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HB 22 - 23 Evolution Test Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA 
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
2.

A population of rabbits grows rapidly from one year to the next. Then one year, a disease strikes approximately one fourth of the adult rabbits. The disease remains with the population in the years that follow.

As explained by Darwin’s theory, which of these conditions allows the rabbit population to evolve by natural selection?

a)

The disease affects adult and juvenile rabbits equally.

b)

The disease reduces the ability of the rabbits to reproduce.

c)

Some rabbits are resistant to the disease, and they pass the resistance to their offspring.

d)

No rabbits are resistant to the disease, and all die when the disease strikes them.

3.

Grass plants in a population range in height from 6 cm to 25 cm. The short plants receive little sunlight, and the tall plants are eaten by grazing animals. Which statement best describes the effect of natural selection on the grasses?

a)

Because average height grass plants are favored, stabilizing natural selection is occurring.

b)

Because average height grass plants are favored, disruptive natural selection is occurring.

c)

Because tall grass plants are favored by the animals that eat grass, directional selection is occurring.

d)

Because short and tall grass plants are favored, normal natural selection is occurring.

4.

Small-scale genetic changes over generations of a population describes which term?

(a)  

5.

Significant physical and genetic changes over a long period of time (many generations) that results in a new species describes which term?

(a)  

6.

This is one of the mechanisms of evolution; it is a continuous process in which organisms with traits that make them better-adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than organisms without such adaptations.

(a)  

7.
Mutations are important because they bring about...
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to accumulate changes 
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
8.
According to the theory of natural selection, some individuals more likely than others to survive and reproduce because they:
a)
pass on to their offspring their newly acquired traits.
b)
are better adapted to their environment than others and will pass on those adaptations to future offspring.
c)
do not pass on newly acquired traits.
d)
produce fewer offspring than others in the same environment.
9.

A few blue birds from a population of birds (blue, white or red in color) are swept from their flock by a very random strong gust of wind. They arrive in a new location and make it their home. They reproduce and populate the area. Which general mechanism of evolution does this example fit?

(a)  

10.

Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...

a)

random chance

b)

natural selection

c)

non-random mating (sexual selection)

d)

artificial selection

11.

Which of the following is an example of genetic drift?

a)

A population of bald eagles in hunted over a short period of time. This results in a 40% reduction in alleles for a certain trait in the population.

b)

A mistake in DNA replication occurs in a zygote going through mitosis. This results in a new trait.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

12.

A deer from an established population in Sandusky wanders all the way to Avon and mates with a deer in the Avon population. Which mechanism of evolution does this example fit?

(a)  

13.

Bahamian female birds prefer mating with male birds that can perform a mating dance to the female's preference. Which mechanism of evolution does this example fit?

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Mutation

d)

Sexual Selection (Non-Random Mating)

14.
Which best describes the role of mutations in natural selection?
a)
Mutations help an organism to better survive in their environment
b)
An organism may acquire a helpful mutation by interacting with the environment
c)
A mutation may result in an adaptive trait that makes an organism more likely to survive and reproduce
d)
Organisms with certain traits are more likely to win competitions for mutations
15.
Common baboons live on the savanna in breeding groups called troops. While females tend to stay with the troop, younger or less dominant males may leave to join a neighboring troop.
Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by young males? 
a)
Gene flow occurs between the populations
b)
relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state
c)
Allele frequencies suddenly change
16.
 Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in... 
a)
aquatic populations
b)
small populations
c)
terrestrial populations
d)
older populations
17.
Which type of selection does this graph represent?
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
d)
Artificial selection
18.
Which type of selection does this graph represent?
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
d)
Artificial selection
19.
Which type of selection does this graph represent?
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
d)
Artificial selection
20.
Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
21.
Natural selection states that organisms are best suited for their environment if they ____________ and ____________.
a)
Survive and Reproduce
b)
Survive and Predate
c)
Survive and Parasitize
d)
Survive and Adapt
22.
There was once a large population of cheetah, but about 12,000 years ago most of the cheetahs were killed off because of human activity and only a few survived. What is this an example of?
a)
Bottleneck Effect
b)
Genetic Drift
c)
Founder Effect
d)
Natural Selection
23.
A virus killed most of the seals in the North Sea (e.g. dropped the population from    8000 to 800).  In an effort to help preserve the species, scientists caught 20 of the   remaining seals and used them to start a new population in the northwest Pacific   Ocean.  Which of the following statements would accurately describe the new   population?  
a)
The new seal population is genetically less diverse than the original population 
b)
The new seal population is genetically more diverse than the original population
c)
There is equal genetic variety compared  to the original population 
d)
None of the answers
24.

The similarities of the bones in the diagram provide evidence that---

a)

The organisms shown lived in the same natural envionrment

b)

The organisms shown may have evolved from a common ancestor

c)

The organisms shown have the same genetic diseases

d)

All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs

25.

If two organisms of different species have similar DNA sequences, they likely...

a)

share a common ancestor

b)

share a common environment

c)

share a common population

d)

share the same mom

26.

A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?

a)

This is purely by chance and isn't significant

b)

The extinct dinosaur and modern bird may be related through evolution.

c)

All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today

d)

Dinosaurs choose to fly and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food

27.

The study of the early stages of development before one is born or hatched :

a)

Comparative biochemistry

b)

Embryology

c)

Biogeography

d)

Comparative Anatomy

28.

