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Pharm II Exam 1

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The 2 divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the somatic and the (a)  

2.

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic division of the ANS?

a)

Norepi

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Epinepherine

3.

Monoaminoxidase destroys which neurotransmitter?

a)

Norepi

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Epinepherine

4.

Which are s/s of parasympathetic activation? SATA

a)

Inhibit salivation

b)

Pupil constriction

c)

Increased salivation

d)

Bronchodilation

e)

Decreased glucose secretion

5.

What type of receptors are present in the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Anticholinergic

b)

Cholinergic

c)

Adrenergic

6.

Excess acetylcholine will lead to activation of which nervous system?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Central

7.

Which symptoms occur during a cholinergic crisis? SATA

a)

Emesis

b)

Defecation & Urination

c)

Salivation

d)

Epistaxis

e)

Lacrimation

8.

Sympathomimetic is interchangeable with what terms? SATA

a)

Adrenergic agonist

b)

Adrenergic antagonist

c)

Adrenergic receptor activator

d)

Adrenergic receptor blocker

9.

Which adrenergic receptor increases heart rate and contractility?

a)

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

b)

Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors

c)

Beta 1 adrenergic receptors

d)

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

e)

Beta 3 adrenergic receptors

10.

Which adrenergic receptor causes vasoconstriction and indirectly affects heart rate?

a)

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

b)

Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors

c)

Beta 1 adrenergic receptors

d)

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

e)

Beta 3 adrenergic receptors

11.

Which drug is an atropine antidote?

a)

Pheochromocytoma

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Phentolamine

d)

Parasympathomimetic

12.

Which drugs increase acetylcholine levels by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase? SATA

a)

Donepezil

b)

Rivastigmine

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Galantamine

13.

Which anticholinergic is used to treat Parkinson's?

a)

Dicyclomine

b)

Benztropine

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Scopolamine

14.

Which anticholinergic is used to treat IBS?

a)

Dicyclomine

b)

Benztropine

c)

Ipratropium

d)

Scopolamine

15.

Which drug is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist that treats HTN and anxiety?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Clonidine

16.

Which drug is a beta 3 adrenergic agonist that treats overactive bladder?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Dobutamine

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Clonidine

17.

Which drugs are alpha 1 adrenergic antagonists that treat HTN and BPH? SATA

a)

Terazosin

b)

Doxazosin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Propanolol

18.

Which drugs is a beta 1 adrenergic antagonist that can't be given to asthma and COPD patients?

a)

Terazosin

b)

Doxazosin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Propanolol

19.

What is an indication for adrenergics epinepherine, norepinepherine, and dopamine?

a)

Pheochromocytoma

b)

Hypertension

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Anxiety

20.

What class of drugs activates the sympathetic nervous system? SATA

a)

Adrenergics

b)

Cholinergics

c)

Adrenergic receptor agonists

d)

Sympathomimetics

21.

What physiologic reaction would you expect from a sympathomimetic?

a)

Fight or flight

b)

Rest and digest

c)

Death

22.

What 2 conditions does phentolamine treat?

a)

Too much adrenergic

b)

Pheochromocytoma

c)

Too much cholinergic

d)

Too much acetylcholine

23.

True or False: activation of beta 1 adrenergic receptors directly affects blood pressure

a)

True

b)

False

24.

How does activation of alpha 2 adrenergic receptors affect blood pressure?

a)

Increase- vasoconstriction

b)

Decrease- vasodilation

25.

How does blocking alpha 1 adrenergic receptors affect blood pressure?

a)

Increase- vasoconstriction

b)

Decrease- vasodilation

26.

Unless there is an emergency, what is the preferred route of epinepherine administration?

a)

Rectal

b)

Peripheral IV

c)

NG tube

d)

Central line

27.

The pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease is an insufficient level of _______

a)

GABA

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Seratonin

28.

Which are causes of muscle spasms? SATA

a)

Medication related

b)

Disease related

c)

Condition related

d)

Emotion related

29.

What is the second line treatment for muscle spasms?

a)

Nonpharmacological treatment

b)

Opioid analgesics

c)

Nonopioid analgesics

d)

Muscle relaxants

30.

Which drug is first line for Parkinson's?

a)

Benztropine

b)

Apomorphine

c)

Amantadine

d)

Levodope-carbidopa

31.

How does Amantadine work?

a)

Activate dopamine receptor cells

b)

Release stored dopamine from other parts of the body

c)

Provides ingredients for dopamine

d)

Block the body from getting rid of dopamine

32.

Which Parkinson's medication can cause constipation and urinary retention?

a)

Levodopa-carbidopa

b)

Benztropine

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Amantadine

33.

What Alzheimer's medication works by lowering the glutamate level in the body?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Entacapone

c)

Memantine

d)

Interferon Beta

34.

