Infections
48.
The ophthalmoscope:
a)
tests the patient for glaucoma.
b)
evaluates the patient's distant vision.
c)
assists the physician with examining the exterior of the eye.
d)
assists the physician with examining the interior of the eye.
49.
The medical assistant would prepare the ophthalmoscope for use by:
a)
ensuring the batteries are charged.
b)
ensuring the Snellen eye chart is prepared for use.
c)
ensuring the Jaeger eye chart is prepared for use.
d)
ensuring the room is very well lit.
50.
_________ is the term used for a drooping of the upper eyelid.
a)
Glaucoma
b)
Corneal abrasion
c)
Ptosis
d)
Cataract
51.
During testing of a patient's visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/25 line with both eyes. The visual acuity should be recorded as:
a)
O.D. 19/25
b)
O.D. 20/25
c)
O.S. 20/25
d)
O.U. 20/25
52.
Which of the following is true concerning the medical assistant's tasks during minor office surgery?
a)
The medical assistant functions as an unsterile assistant.
b)
The medical assistant functions as a sterile assistant.
c)
The medical assistant may function as an unsterile or sterile assistant depending on procedure and physician preference.
d)
The medical assistant is not trained to assist in minor office surgery.
53.
Which of the following surgical procedures is performed to drain an abscess?
a)
I & D
b)
Wound debridement
c)
Cryosurgery
d)
Electrocauterization
54.
Which of the following surgical procedures utilizes electric current to heat a probe, loop, or needle to destroy target tissues, remove warts, and stop bleeding?
a)
Cryosurgery
b)
Electrocauterization
c)
Needle biopsy
d)
I & D
55.
Which of the following would NOT render a sterile field contaminated?
a)
If the medical assistant turns her back on the field
b)
If someone reaches over the sterile field
c)
If the sterile field is left uncovered and unattended
d)
If a sterile instrument is added onto the field
56.
When preparing the surgical tray, the medical assistant should observe the date of sterilization. The pack would be considered contaminated at which of the following ages?
a)
One week
b)
two weeks
c)
four weeks
d)
eight weeks
57.
The medical assistant must be knowledgeable in setup and maintenance of sterile fields. Which of the following would render a sterile field contaminated?
a)
The medical assistant turns her back on the field. And the field becomes wet
b)
Someone reaches over the sterile field.
c)
The sterile field is left uncovered and unattended.
d)
All of these
58.
When cleaning the surgical site, the medical assistant should perform which of the following?
a)
Clean the area in a circular motion from the center working outward.
b)
Continue the circular motion cleaning for at least 10 minutes.
c)
Allow more cleaning time for clean wounds.
d)
Clean the site first with alcohol.
59.
Which of the following tasks would NOT be performed by the medical assistant during the postoperative period?
a)
Cleaning the wound with soap and water
b)
Giving postoperative instructions
c)
Cleaning the exam room and equipment
d)
Dressing the wound
60.
The medical assistant may apply a dressing to the surgical site for which of the following reasons?
a)
To protect the wound from further injury and prevent infection
b)
To reduce bleeding
c)
To absorb drainage
d)
For all of the above-stated reasons
61.
Malaria, amebic dysentery, and trichomoniasis are caused by which of the following?
a)
Protozoans
b)
Parasitic worms
c)
Viruses
d)
fungi
62.
A properly collected sputum sample should contain which of the following?
a)
Mucus
b)
Urine
c)
Saliva
d)
Pus
63.
A procedure that involves culturing a specimen and then testing the isolated bacterium's susceptibility to certain antibiotics is a (an):
a)
antimicrobial.
b)
qualitative analysis.
c)
quantitative analysis.
d)
culture and sensitivity.
64.
What is the most common device used for obtaining cultures?
a)
Sterile swab
b)
Sterile collection cup
c)
Sterile forceps
d)
Sterile guaze
65.