If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)...

a)

close relative

b)

early ancestor

c)

unrelated organism

d)

embryological stage

29.

The hind leg bones in a whale are examples of which type of structure?

(a)  

30.
What do scientists generally find when comparing the relationship of living things in different geographic areas?
a)
Species living further apart geographically typically share a more recent common ancestral species than those living closer together
b)
Species living closer geographically typically share a more recent common ancestral species than those living further apart
c)
The location of where an organism lives gives no insight into their evolutionary relationships to other species
d)
Their protein sequences depend on the protein intake from the local watering hole.
31.

Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry. These are called (a)   structures.

32.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
33.

Which of the following is the collection of life's remains found in sedimentary rock?

a)

natural selection

b)

homologous structures

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

the fossil record

34.

Amino acid sequences can be compared to determine relationships between species. When comparing the sequences provided, which two organisms are humans most closely related to?

a)

horses and gorillas

b)

gorillas and chimpanzees

c)

chimpanzees and zebras

d)

zebras and horses

35.
______ _________ explains how two or more organisms could evolve similar traits even though they are not related to each other.
a)
convergent evolution
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
derived characters
d)
hybrid vigor
36.
In convergent evolution, organisms share physical similarities because they 
a)
have a common ancestor
b)

experience similar selective pressures from the environment

c)

develop homologous structures over time

d)

eventually merge into the same species

37.
a)
The image shows convergent evolution. 
b)
The image shows divergent evolution. 
c)
The image shows adaptive radiation.
d)
The image shows analogous structures.
38.
Flying fish, flying birds, and bats are examples of which of the following?
a)
convergent evolution & homologous structures
b)
convergent evolution & analogous structures
c)
divergent evolution & homologous structures
d)
divergent evolution & analogous structures
39.
What happens in divergent evolution? 
a)
organisms become more similar
b)
organisms become less similar
c)
species become more related
d)
adaptive radiation always occurs
40.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

41.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

42.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

43.

Female water frogs tend to be attracted to the males with the loudest and most distinctive mating call (an acoustical display).

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

artificial selection

e)

sexual selection

44.

Seed cracker birds have either large beaks or small beaks. They do not have medium sized beaks because medium sized beaks do not allow for adequate cracking of seeds.

a)

Stabilizing

b)

Directional

c)

Disruptive

45.

The number of times a particular allele appears in a gene pool is known as the

a)

population of the allele

b)

relative percentage of the allele

c)

frequency of the allele

d)

evolution of the allele

46.

Evolution can be defined as a ____________

a)

change in the frequency of an allele in a population over time

b)

change in the frequency of reproduction in a population

c)

change in the frequency of an allele in an individual

47.

There are 3 dominant alleles and 7 recessive alleles of a particular gene in a population. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

0.30

b)

0.70

c)

0.07

d)

0.03

48.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
49.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
50.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
51.
When has speciation occurred?
a)

When populations no longer look the same

b)

When populations no longer have the same frequency of alleles

c)

When populations are living in different environments

d)

When populations can no longer interbreed

52.
A bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and get the nectar/pollen inside.  Other insects cannot do this. This adaption is an example of........
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
53.

Which best describes punctuated equilibrium?

a)

Speciation occurs due to natural selection

b)

Speciation occurs due to isolation

c)

Speciation occurs slowly in geologic time, followed by long periods with very fast evolutionary change.

d)

Speciation occurs suddenly and rapidly in geologic time, followed by long periods with little evolutionary change.

54.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

55.

A speciation in which new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the SAME geographic region.

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Complex speciation

d)

Divergent speciation

56.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
speciation
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
gradualism
d)
microevolution
57.

Where is the alligator and T. rex's common ancestor?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

58.
All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of -
a)
Fur
b)
Claws or nails
c)
Lungs
d)
Jaws
59.
According to this cladogram, primates are most closely related to -
a)
Amphibians
b)
Rodents and rabbits
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
60.

Which letter represents the most recent common ancestor of sponges and mushrooms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

61.

Which trait should go where A is on the cladogram?

a)

eyes

b)

feet

c)

lips

d)

hat

62.

According to the diagram, what is the common ancestor of ALL organisms on the phylogenetic tree?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

63.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

64.

According to this tree, which of these animal phyla are most closely related?

a)

Arthropoda & Mollusca

b)

Arthropoda & Chordata

c)

Chordata & Mollusca

65.
A table of arachnid and insect characteristics is shown. Which characteristic could be used to distinguish between
arachnids and insects?
a)
Jointed legs
b)
Body segments
c)
Presence of eyes
d)
Presence of antennae
66.

Which best describes derived characteristics?

a)

They appear in all the ancestors.

b)

They appear at the end of each branch.

c)

They are newly evolved traits.

d)

They stem from primary characteristics.

67.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
68.

Which statement best explains why this trait evolved in both types of organisms?

a)

The two groups of organisms bred with each other

b)

Each goup inhabited a niche in which selection pressures (natural selection) favored this trait

c)

Both groups expressed recessive ancestor genes for this trait

d)

Both groups underwent the same sequence and timing of genetic mutations

69.

Structures that are built the same but do not necessarily have the same function are called:

a)

homologous structures

b)

molecular homologies

c)

vestigial structures

70.

A physical trait favored by an environmental change can be called an

a)

adaptation

b)

extinction

c)

possibility

d)

mutation

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