Which multiple sclerosis medication is taken cyclically?

a)

Interferon Beta

b)

Glatiramer

c)

Fingolimod

d)

Entacapone

35.

Which muscle spasm medication has a black box warning of hepatotoxicity?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Midazolam

c)

Dantrolene

d)

Onabotulinum

36.

Which muscle spasm medication works by blocking the release of acetylcholine?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Midazolam

c)

Dantrolene

d)

Onabotulinum

37.

Which are onabotulinum indications? SATA

a)

Sweating

b)

Overactive bladder

c)

Lazy eye

d)

Chronic migraines

38.

Which medication is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Succinylcholine

39.

Which medication is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Succinylcholine

40.

Which medication is preferred for intubation and can cause hyperkalemia and fasciculations?

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Succinylcholine

41.

These are seizures that occur during pregnancy

a)

Generalized

b)

Absence

c)

Tonic clonic

d)

Eclampsia

42.

What are important teaching points with seizures? SATA

a)

Anti-seizure medications are not safe during pregnancy

b)

Causes are smoking, alcohol, and viruses

c)

Anti-seizure medications must not be stopped abruptly

d)

Anti-seizure medications reduce effectiveness of oral contraceptives

43.

What is the term for solutions damaging to the local tissue?

(a)  

44.

This is the creation of red blood cells

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Leukopoiesis

c)

Thrombopoiesis

d)

Erythropoiesis

45.

What is the cause of pernicious anemia?

a)

B12 deficiency

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Intrinsic factor deficiency

d)

Erythropoietin deficiency

46.

What should NOT be taken at the same time as ferrous sulfate? SATA

a)

Fluids

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Dairy

d)

Food

47.

What is the reversal agent for Benzodiazepines?

(a)  

48.

What drug class is first line for neo-natal seizures?

a)

Succinimide

b)

Barbiturates

c)

Hydantoins

d)

Valproic acid

49.

What drug class has a black box warning of hypotension and dysrhythmias?

a)

Succinimide

b)

Barbiturates

c)

Hydantoins

d)

Valproic acid

50.

What drug class cannot be used in children under 2?

a)

Succinimide

b)

Barbiturates

c)

Hydantoins

d)

Valproic acid

51.

What medication is used to prevent transplant rejection?

a)

Cyclophosphamide

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Doxorubicin

d)

Tamoxifen

52.

What medications work by inhibiting DNA replication? SATA

a)

Cyclophosphamide

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Doxorubicin

d)

Tamoxifen

53.

What drug is abused by athletes to increase oxygen levels?

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Epoetin alfa

c)

Oprelvekin

d)

Cyanocobalamin

54.

What anemia causes are indications for Epoetin alfa? SATA

a)

Cancer

b)

Kidney problem

c)

Trauma

d)

Sickle cell anemia

55.

What drug is given until the neutrophil count is 1500?

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Epoetin alfa

c)

Oprelvekin

d)

Cyanocobalamin

56.

What drug is given until the neutrophil count is 1500?

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Epoetin alfa

c)

Oprelvekin

d)

Cyanocobalamin

57.

What drug classes increase the effects of GABA? SATA

a)

Benzodiazepines

b)

Barbiturates

c)

Muscle relaxants

d)

Hydantoins

58.

A lactate greater than (a)   indicates shock

59.

What is the treatment for distributive shock?

a)

Fluids or blood

b)

Inotropic medication

c)

Volume or vasoconstriction

d)

Surgery

60.

Whole blood contains PRBCs, platelets, and (a)  

61.

Which crystalloid is hypertonic?

a)

3% saline

b)

LR

c)

NS

d)

0.45% saline

62.

What should be reassessed in a patient with acute anaphylaxis? SATA

a)

Mental status

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Lactate

63.

What are treatments used for a mild allergic reaction? SATA

a)

Oxygen

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Steroids

d)

Antihistamines

64.

Which medication activates alpha receptors only?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Isoproterenol

65.

Which medication activates beta receptors only?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Isoproterenol

66.

What dose of dopamine increases heart rate and contractility?

a)

Low dose

b)

Medium dose

c)

High dose

d)

None

67.

Which form of epinephrine is used during cardiac arrest?

a)

1:1,000

b)

1:10,000

c)

1:100,000

d)

1:10^9

68.

True or False: LR can be hung with PRBCs using the Y-connector tubing

a)

True

b)

False

69.

What are adverse effects of dopamine? (SATA)

a)

Dysrhythmias

b)

Extravasation

c)

Hemolytic reaction

d)

Tachycardia

70.

What medication would be given with multiple units of blood?

a)

Folic acid

b)

Calcium

c)

Ferrous sulfate

d)

Cyanocobalamin

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