Which type of specimen is collected by having the patient expectorate mucus?
a)
Throat culture
b)
Urine
c)
Sputum
d)
Stool
66.
Which of the following is NOT a common systemic complaint associated with AIDS?
a)
Weight Gain
b)
Chills
c)
Night Sweats
d)
Fatigue
67.
How should you advise a patient who must submit to an invasive test, such as a catheterization?
a)
Tell the patient he/she will be in a great deal of pain.
b)
Tell the patient not to eat or drink for 24 hours.
c)
Explain the procedure completely, using simple language.
d)
Have the physician explain the procedure.
68.
What type of container is the best for urine specimen collection?
a)
A plastic, zip-lock bag
b)
Wide-mouthed, throw-away, and spouted
c)
Disposable water bottle
d)
Glass container
69.
What is the primary goal in collecting, storing, and preserving urine specimens?
a)
Preserving the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of the specimen
b)
Collecting the most concentrated sample of urine from the patient
c)
Causing the least discomfort and inconvenience to the patient
d)
Collecting the largest possible volume of urine from the patient
70.
What should the patient be advised to do with the liquid or powdered preservative in a urine specimen collection container?
a)
Leave the preservative in the container.
b)
Throw away the preservative before urinating into the container.
c)
Use the preservative to clean the external genitalia.
d)
Spill the preservative on himself or herself.
71.
Why do physicians sometimes want a first morning urine specimen?
a)
The first morning sample contains the greatest concentration of illegal drugs.
b)
The first morning sample is a good way to test for gallstones.
c)
The first morning sample contains higher concentrations of substances.
d)
The first morning sample has the greatest volume.
72.
Why do physicians sometimes want to collect a clean-catch urine specimen?
a)
A clean-catch specimen has the greatest concentration of pathogens.
b)
A clean-catch specimen can be tested for different pathogens.
c)
A clean-catch specimen has the highest volume of urine.
d)
A clean-catch specimen is the best way to test for pregnancy.
73.
How long does it take for the chemical and microscopic properties of urine to change at room temperature?
a)
30 minutes
b)
2 hours
c)
1 hour
d)
3 hours
74.
How is chemical testing of urine specimens usually done?
a)
Reagent strips
b)
Electron microscopy
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Photometry
75.
__________ are elements that can be counted and categorized in a microscopic analysis of a urine specimen.
a)
Crystals
b)
Casts
c)
Cells
d)
All of these
76.
Leaving the tourniquet on the arm for an extended period of time will cause:
a)
hemoconcentration
b)
bruising
c)
nothing, as long as it is not tight.
d)
a hematoma.
77.
Capillary puncture is used:
a)
when you must collect the specimen quickly.
b)
when you need only a very small amount of blood.
c)
with patients over the age of 65
d)
when you don't think you'll be able to find a vein.
78.
When performing a venipuncture, the needle should be inserted:
a)
at a 15 degree angle, bevel down, perpendicular to the vein.
b)
at a 90 degree angle, bevel up, parallel to the vein.
c)
at a 45 degree angle, bevel up, parallel to the vein.
d)
at a 15 degree angle, bevel up, parallel to the vein.
79.
The correct position of the tourniquet when using an evacuated tube system is:
a)
one- to- two inches above the venipuncture site.
b)
midway between the elbow and the shoulder.
c)
just below the shoulder joint.
d)
one inch above the elbow.
80.
The proper way to clean the venipuncture site is to:
a)
cleanse in a circular motion with an antiseptic solution or wipe.
b)
use a cotton ball saturated with alcohol.
c)
wipe the area with a sterile gauze.
d)
cleanse with a sterile pad moistened with warm water.
81.
What type of venipuncture equipment is most effective when drawing blood from a patient with thin or fragile veins?
a)
Butterfly
b)
Butterfly or syringe and needle
c)
Syringe needle
d)
Lancet
82.
You must perform a venipuncture on an adolescent patient. She asks if it will hurt. Your best response is:
a)
"Yes, I am sorry, but it will really hurt."
b)
"You may feel slight pain with the needlestick, but it will be over quickly."
c)
"It doesn't matter if it hurts or not, I have to draw your blood."
d)
"Most people don't notice anything."
83.
A patient tells you that she is not going to let you or anybody else draw her blood because she got a large bruise the last time someone did. You should:
a)
promise her that you will not cause a bruise.
b)
note the patient's refusal in the medical record.
c)
tell her she cannot leave the office until she lets you draw her blood.
d)
ask a physician to come in to speak with her.
84.
Your patient appears anxious and asks what tests you are doing and why. Your best response is:
a)
"The physician will answer all of your questions as soon as we are done."
b)
"Just a bunch of tests, nothing really specific."
c)
"The physician wants to know what is causing your anemia."
d)
"I'm not authorized to discuss it, but you can ask a nurse."
85.
When a capillary tube is centrifuged for a hematocrit reading, the blood will separate into three layers. From the bottom, these layers are:
a)
red blood cells, white blood cells, serum.
b)
white blood cells, buffy coat, plasma.
c)
red blood cells, buffy coat, plasma.
d)
red blood cells, buffy coat, serum.
86.
What is the most common placement for limb electrodes?
a)
Upper arms and calves
b)
Fingers and toes
c)
Feet and hands
d)
Knees and elbows
87.
What is the usual patient monitoring period for a Holter monitor?
a)
3 hrs
b)
6 hrs
c)
12 hrs
d)
24 hrs
88.
Which of the following is NOT a good location for a sensor for pulse oximetry?
a)
Fingertip
b)
Toe
c)
Wrist
d)
Nose
89.
Before performing the ECG, what information should you share with your patient?
a)
The patient may feel a slight tingling sensation.
b)
The patient will experience some pain during this procedure.
c)
The ECG will indicate the cause of her shortness of breath.
d)
The patient will not experience any pain and the machine will not shock her.
90.
Which of the following is a small device worn around a patient's waist, is attached to electrodes, and is designed to record the heart's electrical activity during daily activities?
a)
A 12 lead electrocardiogram
b)
A Holter monitor
c)
A 3-channel ECG
d)
An echocardiogram
91.
A drug is categorized by:
a)
the action of the drug on the body.
b)
the way a drug is metabolized by the body.
c)
the way a drug is excreted from the body.
d)
the way it will be packaged and sold
92.
A drug in the anticoagulant category would:
a)
prevent blood clots.
b)
decrease the patient's clotting time.
c)
prevent infections.
d)
lower the patient's blood pressure.
93.
A patient suffering with seasonal allergies might be given a prescription for a/an:
a)
anti-inflammatory.
b)
antibiotic
c)
vasodilator.
d)
antihistamine.
94.
A diuretic medication would:
a)
increase urine output
b)
decrease urine output
c)
lower blood lipids
d)
treat a bladder infection
95.
Physicians must have a ______________ to apply to the DEA for privileges to administer, dispense, and prescribe controlled substances.
a)
federal license
b)
DEA registration
c)
state license
d)
state license and DEA registration
96.
A patient is given a prescription for antibiotics to treat a urinary tract infection. She calls the office two days later to report that she is nauseated after taking the medication and wants to stop taking the pills. Your best response is to:
a)
ask if she is taking the medication with food or on an empty stomach.
b)
tell her not to worry about it; that happens all the time.
c)
tell her that she can change to a new antibiotic that won't cause the nausea.
d)
tell her that you will deliver her message to the physician immediately.
97.
During the assessment interview, the patient reveals a prescription bottle filled with various medications. Upon sorting them, you find that some are prescription medications and others are over-the-counter pills. You ask the patient to identify the over-the-counter pills. She says they are "herbs that my friend recommended." You should remind the patient:
a)
that mixing prescription medications and OTC medications may not be safe and should be discussed with the physician, and that it is important to let the physician know everything that she is taking.
b)
that it is important to let the physician know everything that she is taking.
c)
that mixing prescription medications and OTC medications may not be safe and should be discussed with the physician.
d)
that she should take prescription medications at a different time of day than OTC medications.
98.
Prior to giving a medication, it is important for you to:
a)
ask the patient if he has any medication allergies.
b)
take the patient's blood pressure.
c)
ask the patient his age.
d)
weigh the patient.
99.
The maximum amount of medication that can be safely administered by the subcutaneous route is:
a)
1 ml
b)
0.75 ml
c)
0.5 ml
d)
2 ml
100.
The best method to give an injection to a child is to:
a)
distract the child while giving the injection.
b)
be quick and do not let the child see the syringe prior to the injection.
c)
have another medical assistant hold him down and be quick and do not let him see the syringe prior to injection.
d)
distract the child while giving the injection and be quick and do not let the child see the syringe prior to the injection.
101.
The human body requires nutrients from food to:
a)
build, repair, and maintain body tissues.
b)
aid in elimination processes.
c)
ensure reproductive capabilities.
d)
increase mental capacity.
102.
What is the most important function of proteins?
a)
Producing amino acids
b)
Building and repairing cells and tissue
c)
maintaining body heat
d)
Maintaining normal water balance
103.
For which condition might a physician prescribe a high-fiber diet?
a)
hypertension
b)
Diverticulitis
c)
high cholesteral
d)
liver diesease
104.
How can you help patients who have been placed on modified diets?
a)
Teach them how to read food labels.
b)
Put them in contact with a supplement salesman.
c)
Yell at them for letting their health decline.
d)
Go food shopping with them.
105.
Which of the following should be reduced in the diet of a patient with hypertension?
a)
Sodium
b)
Iron
c)
Potassium
d)
Calcium
106.
As a medical assistant, what should you do before you advise a patient on a dietary regimen?
a)
Make sure you understand the regimen and how to implement it.
b)
Establish a good rapport with the patient.
c)
Suggest alternative dietary regimens.
d)
Do research about various dietary regimens.
107.
Which of the following is a characteristic of saturated fat?
a)
Can raise blood cholesterol levels
b)
Solid at room temperature
c)
Comes from animal sources
d)
All of these are correct
108.
Which of the following is used for scraping tissue?
a)
Scalpel
b)
Curette
c)
hemostat
d)
scissors
109.
Instruments that are most often used to grasp or hold objects are ____.
a)
scalpels
b)
Curettes
c)
Forceps
d)
probes
110.
The instruments in the figure are
a)
scissors
b)
hemostats
c)
dialators
d)
forceps
111.
What are the instruments pictured here?
a)
Scapels
b)
curettes
c)
dialators
d)
probes
112.
The instruments pictured here are ____.
a)
dialators
b)
scapels
c)
curettes
d)
forceps
113.
What are the instruments pictured here?
a)
dialators
b)
forceps
c)
refractors
d)
probes
114.
What is the surgical instrument pictured here?
a)
hemostats
b)
forcep
c)
dialator
d)
refractor
115.
These surgical instruments are ____.
a)
refractors
b)
dialators
c)
forceps
d)
probes
116.
What are these surgical instruments?
a)
Refractors
b)
probes
c)
dialators
d)
forceps
117.
The most common sites for venipuncture are the ____.
a)
median cubital and cephalic veins
b)
great saphenous and superior vena cava veins
c)
popliteal and posterior tibial veins
d)
radial and ulnar veins
118.
The normal fasting blood glucose level is ____.
a)
74 to 120 mg/dL
b)
136 to 145 mEq/L
c)
21 to 28 mEq/L
d)
200 to 400 mg/dL
119.
A medical assistant can help break the cycle of infection in the office by ____.
a)
posting a sign that no patients with colds are allowed
b)
maintaining strict housekeeping standards
c)
administering antibiotics to all patients
d)
placing a sharps container in the reception area
100 %
